The World of the Cell, 7th Edition by Wayne M. Becker -Lewis J. Kleinsmith – Jeff Hardin -Test Bank

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The World of the Cell, 7th Edition by Wayne M. Becker -Lewis J. Kleinsmith – Jeff Hardin -Test Bank

chapter 2

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is NOT true of the polymerization of macromolecules? 1)
A) Water is added to join the monomers of the macromolecules.
B) The polymer chain usually has two different ends.
C) Macromolecules are synthesized by the stepwise addition of monomers.
D) Often the energy needed for polymerization is supplied by ATP.
E) A monomer is usually activated by the coupling of the monomer to a carrier.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) The cell membrane can be described most accurately as 2)
A) permeable to some molecules and impermeable to others.
B) permeable to all molecules.
C) permeable to only larger molecules.
D) permeable to all small molecules and ions, but impermeable to larger ones.
E) impermeable to all polar molecules.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Which of the following was NOT considered part of the “alphabet of biochemistry” by George
Wald?
3)
A) seven proteins
B) the 20 amino acids
C) the 5 nucleotide bases
D) two sugars
E) three lipids
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Ribose has five carbon atoms, of which three are asymmetric. What is the maximum number of
stereoisomers that may exist for ribose?
4)
A) 8 B) 10 C) 2 D) 6 E) 4
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) Why is a selectively permeable membrane so important to living things? 5)
A) The membrane may absorb several times its weight in cholesterol.
B) It provides a good barrier between the inside and outside of the cell.
C) Proteins will avoid a selectively permeable membrane.
D) It allows cells to attach to adjacent tissues.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) The polymerization of different types of macromolecules is similar in many respects. Which of the
following principles below is LEAST likely to be common to all methods of polymerization of
macromolecules?
6)
A) As monomers are added to the polymer, water is removed from the macromolecule.
B) To be added to the polymer, the monomer must be activated.
C) Macromolecules are synthesized by the addition of monomers.
D) Polymerization is passive, requiring little ATP.
E) The polymer is directional.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7) Biologically, which of the following is the least important characteristic of water? 7)
A) Water is a good solvent.
B) Water molecules are polar.
C) Water typically contains isotopes of hydrogen.
D) Water has a temperature stabilizing capacity.
E) Water molecules have numerous hydrogen bonds.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
8) Which of the following molecules is involved with assisted assembly? 8)
A) water molecules
B) helper proteins
C) tobacco mosaic viruses
D) molecular chaperones
E) none of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Why do polar substances such as NaCl dissolve so readily in water? 9)
A) NaCl is a very dry powder, and the water is able to soak into the salt.
B) The sodium ions repel the negative end of the water molecule.
C) Spheres of hydration form between the water and the ions.
D) The charged ends of the water molecules are able to surround the oppositely charged salt ion.
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental property of carbon? 10)
A) Carbon-containing molecules form stereoisomers.
B) Carbon-containing molecules are diverse.
C) Carbon has a valence of 4.
D) Carbon atoms are most likely to form ionic bonds with one another.
E) Carbon-containing molecules are stable.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Which of the following is NOT true of hydrocarbons? 11)
A) Many hydrocarbons are used in living systems.
B) Phospholipids have hydrocarbon tails.
C) Hydrocarbons are insoluble in water.
D) Only hydrogen atoms are used to complete the valence requirements of carbon.
E) Octane is a hydrocarbon.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
12) Self-assembly is limited by 12)
A) the time associated with forming solely noncovalent interactions.
B) the presence of water in the cytosol.
C) information of pre-existing structures.
D) the size of the molecule.
E) all of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) Which of the following is FALSE regarding water’s specific heat? 13)
A) The specific heat of water is similar to most liquids.
B) Water’s high specific heat has a temperature-buffering effect.
C) The specific heat of water is 1.0 calorie per gram.
D) Water gains and loses heat more slowly than most other solvents.
E) Heat applied to water must initially break a number of hydrogen bonds.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) Which of the following is a unit of energy? 14)
A) calorie
B) joule
C) mole
D) watt
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15) The cell membrane can be described most accurately as 15)
A) impermeable to all polar molecules.
B) permeable to only larger molecules.
C) permeable to most small molecules, but impermeable to larger ones.
D) permeable to all molecules.
E) permeable to some molecules and impermeable to others.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
16) Which of the following is NOT soluble in water? 16)
A) amino acids
B) nucleic acids
C) lipids
D) sugars
E) disaccharides
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) Which of the following sequences correctly lists the hierarchical nature of cellular structures, from
smallest to largest?
17)
A) macromolecules, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells
B) organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, organelles, cells
C) organic molecules, macromolecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells
D) organelles, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, cells
E) organic molecules, macromolecules, organelles, supramolecular structures, cells
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) An enzyme synthesized in the laboratory is found to have little activity when compared to the
enzyme extracted from cell culture. Both enzymes were examined and have identical amino acid
composition. What is the best explanation for the lack of activity of the synthesized enzyme?
18)
A) The synthetic enzyme was not made of amino acids.
B) Denaturation of the synthesized enzyme was not complete.
C) The synthesized enzyme was not folded correctly because molecular chaperones were not
present.
D) The ATP required for self-assembly was present in the cell extract but not in the laboratory
synthesis.
E) The van der Waals radius was altered during laboratory synthesis.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
19) Which of the following is NOT a structural polysaccharide? 19)
A) glycogen
B) chitin
C) peptidoglycan
D) cellulose
E) All of the above are structural polysaccharides.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) While fishing, a biology student makes the following observations:
1) Water spiders appear to be able walk on the surface of the water.
2) Flat rocks may be made to skip across the water. Which of the following properties of water can
explain these observations?
