Visual Anatomy & Physiology 3E By Martini – Test Bank

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Visual Anatomy & Physiology 3E By Martini – Test Bank

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 2   Chemical Level of Organization

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The smallest stable units of matter are

  1. A) atoms.
  2. B) molecules.
  3. C) protons.
  4. D) neutrons.
  5. E) electrons.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) The nucleus of an atom consists of

  1. A) electrons.
  2. B) protons.
  3. C) neutrons.
  4. D) protons + neutrons.
  5. E) protons + electrons.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) The center of an atom is called the

  1. A) element.
  2. B) electron cloud.
  3. C) nucleus.
  4. D) proton.
  5. E) molecule.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

4) A(n) ________ is a pure substance composed of atoms.

  1. A) element
  2. B) compound
  3. C) molecule
  4. D) electron
  5. E) neutron

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

5) The actual mass of an atom is known as its

  1. A) atomic number.
  2. B) atomic weight.
  3. C) mass number.
  4. D) atomic mass unit.
  5. E) element number.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

6) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called

  1. A) isotopes.
  2. B) ions.
  3. C) isomers.
  4. D) trace elements.
  5. E) principal elements.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

7) The “atomic number” of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has.

  1. A) electrons
  2. B) protons
  3. C) neutrons
  4. D) protons + neutrons
  5. E) protons + electrons

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

8) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of

  1. A) protons in the nucleus.
  2. B) electrons in the nucleus.
  3. C) neutrons in the nucleus.
  4. D) electron clouds.
  5. E) electrons in energy shells.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

9) The mass number represents the number of

  1. A) protons in an atom.
  2. B) electrons in an ion.
  3. C) neutrons in an atom.
  4. D) protons + neutrons.
  5. E) neutrons + electrons.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

10) The atomic weight of an atom reflects the average number of

  1. A) protons.
  2. B) neutrons.
  3. C) electrons.
  4. D) protons + neutrons.
  5. E) protons + neutrons + electrons.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

11) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is

  1. A) 26.
  2. B) 16.
  3. C) 18.
  4. D) 8.
  5. E) 12.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

12) Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus?

  1. A) helium
  2. B) neon
  3. C) argon
  4. D) hydrogen
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

13) The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has.

  1. A) electrons
  2. B) protons
  3. C) neutrons
  4. D) protons + neutrons
  5. E) protons + electrons

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

14) By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body?

  1. A) sulfur
  2. B) sodium
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) potassium
  5. E) carbon

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

15) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) carbon
  3. C) hydrogen
  4. D) nitrogen
  5. E) calcium

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

16) Which of the following lists contains only trace elements?

  1. A) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen
  2. B) selenium, hydrogen, calcium
  3. C) boron, oxygen, carbon
  4. D) silicon, fluorine,
  5. E) cobalt, calcium, sodium

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

17) Oxygen is required in biological systems for

  1. A) cellular respiration.
  2. B) storage of energy.
  3. C) serving as a structural component of bone.
  4. D) serving as a catalyst.
  5. E) chemical messengers.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

18) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then the nucleus of a neutral atom of this element contains

  1. A) 6 protons.
  2. B) 8 electrons.
  3. C) 8 neutrons.
  4. D) 6 protons and 8 electrons.
  5. E) 6 protons and 8 neutrons.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

19) The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 8

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

20) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the

  1. A) number of protons.
  2. B) number of neutrons.
  3. C) outermost electron shell.
  4. D) size of the atom.
  5. E) mass of the nucleus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

21) Ions with a + charge are called

  1. A) cations.
  2. B) anions.
  3. C) radicals.
  4. D) positrons.
  5. E) isotopes.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

22) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons

  1. A) will form many compounds.
  2. B) will normally form anions.
  3. C) will normally form cations.
  4. D) frequently form hydrogen bonds.
  5. E) are inert gases.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

23) Which of the following is not a cation?