20)
A) Water molecules create spheres of hydration around solute molecules.
B) Water is an excellent solvent.
C) Water molecules are cohesive.
D) Water molecules are often associated via hydrogen bonds.
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) The moon lacks life and varies dramatically in temperature. If we could keep a layer of water
spread on the surface of the moon, what effect would it have?
21)
A) The temperatures would drop to the lower extremes.
B) Physical conditions would remain the same.
C) Life would be possible, but it would have to withstand these extremes in temperature.
D) Water would absorb and hold heat and moderate the temperature extremes.
E) Because water has a high heat of vaporization, the temperatures would rise to the upper
extremes.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
22) While synthesizing a new blue pigment, a chemist notices that the new compound congregates
between an aqueous (water) environment and a hydrophobic environment. When added to a
mixture of oil and water, the pigment creates a blue ring around the droplets of oil. Which of the
following statements best describes this new pigment?
22)
A) The pigment is a polar molecule and is forming hydrogen bonds with both the water and oil
molecules.
B) The pigment is neither polar or nonpolar, but is apolar.
C) The pigment is probably hydrophobic and is attempting to bond with the oil.
D) The pigment is hydrophilic and will not form hydrophobic bonds with the oil.
E) The pigment is amphipathic, having polar and nonpolar regions.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23) Because membranes usually are not permeable to polysaccharides, nucleic acids, and proteins, how
are cells able to incorporate these molecules?
23)
A) These macromolecules are only incorporated into structures outside the membrane.
B) Macromolecules are broken down extracellularly, and their subunits diffuse through the
membrane.
C) Macromolecules are digested extracellularly, and their subunits move through transport
proteins.
D) Macromolecules are transported via endocytosis and digested within the cell.
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) Which of the following is NOT a possible noncovalent interaction? 24)
A) van der Waals interactions
B) polar covalent bonding
C) ionic bonding
D) hydrogen bonding
E) hydrophobic interactions
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
25) Which of the following is true of an asymmetric carbon atom? 25)
A) Asymmetric carbon atoms create stereoisomers.
B) A carbon with hydrogens attached at two locations is usually asymmetric.
C) Molecules may have only one asymmetric carbon atom.
D) Methane has an asymmetric carbon.
E) Only amino acids have asymmetric carbon atoms.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26) Carbon can form ________ covalent bonds. 26)
A) single and double
B) triple
C) single
D) single, double, and triple
E) double
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
27) The hierarchical nature of cellular structure is accurately illustrated in which of the following lists
of substances (small to large)?
27)
A) nucleotides, nucleus, DNA, chromosome, cell
B) cellulose, glucose, cell wall, cell
C) protein, membrane, amino acids, chloroplast, cell
D) nucleotides, chromosome, DNA, nucleus, cell
E) nucleotides, DNA, chromosome, nucleus, cell
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
28) A hypothetical automobile has 100 parts that are to be assembled by four workers. During the car’s
assembly, each worker constructs 25 parts individually, and then the four resulting components are
assembled together. The manner in which the car was assembled is much like which cellular
strategy?
28)
A) renaturation
B) self-assembly
C) assisted self-assembly
D) hierarchical assembly
E) electrostatic assembly
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) What branch of chemistry deals specifically with living systems? 29)
A) inorganic chemistry
B) organic chemistry
C) biochemistry
D) biological chemistry
E) both C and D
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) Which of the following biological polymers is mismatched with its monomer? 30)
A) DNA – nucleotide
B) chitin – monosaccharide
C) enzyme – amino acid
D) cellulose – amino acid
E) protein – amino acid
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
31) As a protein is being synthesized, the correct folding of the protein is aided by the
movement of nonpolar amino acids toward the inner areas of the protein. How can this
phenomenon be explained?
31)
Answer: The exclusion of hydrophobic groups from the aqueous surface is called the
Hydrophobic Effect.
Explanation:
9
32) ________ aid in the assembly of some biomolecules. 32)
Answer: Molecular chaperones
Explanation:
33) Due to the directionality of polymer synthesis, proteins have a distinct ________ and
________ end.
33)
Answer: amino (-NH2); carboxyl (-COOH)
Explanation:
34) A selectively ________ membrane is one that allows some molecules to pass through but
not others.
34)
Answer: permeable
Explanation:
35) Macromolecules can be assembled into ________ that are components of organelles and
other subcellular organelles.
35)
Answer: supramolecular structures
Explanation:
36) In order to facilitate polymerization, monomers must be ________ . 36)
Answer: activated
Explanation:
37) The purpose of reducing and oxidizing agents in denaturation and renaturation is the
breaking and reforming of the ________ bond.
37)
Answer: disulfide
Explanation:
38) Polymers are synthesized by ________ reactions and broken down into their constituent
monomers by ________ reactions.
38)
Answer: condensation; hydrolysis
Explanation:
39) ________ carbon atoms allow for the formation of ________, which are mirror images of
each other.
39)
Answer: Asymmetric; stereoisomers
Explanation:
40) TMV, or ________, is a rodlike particle with a genome of ________ and a ________
consisting of 2130 copies of a single polypeptide.
40)
Answer: tobacco mosaic virus; RNA; protein coat (capsid)
Explanation:
41) Because carbon is able to form up to four covalent bonds, it can take on a variety of
orientations, including linear, ________, and ________ structures.
41)
Answer: branched; ring-containing
Explanation:
10
42) ________ and ________ groups are negatively charged functional groups of carbon,
whereas the ________ group is a positively charged functional group.
42)
Answer: Carboxyl; phosphoryl; amino
Explanation:
43) The cell membrane is composed of a ________ bilayer. This molecule has regions that are
polar and nonpolar and is therefore ________.
43)
Answer: phospholipid; amphipathic
Explanation:
44) The ________ of water is caused by the unequal sharing of electrons between oxygen and
hydrogen atoms.
44)
Answer: polarity
Explanation:
MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
Match the choice on the left with the choice on the right.
45) important in renaturation
Answer: A
A) disulfide bonds
B) TATA box
45)
Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
46) molecular chaperone
Answer: B
A) assists in lipid assembly
B) assists in protein assembly
46)
Match the interaction or bond on the left with the phrase that best describes it on the right.
47) hydrogen bond
Answer: A
48) ionic bond
Answer: B
A) noncovalent attraction among water
molecules
B) electrostatic interactions
47)
48)
Match the choice on the left with the choice on the right.
49) examples of double bond
Answer: B
A) nitrogen gas
B) ethylene and carbon dioxide
49)
Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
50) structural polysaccharide
Answer: A
A) cellulose
B) glycogen
50)
11
Match the interaction or bond on the left with the phrase that best describes it on the right.
51) hydrophobic interaction
Answer: A
A) association of nonpolar groups 51)
Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
52) informational macromolecule
Answer: B
A) ATP
B) nucleic acid
52)
Match the choice on the left with the choice on the right.
53) Heinz Fraenkel-Conrat
Answer: C
54) electrostatic interactions
Answer: D
55) condensation reaction
Answer: F
56) requirement of hierarchical assembly
Answer: A
A) subassembly
B) lipase
C) TMV self-assembly
D) ionic bond
E) ribosome
F) addition of monomer
G) disassembly
53)
54)
55)
56)
Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
57) membrane structure
Answer: B
A) spheres of hydration
B) lipid bilayer
57)
Match the interaction or bond on the left with the phrase that best describes it on the right.
58) covalent bonding
Answer: A
A) sharing of electrons 58)
Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
59) important in hydrogen bonding
Answer: B
A) methyl group
B) hydroxyl group
59)
Match the interaction or bond on the left with the phrase that best describes it on the right.
60) van der Waals interactions
Answer: A
A) transient interactions at very close range 60)
12
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
61) Macromolecules are synthesized by a series of steps. Monomers are systematically added to the growing
polymer. From what you have learned about synthesis of macromolecules, can you suggest why people who are
trying to lose weight are asked to drink plenty of water?
Answer: Since water is released in the synthesis of polymers like fats (condensation reaction), water will be
needed for the breakdown of fat molecules (hydrolysis).
62) For each of the three basic macromolecules (proteins, polysaccharides, and nucleic acids), identify the monomer,
its activated/carrier form, and the directionality of the molecule.
Answer: Proteins: amino acids; charged amino acyl tRNAs; NH2 COOH. Polysaccharides: monosaccharides;
monosaccharide phosphates; based upon their linkage but typically C1 (or C2) of one monosaccharide to
the C2, C3, C4, C5, or C6 of another monosaccharide. Nucleic acids: nucleotides; nucleotide triphosphates
(NTPs); 5’ 3’.
63) Water has many unique properties. Can you identify the property of water that is responsible for each of the
following observations?
a. Many insects such as the water strider are able to move across the surface of water.
b. Most people get chilled immediately after taking a shower.
c. A dime can be made to “float” on the surface of a glass of water.
d. The dime will sink if salt is added to the water.
e. On cold days, the water temperature is often warmer than the surrounding air.
f. Ice forms on the surface of lakes and rivers.
g. Many salts dissolve in water.
h. Many oils will not dissolve in water.
i. The coastal areas of the world have a climate that is more moderate than other areas.
j. Some springs contain high amounts of arsenic.
k. The Great Salt Lake contains high quantities of mineral solutes.
Answer: a. Water is cohesive.
b. Water has a high heat of vaporization.
c. Water is cohesive.
d. Water is a good solvent, but a solute reduces its cohesiveness.
e. Water has a high specific heat.
f. Water forms a less dense crystalline structure when solid.
g. Water is a good solvent.
h. Water is polar.
i. Water has a temperature stabilizing capacity.
j. Water is a good solvent.
k. Water is a good solvent.
13
Answer Key
Testname: C2
1) A
2) A
3) A
4) A
5) B
6) D
7) C
8) D
9) E
10) D
11) A
12) C
13) A
14) E
15) E
16) C
17) C
18) C
19) A
20) E
21) D
22) E
23) E
24) B
25) A
26) D
27) E
28) D
29) E
30) D
31) The exclusion of hydrophobic groups from the aqueous surface is called the Hydrophobic Effect.
32) Molecular chaperones
33) amino (-NH2); carboxyl (-COOH)
34) permeable
35) supramolecular structures
36) activated
37) disulfide
38) condensation; hydrolysis
39) Asymmetric; stereoisomers
40) tobacco mosaic virus; RNA; protein coat (capsid)
41) branched; ring-containing
42) Carboxyl; phosphoryl; amino
43) phospholipid; amphipathic
44) polarity
45) A
46) B
47) A
48) B
49) B
50) A
14
Answer Key
Testname: C2
51) A
52) B
53) C
54) D
55) F
56) A
57) B
58) A
59) B
60) A
61) Since water is released in the synthesis of polymers like fats (condensation reaction), water will be needed for the
breakdown of fat molecules (hydrolysis).
62) Proteins: amino acids; charged amino acyl tRNAs; NH2 COOH. Polysaccharides: monosaccharides;
monosaccharide phosphates; based upon their linkage but typically C1 (or C2) of one monosaccharide to the C2, C3,
C4, C5, or C6 of another monosaccharide. Nucleic acids: nucleotides; nucleotide triphosphates (NTPs); 5’ 3’.