  1. A) Na+
  2. B) Cl-
  3. C) K+
  4. D) Ca2+
  5. E) Mg2+

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

24) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward

  1. A) water.
  2. B) salt.
  3. C) buffers.
  4. D) anions.
  5. E) hydrogen ions.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

25) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward

  1. A) a negative terminal.
  2. B) a positive terminal.
  3. C) a pH terminal.
  4. D) an organic terminal.
  5. E) the bottom.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

26) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of

  1. A) +1.
  2. B) +2.
  3. C) -1.
  4. D) -2.
  5. E) either +2 or -2.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

27) In chemical notation, the symbol Ca2+ means

  1. A) two calcium atoms.
  2. B) a calcium ion that has lost two electrons.
  3. C) a calcium ion that has gained two protons.
  4. D) a calcium ion that has gained two electrons.
  5. E) a calcium ion that has lost two protons.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) Ions with a negative charge are called

  1. A) cations.
  2. B) anions.
  3. C) protons.
  4. D) positrons.
  5. E) polar molecules.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

29) Ionic bonds are formed when

  1. A) atoms share electrons.
  2. B) electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another.
  3. C) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms.
  4. D) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms.
  5. E) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

30) In a molecule of oxygen gas, two pairs of electrons are shared equally by two oxygen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a

  1. A) single trivalent bond.
  2. B) double nonpolar covalent bond.
  3. C) triple nonpolar covalent bond.
  4. D) double polar covalent bond.
  5. E) hydrogen bond.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

31) If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a ________ occurs.

  1. A) single nonpolar covalent bond
  2. B) double nonpolar covalent bond
  3. C) double polar covalent bond
  4. D) single polar covalent bond
  5. E) hydrogen bond

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

32) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form

  1. A) ionic bonds.
  2. B) covalent bonds.
  3. C) hydrogen bonds.
  4. D) anions.
  5. E) cations.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

33) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound?

  1. A) Na+
  2. B) Cl-
  3. C) K+
  4. D) HCO3-
  5. E) NaCl

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

34) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges,

  1. A) an ion is formed.
  2. B) a free electron is formed.
  3. C) a hydrogen bond is formed.
  4. D) an ionic bond is formed.
  5. E) a covalent bond is formed.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

35) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in their outermost shells, and chlorine atoms have seven. The compound magnesium chloride would contain

  1. A) 1 magnesium and 1 chlorine.
  2. B) 1 magnesium and 2 chlorine.
  3. C) 2 magnesium and 1 chlorine.
  4. D) 2 magnesium and 7 chlorine.
  5. E) It is impossible to determine without more information.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

36) The molecule CO2 is known as

  1. A) carbonized oxygen.
  2. B) carbonated oxygen.
  3. C) carbon monoxide.
  4. D) carbon oxide.
  5. E) carbon dioxide.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

37) The molecule H2 is known as

  1. A) hydrohydrogen.
  2. B) hydrogen.
  3. C) hydroxide.
  4. D) helium.
  5. E) semi-water.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

38) The molecule O2 is known as

  1. A) oxide.
  2. B) oxygen.
  3. C) organic.
  4. D) oxygen and organic.
  5. E) oxyous.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

39) H2O is an example of a(n)

  1. A) ionic formula.
  2. B) glucose molecule.
  3. C) molecular formula.
  4. D) covalent formula.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

40) The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond.

  1. A) ionic
  2. B) covalent
  3. C) polar
  4. D) nonpolar
  5. E) hydrogen

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

41) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?

  1. A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms.
  2. B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule.
  3. C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules.
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together.
  5. E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

42) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates

  1. A) surface tension.
  2. B) chemical tension.
  3. C) static electricity.
  4. D) heat capacity.
  5. E) hydrophilic attraction.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

43) The three familiar states of matter listed in order from the least to most thermal energy are

  1. A) gas, solid, liquid.
  2. B) liquid, gas, solid.
  3. C) gas, liquid, solid.
  4. D) solid, gas, liquid.
  5. E) solid, liquid, gas.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

44) Kinetic energy is stored as ________ energy when a spring is stretched.

  1. A) chemical
  2. B) work
  3. C) thermal
  4. D) potential
  5. E) motion

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

45) In the reaction listed below, what coefficient needs to be added to balance the equation?

6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + ________ O2.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 10

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

46) AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to

  1. A) exchange.
  2. B) synthesis.
  3. C) combustion.
  4. D) replacement.
  5. E) metabolism.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

47) The reaction N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 is an example of a(n)

  1. A) exchange reaction.
  2. B) decomposition reaction.
  3. C) synthesis reaction.
  4. D) enzyme reaction.
  5. E) metabolic reaction.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

48) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with

  1. A) hydrogen, causing decomposition.
  2. B) glucose, causing decomposition.
  3. C) water, causing decomposition.
  4. D) carbon, causing decomposition.
  5. E) water, causing synthesis.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

49) In dehydration reactions, compounds

  1. A) lose water molecules.
  2. B) gain water molecules.
  3. C) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen.
  4. D) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water.
  5. E) gain electrons.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

50) The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n)

  1. A) exergonic reaction.
  2. B) endergonic reaction.
  3. C) equilibrium reaction.
  4. D) decomposition reaction.
  5. E) exchange reaction.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

51) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be

  1. A) endergonic.
  2. B) activated.
  3. C) exergonic.
  4. D) neutral.
  5. E) thermonuclear.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

52) All of the following are true concerning enzymes except that they

  1. A) are proteins.
  2. B) function as biological catalysts.
  3. C) lower the activation energy required for a reaction.
  4. D) affect only the rate of a chemical reaction.
  5. E) are consumed during the reaction.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

53) Compounds that can be synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside the body are called

  1. A) inorganic compounds.
  2. B) organic compounds.
  3. C) nutrients.
  4. D) metabolites.
  5. E) enzymes.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

54) Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound except

  1. A) water.
  2. B) acids.
  3. C) bases.
  4. D) salts.
  5. E) proteins.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

55) Which of the following is/are inorganic substance(s)?

  1. A) fructose
  2. B) water
  3. C) glycerol
  4. D) carbon dioxide
  5. E) both water and carbon dioxide

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

56) Chemical reactions that release energy are called

  1. A) energetic.
  2. B) exergonic.
  3. C) endergonic.
  4. D) metabolic.
  5. E) enzymatic.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

57) Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called

  1. A) energetic.
  2. B) exergonic.
  3. C) endergonic.
  4. D) metabolic.
  5. E) enzymatic.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

58) ________ accelerate chemical reactions that occur in the human body.

  1. A) Enzymes
  2. B) Reactants
  3. C) Products
  4. D) Metabolites
  5. E) Nutrients

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

59) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called

  1. A) enzymes.
  2. B) a metabolic pathway.
  3. C) catalysts.
  4. D) reactants.
  5. E) products.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

60) ________ molecules are compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom.

  1. A) Complex
  2. B) Inorganic
  3. C) Exergonic
  4. D) Endergonic
  5. E) Organic

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

61) ________ compounds do not usually contain carbon as a primary structural atom.

  1. A) Complex
  2. B) Inorganic
  3. C) Exergonic
  4. D) Endergonic
  5. E) Organic

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

62) Which of the following statements about water is not correct?

  1. A) It is composed of polar molecules.
  2. B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body.
  3. C) It has a relatively low heat capacity.
  4. D) It can dissolve many substances.
  5. E) It contains hydrogen bonds.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

63) A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.

  1. A) concoction
  2. B) organic molecule
  3. C) inorganic molecule
  4. D) blend
  5. E) solution

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

64) Which property of water helps keep body temperature stabilized?

  1. A) kinetic energy
  2. B) lubrication
  3. C) surface tension
  4. D) reactivity
  5. E) thermal inertia

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

65) ________ are soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current.