63) a. Water is cohesive.
b. Water has a high heat of vaporization.
c. Water is cohesive.
d. Water is a good solvent, but a solute reduces its cohesiveness.
e. Water has a high specific heat.
f. Water forms a less dense crystalline structure when solid.
g. Water is a good solvent.
h. Water is polar.
i. Water has a temperature stabilizing capacity.
j. Water is a good solvent.
k. Water is a good solvent.
15

 

chapter 12

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) All of the following are unique to plant cells EXCEPT 1)
A) peroxisomes.
B) glyoxysomes.
C) chloroplasts.
D) leaf peroxisomes.
E) nodule peroxisomes.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) The organelle of plant cells analogous to lysosomes in animal cells is the 2)
A) lysosome.
B) microsome.
C) triskelion.
D) vacuole.
E) endosome.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) occurs by 3)
A) simple diffusion.
B) pinocytosis.
C) bulk-phase endocytosis.
D) facilitated transport.
E) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Compared with the proteins of the trans-Golgi, the cis-Golgi proteins would 4)
A) be identical.
B) be glycosylated only.
C) be shorter in length.
D) be glycosylated and contain amino acid modifications.
E) contain sialic acid.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) You want to engineer a yeast cell manufacture and secrete a bacterial protein product. To do this
properly, you need to make certain that
5)
A) the yeast cell is capable of phagocytosis.
B) the appropriate signal sequence is present.
C) plenty of clathrin-coated pits may be formed.
D) mannose-6-phosphate is added to the protein.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) All of the following statements about cellular trafficking are true EXCEPT 6)
A) Tethering proteins mediate docking between target and vesicle.
B) COPI-coated vesicles move materials from Golgi to the secretory vesicle.
C) Movement may be mediated by microtubules.
D) v-SNAREs occur in vesicles; t-SNAREs occur on target sites.
E) COPII-coated vesicles move materials from ER to Golgi.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
7) You are isolating cell fractions using a variety of centrifuge techniques. You have two very similar
fractions, but at this point are unable to discern which fraction is peroxisomes and which is
lysosomes. As a result, you need to test the fractions for unique enzyme activities. If you are
looking for peroxisomes, one enzyme activity you can test for is
7)
A) ATPase.
B) hexokinase.
C) cytochrome c oxidase.
D) glucose-6-phosphatase.
E) catalase.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8) A radioactively labeled protein is made by cells and followed through the various organelles in the
secretory pathway. After six hours, all of the radioactivity is still primarily in the Golgi apparatus.
This suggests that the
8)
A) protein does not possess a signal peptide for localization within the lumen of the rough
endoplasmic reticulum.
B) protein possesses a signal for localization within the Golgi apparatus.
C) secretory vesicles are not fusing with the plasma membrane.
D) protein was not translated by the ribosomes.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) You are working with cells and observe transport of your target protein within a cell. You suspect
that sorting conforms to the SNARE hypothesis. You, therefore, expect
9)
A) to eventually identify transport-SNAP receptors.
B) the protein molecules were internalized by phagocytosis.
C) an association with clatherin-coated pits.
D) to eventually identify vesicle-SNAP receptors.
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
10) The proteins of bacteria were radioactively labeled and fed to phagocytic cells. The proteins within
the phagocytic cell became increasingly more radioactive over time. This observation is the result of
the activity of
10)
A) lysosomes.
B) the Golgi apparatus.
C) mitochondria.
D) peroxisomes.
E) chloroplasts.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) You have genetically engineered a yeast cell to make a protein that will ultimately be secreted from
the cell. If all is functioning well, in which order (first to last) do you expect find the protein in the
cell until it is secreted?
11)
A) sER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
B) nucleus rER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
C) rER Golgi sER nucleus environment
D) rER secretory vesicle Golgi environment
E) rER Golgi secretory vesicle environment
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12) Lysosomal storage diseases are the result of deficiencies in lysosomal proteins. An example of one
such disorder is
12)
A) chronic fatigue syndrome.
B) Tay-Sachs disease.
C) adult-onset diabetes.
D) tuberculosis.
E) Huntington’s disease.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
13) Using the techniques of genetic engineering, you design a cytoplasmic protein you want to
accumulate within the ER of yeast cells. To accomplish this goal, you need to
13)
A) incorporate the appropriate DNA sequence with the proper signal.
B) incorporate the appropriate mannose-6-phosphate groups.
C) do nothing; all proteins go through the ER.
D) incorporate the appropriate lipid groups into the lipoprotein.
E) incorporate radioactive amino acids into the protein.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) Which of the following statements is false regarding phagocytosis? 14)
A) It involves ingestion of large particles by the cell.
B) It involves the projection of pseudopodia.
C) It is a method used predominantly by ameba in obtaining food.
D) In vertebrates, macrophages and neutrophils possess this ability.
E) It is mediated by clathrin at the plasma membrane.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15) Ribosomes that do not anchor to the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum during translation
most probably
15)
A) have a signal/trafficking error.
B) do not make the appropriate anchor protein.
C) are synthesizing cytoplasmic proteins.
D) have a defect in ribosomal proteins that allow attachment to the ER.
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
16) Which of the following is associated with extracellular digestion via release of the contents of
lysosomes directly to the environment?
16)
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) fertilization of animal eggs
C) autophagy
D) only A and B
E) choices A, B, and C
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) Of the following cell types, the greatest concentration of high-density lipoprotein (HDLs) would be
associated with ________ cells.
17)
A) connective tissue
B) muscle
C) liver
D) blood
E) skin
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) Regulatory secretion of hormones would be associated with ________ at the trans-face of the Golgi. 18)
A) non-clathrin vesicles
B) lysosomes
C) clathrin-coated vesicles
D) microsomes
E) endosomes
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
19) If you were looking within a cell for organized clathrin structures, you would find them associated
with which of the following structures?
19)
A) inner membrane of mitochondria
B) endoplasmic reticulum
C) trans Golgi complex
D) extracellular matrix
E) lysosomes
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) Which of the following organelles are NOT part of the endomembrane system? 20)
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) endosomes
D) peroxisomes
E) Golgi complexes
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) During receptor-mediated endocytosis, the ultimate fate of the vesicle and/or its contents include(s) 21)
A) recycling of receptors.
B) transcytosis.
C) transport to late endosome for digestion.
D) only B and C
E) choices A, B, and C
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Pharmacogenetics is a new field of study that arose from the study of 22)
A) mixed-function oxidases.
B) residual bodies.
C) phagocytosis by specifically vertebrate white blood cells.
D) cholesterol uptake.
E) ATP-dependent calcium ATPases.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
23) Microsomes are 23)
A) organelles of eukaryotic cells.
B) organelles through which electrons cannot pass.
C) artifacts generated during homogenization of cells.
D) structures observed in cyanobacteria.
E) too small to be seen with an electron microscope.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) The continuous release of mucus by the epithelial cells lining the respiratory tract is an example of 24)
A) the formation of clathrin-coated pits.
B) phagocytosis.
C) regulated secretion.
D) the mucus response.
E) constitutive secretion.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25) A protein is destined to be secreted from a cell. In which of the following organelles would you
expect to find the protein first?
25)
A) lysosome B) endosome
C) Golgi apparatus D) secretory vesicle
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
26) In a longitudinal section of a nerve cell, at the presynaptic site you note a variety of vesicles that are
anchored to the plasma membrane. The vesicles must be specialized for
26)
A) polarized secretion.
B) constitutive secretion.
C) zymogen secretion.
D) regulated secretion.
E) none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
27) In a lysosomal storage disease, the hydrolases of lysosomes are released from the cells, rather than
being isolated into vesicles. What is one possible mechanism for this result?
27)
A) A proton gradient within vesicles was not generated.
B) There is a mutation in all hydrolase genes that results in loss of the signal peptide.
C) Lysosomal enzymes were not phosphorylated in the rER.
D) There is a lack of mannose-6-phosphatase activity.
E) ER was unable to produce lysosomal vesicles.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28) Cells of the pancreas produce and directly release enzymes to the digestive system. The type of
secretory mechanism associated with the pancreatic cells is
28)
A) regulated secretion.
B) transport secretion.
C) consistent secretion.
D) constitutive secretion.
E) intracellular secretion.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) In plants, peroxisomes associated with nitrogen fixation in legumes can be found in great
abundance in
29)
A) root nodules.
B) cotyledons.
C) leaves.
D) stems.
E) phloem and xylem.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
30) Peroxisomes 30)
A) possess amylase activity.
B) possess acid phosphatase activity.
C) are not derived from the endoplasmic reticulum.
D) are bounded by double membranes.
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
31) Which of the following organelles is associated with the ability to catabolize alkanes found in oil
and petroleum products?
31)
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) peroxisomes
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32) Which of the following cellular processes has/have been linked to cancer/tumor formation? 32)
A) autophagy
B) EGF desensitization
C) NMDA receptors
D) caveolae uptake
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
33) The chronic use of the ________ class of drugs can result in decreased effectiveness of
antibiotics, anticoagulants, and steroids.
33)
Answer: barbiturate
Explanation:
34) The ________ is the organelle involved in the post-translational modification of proteins
and sorting of proteins to various intracellular and extracellular compartments.
34)
Answer: Golgi apparatus
Explanation:
10
35) A ________ is the organelle that fuses with endosomes and supplies hydrolytic enzymes
necessary for the digestion of the materials within the endosome.
35)
Answer: lysosome
Explanation:
36) A ________ is a short sequence of amino acids that targets a protein for translation across
the endoplasmic reticulum.
36)
Answer: signal peptide
Explanation:
37) The investigation of the movement of proteins and lipids to their appropriate location
within a cell is known as ________.
37)
Answer: endomembrane trafficking
Explanation:
38) Exocytosis is stimulated by regional increases in ________ concentration. 38)
Answer: calcium
Explanation:
39) The glycoproteins ________ and ________ may protect the lysosome from self-digestion. 39)
Answer: lgp-A; lpg-B
Explanation:
40) ________ is the organelle associated with the functions of steroid biosynthesis,
carbohydrate metabolism, and drug detoxification.
40)
Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
41) ________ act as proton pumps and keep the internal proton concentration of lysosomes
high.
41)
Answer: ATPases
Explanation:
42) ________ are proteins associated with clathrin-coated vesicles that are involved in the
binding of vesicles to specific receptors.
42)
Answer: Adaptins
Explanation:
43) v-________ and t-________ mediate final docking between target and vesicle. 43)
Answer: SNARES
Explanation:
44) ________ is the molecule associated with receptor-mediated endocytosis that “coats” the
vesicle until it is released.
44)
Answer: Clathrin
Explanation:
11
45) Coated vesicles known as ________ are thought to potentially be associated with
cholesterol uptake and/or have a role in signal transduction.
45)
Answer: caveolae
Explanation:
MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.
46) presence of acid hydrolases
Answer: A
A) lysosome 46)
Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.
47) peroxisomes
Answer: A
48) shuttle vesicle
Answer: B
A) oxidation of fatty acids
B) transport to various layers of Golgi
47)
48)
Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.
49) ribulose bisphosphatase activity is
present
Answer: A
50) test for the presence of cytochromes
Answer: B
A) there is no appropriate match
B) mitochondria
49)
50)
Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.
51) secretory vesicle
Answer: A
A) transport from Golgi to plasma membrane 51)
Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.
52) test for the Krebs cycle enzymes
Answer: A
A) mitochondria 52)
Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.
53) lysosomes
Answer: B
54) glyoxysomes
Answer: A
A) found in plant endosperm or cotyledons
B) degradation of damaged organelles
53)
54)
12
Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.
55) look for fractions that are green
Answer: A
A) there is no appropriate match 55)
Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.
56) Golgi apparatus
Answer: C
57) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
58) tethering protein
Answer: A
A) binds vesicle to target membrane
B) biosynthesis of steroid hormones
C) sorting proteins for export or to specific
organelles
56)
57)
58)
Choose the organelle in column 2 that best matches the activity in column 1.
59) test for catalase activity
Answer: C
60) hydroxylation of compounds
including phenobarbital
Answer: B
A) lysosomes
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) peroxisomes
59)
60)
Match the organelle on the left with the appropriate property on the right.
61) transition vesicle
Answer: B
62) mannose-6-phosphate
Answer: A
A) mediates transfer of lysosomal enzymes
into a lysosome
B) transport of proteins from ER to Golgi
61)
62)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
63) Distinguish among the following: endocytosis, pinocytosis, and phagocytosis.
Answer: Endocytosis is a means of bringing materials from the outside of the cell into the cell in an endocytic
vesicle. Typically, these endocytic vesicles will fuse with early endosomes or mature lysosomes.
Phagocytosis refers to the ingestion of relatively large particles (greater than 0.5 μm).
Pinocytosis brings soluble materials and liquids into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis, which is
either clatherin-dependent or clatherin-independent.
64) Design an experiment that will allow you to follow a protein from the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
and secretion vesicles to the outside of the cell. How will this differ if the protein is localized within lysosomes?
Answer: The student needs to come up with some way to tag the protein specifically so that it can be followed. As
there are a variety of possible answers, the instructor can validate the student’s means of tagging. The
student then should be able to follow movement throughout the system. Lysosome formation should go
through the trans-Golgi and remain within cellular vesicles.
13
Answer Key
Testname: C12
1) A
2) D
3) E
4) B
5) B
6) B
7) E
8) B
9) D
10) A
11) E
12) B
13) A
14) E
15) C
16) D
17) C
18) C
19) C
20) D
21) E
22) A
23) C
24) E
25) C
26) A
27) D
28) A
29) A
30) C
31) D
32) E
33) barbiturate
34) Golgi apparatus
35) lysosome
36) signal peptide
37) endomembrane trafficking
38) calcium
39) lgp-A; lpg-B
40) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
41) ATPases
42) Adaptins
43) SNARES
44) Clathrin
45) caveolae
46) A
47) A
48) B
49) A
50) B
14
Answer Key
Testname: C12
51) A
52) A
53) B
54) A
55) A
56) C
57) B
58) A
59) C
60) B
61) B
62) A
63) Endocytosis is a means of bringing materials from the outside of the cell into the cell in an endocytic vesicle. Typically,
these endocytic vesicles will fuse with early endosomes or mature lysosomes. Phagocytosis refers to the ingestion of
relatively large particles (greater than 0.5 μm).
Pinocytosis brings soluble materials and liquids into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis, which is either
clatherin-dependent or clatherin-independent.
64) The student needs to come up with some way to tag the protein specifically so that it can be followed. As there are a
variety of possible answers, the instructor can validate the student’s means of tagging. The student then should be able
to follow movement throughout the system. Lysosome formation should go through the trans-Golgi and remain
within cellular vesicles.
15

 

chapter 24

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) During microscopic examination of potential cancer cells, some of the cells are graded as anaplastic.
This means they
1)
A) are not aggressive.
B) divide slowly.
C) are poorly differentiated.
D) respond well to chemotherapy.
E) are easily identified to tissue of origin.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) With regard to cancer cells in the process of metastasis to secondary sites, which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
2)
A) If they enter via lymphatics, cancer cells may multiply in regional lymph nodes.
B) Many cells from the primary mass may enter circulation.
C) The population of cancer cells is heterogeneous.
D) Very few cancer cells survive the bloodstream.
E) The population of cancer cells in the bloodstream is monoclonal.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Most cancers are 3)
A) environmentally triggered.
B) the result of life style.
C) viral infections.
D) inherited.
E) both A and B
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Using polyethylene glycol, a cancer cell and a normal cell are fused. The resulting hybrid behaves
like a normal cell. The best reason for this observation is the
4)
A) presence of tumor suppressor genes and gene products.
B) recombination between cancer and normal chromosomes.
C) removal of environmental triggers.
D) exposure to polyethylene glycol.
E) both A and C
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) Which of the following viruses has NOT been determined to be associated with a particular type of
cancer?
5)
A) human papilloma virus
B) hepatitis B virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) Mimivirus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) The branch of medicine that investigates the occurrence and distribution of diseases is 6)
A) gene therapy.
B) pathology.
C) physiology.
D) immunology.
E) epidemiology.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
7) In some forms of breast cancer, estrogen is a(n) 7)
A) initiator.
B) mutagen.
C) promoter.
D) progressor.
E) inhibitor.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8) A new compound developed in the lab was tested as a DNA mutagen. When the Ames test was
performed, the results were numerous bacterial colonies following exposure. This result means
8)
A) the chemical is safe.
B) the chemical can be moved to human trials.
C) the chemical is radioactive.
D) the chemical is a carcinogen and a low-mutagen.
E) the chemical is a mutagen and may also be a carcinogen.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby proto-oncogenes are converted to
oncogenes?
9)
A) deletion
B) point mutation
C) gene amplification
D) silent mutation
E) translocation
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
10) In a normal cell, cell death typically occurs in which phase of the cell cycle? 10)
A) S
B) G2
C) M
D) G1
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) Promotion phase of carcinogenesis refers to 11)
A) metabolic oxidation by a P450 cytochrome
B) enhanced levels or exposures to a carcinogen
C) precancerous cell progression to a cancerous cell
D) normal cell progression to a precancerous cell
E) amount of DNA damage in a cell
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12) Telomere integrity in cancer cells is the result of 12)
A) natural cell aging.
B) active telomerase activity.
C) exchange of DNA between chromosomes.
D) viral infection.
E) both B and C
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) The normal RB gene functions as 13)
A) a proto-oncogene.
B) an activator of translation.
C) a cell surface receptor.
D) an inhibitor of transcription.
E) an activator of transcription.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
14) The correct order of events in metastasis of a cancer is 14)
A) transport invasion angiogenesis new site
B) angiogenesis invasion transport new site
C) transport angiogenesis invasion new site
D) angiogenesis transport invasion new site
E) invasion angiogenesis transport new site
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15) The individual credited for coining the term cancer is 15)
A) Folkman.
B) Aristotle.
C) Paget.
D) Rous.
E) Hippocrates.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16) Which of the following is FALSE with regard to cancer cells? 16)
A) Growth is not stopped by high levels of DNA damage.
B) Most cancer cells die in G1 phase.
C) The cell cycle is disrupted.
D) The apoptosis pathway is blocked.
E) Growth is not regulated by growth factors.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) A cell that has lost its capacity to grow in vitro as a monolayer is now 17)
A) anchorage-independent.
B) free-ranging.
C) benign.
D) malignant.
E) transformed.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
18) Hereditary retinoblastoma is the result of a(n) ________ in the RB gene of chromosome #13 in both
homologs.
18)
A) inversion
B) duplication
C) insertion
D) deletion
E) point mutation
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19) Judah Folkman used which model to discern the relationship between tumor growth and
angiogenesis?
19)
A) rabbit eye
B) thymus tissue
C) bone marrow
D) in vitro cells
E) mouse skin
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) The scientist(s) awarded a Nobel prize 50 years after discovering viral oncogenesis was/were 20)
A) Burkitt.
B) Folkman.
C) Rous.
D) Epstein and Barr.
E) Kaposi.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
21) Which of the following statements regarding cancer is FALSE? 21)
A) Rate of cell division is critical.
B) Balance in cell growth is achieved when division results in no net gain of cells.
C) In tumor cells, division and differentiation are uncoupled.
D) As cells become more differentiated, their capacity to divide decreases.
E) Balance between differentiation and proliferation is important.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Changes in an organism that are the result of changes in gene action(s) are known as 22)
A) micro-RNA mediated.
B) epigenetic.
C) diseases.
D) silencing.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23) The viral oncogene associated with the Rous sarcoma virus is 23)
A) p53. B) SRC. C) ERBB-2. D) SIS. E) RAS.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) The group of proteins associated with the binding of cells to the extracellular matrix are the 24)
A) matrix metalloproteins.
B) monolins.
C) MHC.
D) RAS proteins.
E) integrins.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
25) The difference between benign and malignant tumors is 25)
A) malignant tumors are adherent.
B) benign tumors have not spread to other sites.
C) benign tumors do not stimulate angiogenesis.
D) benign tumors are cancers, malignant tumors are not.
E) benign tumors have not lost growth control.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26) The first documentation of a viral infection causing oncogenesis was established with 26)
A) hepatitis B in liver cancer.
B) human papilloma virus in cervical cancer.
C) HIV in humans.
D) Rous sarcoma virus in chickens.
E) Epstein-Barr virus in Burkitt’s lymphoma.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
27) Aneuploidy (the gain or loss of chromsomes) is associated with which protein molecule in cancer
cells?
27)
A) Myc
B) Blc-2
C) pRB
D) p53
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
28) A tumor is actively producing both VEGF and FGF, factors associated with angiogenesis.
However, no network of blood vessels to the tumor has been established in spite of the fact that
blood vessels are nearby. This observation most likely suggests
28)
A) Angiogenesis inhibitors are in greater concentration.
B) The tumor is metastatic.
C) Angiostatin is not produced by the cancer cells.
D) The VEGF and FGF are not functional.
E) Only one of the molecules is active, not both.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) The most frequently encountered category of cancer is 29)
A) leukemia.
B) lymphoma.
C) sarcoma.
D) carcinoma.
E) both C and D
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) Which of the following is NOT a category for the gene product for an oncogene? 30)
A) glycolytic enzyme
B) growth factor
C) growth factor receptor
D) transcription factor
E) nonreceptor protein kinase
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
31) Some compounds are themselves not carcinogens, but rather metabolic activity on the compound
produces intermediates that are carcinogenic. This process is known as
31)
A) metabolic carcinogenesis.
B) plasminogen activation.
C) precarcinogenesis.
D) carcinogen activation.
E) DNA mutagenesis.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32) Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) is characterized by a small deletion in chromosome #5.
In which cells is this deletion present in affected individuals?
32)
A) colon polyps
B) somatic cells
C) colon epithelial cells
D) germline cells
E) all cells
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
33) A ________ is a cancer of blood cells where the cells proliferate in the bloodstream. 33)
Answer: leukemia
Explanation:
34) ________ and ________ have been demonstrated to trigger DNA mutation associated with
particular geographical cancers.
34)
Answer: environmental agents; life style factors
Explanation:
35) The ________ virus in chickens was the first association between viral infection and cancer. 35)
Answer: Rous sarcoma
Explanation:
36) A key adhesion molecule is ________, which decreases cell adherence when present in
insufficient quantities.
36)
Answer: E-cadherin
Explanation:
10
37) Changes in gene action that are often associated with cancer cells are known as ________
changes.
37)
Answer: epigenetic
Explanation:
38) An ________ is the result of an alteration of gene expression rather than a mutation of a
gene.
38)
Answer: epigenetic change
Explanation:
39) Overexpression of ________ lead to the development of cancer in mice, and variation in
their structure or amounts have been documented in various types of cancer cells.
39)
Answer: micro-RNAs
Explanation:
40) ________ are cancers that originate in epithelial cells and comprise 90% of all cancers. 40)
Answer: Carcinomas
Explanation:
41) Some cancer cells produce the enzyme ________, which avoids stimulating apoptosis
based on the number of cell divisions.
41)
Answer: telomerase
Explanation:
42) Increased ________ concentrations degrade the basal lamina and extracellular matrix and
activates matrix metalloproteinases.
42)
Answer: plasmin
Explanation:
43) ________ is the direct migration and penetration of cancer cells into neighboring tissues. 43)
Answer: Invasion
Explanation:
44) In actively dividing cancer cells, ________ often results, as three or more poles may be
present during mitosis.
44)
Answer: aneuploidy
Explanation:
45) The enzyme ________ breaks down the extracellular matrix to facilitate angiogenesis. 45)
Answer: matrix metalloproteinase
Explanation:
MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1.
Match the gene or gene product on the left with the gene category on the right. Note choices on the right may be used
more than once or not at all.
46) p53
Answer: A
A) tumor-suppressor gene 46)
11
Match the infectious agent on the left with the appropriate cancer type on the right.
47) Epstein-Barr virus
Answer: A
A) Burkitt’s lymphoma 47)
Match the gene or gene product on the left with the gene category on the right. Note choices on the right may be used
more than once or not at all.
48) Cdk-4
Answer: A
A) proto-oncogene 48)
Match the infectious agent on the left with the appropriate cancer type on the right.
49) hepatitis B virus
Answer: A
A) liver cancer 49)
Match the gene or gene product on the left with the gene category on the right. Note choices on the right may be used
more than once or not at all.
50) v-src
Answer: A
A) oncogene 50)
Match the infectious agent on the left with the appropriate cancer type on the right.
51) human papilloma virus
Answer: A
A) cervical cancer 51)
Match the gene or gene product on the left with the gene category on the right. Note choices on the right may be used
more than once or not at all.
52) BRCA-1
Answer: B
53) v-myc
Answer: A
54) erbB
Answer: C
A) oncogene
B) tumor-suppressor gene
C) proto-oncogene
52)
53)
54)
Match the infectious agent on the left with the appropriate cancer type on the right.
55) Helicobacter pylori
Answer: B
56) parasitic flatworms
Answer: A
A) bladder cancer
B) stomach cancer
55)
56)
12
Match the gene or gene product on the left with the gene category on the right. Note choices on the right may be used
more than once or not at all.
57) E-cadherin
Answer: B
58) v-ras
Answer: C
59) Myc
Answer: A
A) proto-oncogene
B) low in invasive cells
C) oncogene
57)
58)
59)
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
60) Based on your knowledge of cancer and carcinogenesis, address the following:
a) What type of mutation would be directly expressed, therefore dominant, in the development of cancer? Why?
b) What type of mutation would be expressed as a recessive trait in the development of cancer? Why?
c) Based upon your previous answers, how would you treat these situations using a gene therapy approach?
Answer: a) proto-oncogenes
b) tumor suppressor genes
c) many answers, such as homologous recombination or site-specific deletion in part a and one good
copy of the tumor suppressor gene in part b.
61) Epidemiologists at the CDC in Atlanta, GA have called you in to investigate an increased incidence of leukemia
in a remote region of Africa. Shortly after arriving, an RNA virus was isolated from patients and found to
induce leukemia in mice. At this point you don’t know the mechanism or viral gene product associated with the
development of leukemia. One of your lab assistants has isolated a variant of the virus and reports that this
variant is missing a portion (20%) of the genome of the original virus. Furthermore, this variant does not induce
leukemia in mice.
a) How would you determine which portion of the genome is associated with the development of leukemia?
b) How would you determine the viral mechanism and product associated with the development of leukemia?
Answer: a) DNA sequence comparisons between the two strains of virus.
b) Look for sequences of a known oncogene or test cells for insertion near or in an proto-oncogene.
13
Answer Key
Testname: C24
1) C
2) E
3) E
4) A
5) D
6) E
7) C
8) E
9) D
10) D
11) C
12) E
13) D
14) B
15) E
16) B
17) A
18) D
19) A
20) C
21) A
22) B
23) B
24) E
25) B
26) D
27) D
28) A
29) D
30) A
31) D
32) E
33) leukemia
34) environmental agents; life style factors
35) Rous sarcoma
36) E-cadherin
37) epigenetic
38) epigenetic change
39) micro-RNAs
40) Carcinomas
41) telomerase
42) plasmin
43) Invasion
44) aneuploidy
45) matrix metalloproteinase
46) A
47) A
48) A
49) A
50) A
14
Answer Key
Testname: C24
51) A
52) B
53) A
54) C
55) B
56) A
57) B
58) C
59) A
60) a) proto-oncogenes
b) tumor suppressor genes
c) many answers, such as homologous recombination or site-specific deletion in part a and one good copy of the tumor
suppressor gene in part b.
61) a) DNA sequence comparisons between the two strains of virus.
b) Look for sequences of a known oncogene or test cells for insertion near or in an proto-oncogene.
15

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