  1. A) Proteins
  2. B) Lipids
  3. C) Ions
  4. D) Electrolytes
  5. E) Enzymes

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

66) Molecules that do not readily dissolve in water are called

  1. A) hydrophobic.
  2. B) hydrophilic.
  3. C) electrolytes.
  4. D) isophilic.
  5. E) isophobic.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

67) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called

  1. A) cations.
  2. B) anions.
  3. C) acids.
  4. D) electrolytes.
  5. E) counter ions.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

68) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by

  1. A) heat capacity of water.
  2. B) hydration spheres.
  3. C) water’s nonpolar nature.
  4. D) free radicals.
  5. E) hydrogen bonding.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

69) Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with

  1. A) lipid molecules.
  2. B) hydrophobic molecules.
  3. C) water molecules.
  4. D) both lipid molecules and hydrophobic molecules.
  5. E) cholesterol.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

70) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of

  1. A) electrolytes.
  2. B) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water.
  3. C) hydrophobic compounds.
  4. D) hydrophilic compounds.
  5. E) solutes.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

71) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is

  1. A) acidic.
  2. B) basic.
  3. C) neutral.
  4. D) alkaline.
  5. E) in equilibrium.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) Which of the following substances would be most acidic?

  1. A) lemon juice, pH = 2
  2. B) urine, pH = 6
  3. C) tomato juice, pH = 4
  4. D) white wine, pH = 3
  5. E) stomach secretions, pH = 1

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

73) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is

  1. A) neutral.
  2. B) acidic.
  3. C) alkaline.
  4. D) a buffer.
  5. E) a salt.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

74) An important buffer in body fluids is

  1. A) NaCl.
  2. B) NaOH.
  3. C) HCl.
  4. D) NaHCO3.
  5. E) H2

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

75) In the body, inorganic compounds

  1. A) can serve as buffers.
  2. B) can make up proteins.
  3. C) can make up lipids.
  4. D) are structural components of cells.
  5. E) are all very large.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

76) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is

  1. A) 6.0.
  2. B) 4.5.
  3. C) 2.3.
  4. D) 1.0.
  5. E) 12.0.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

77) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?

  1. A) A pH of 4 is greater.
  2. B) A pH of 5 is greater.
  3. C) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values.
  4. D) pH 9, if you mixed the solutions.
  5. E) Neither; pH has nothing to do with hydrogen ion concentration.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

78) Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?

  1. A) pH 1
  2. B) pH 14
  3. C) pH 7
  4. D) pH 10
  5. E) pH 2

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

79) Which pH is closest to normal blood pH?

  1. A) pH 7
  2. B) pH 8
  3. C) pH 4
  4. D) pH 3
  5. E) pH 2

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

80) A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions, and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions.

  1. A) acid; base
  2. B) base; acid
  3. C) compound; element
  4. D) element; compound
  5. E) molecule; acid

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

81) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can

  1. A) block ion movements.
  2. B) change the shape of large complex molecules, rendering them nonfunctional.
  3. C) disrupt tissue functions.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

82) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be a

  1. A) strong base.
  2. B) weak base.
  3. C) strong acid.
  4. D) weak acid.
  5. E) salt.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

83) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na2HPO4 except

  1. A) Na2HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl.
  2. B) Na2HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH-from NaOH.
  3. C) Na2HPO4 adsorbs excess H+and OH-directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure.
  4. D) Na2HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid.
  5. E) Na2HPO4 acts as a buffer.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

84) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration expressed in moles per liter.

  1. A) dissociation
  2. B) electronegativity
  3. C) electrical current
  4. D) pH
  5. E) electropositivity

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

85) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ group.

  1. A) amino
  2. B) carboxyl
  3. C) hydroxyl
  4. D) phosphate
  5. E) nitroxyl

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

86) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as

  1. A) organic molecules.
  2. B) inorganic molecules.
  3. C) acids.
  4. D) salts.
  5. E) bases.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

87) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group?

  1. A) -COOH
  2. B) -PO3
  3. C) -NH2
  4. D) -AMO
  5. E) -OH

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

88) Which of the following functional groups of organic compounds link molecules through dehydration synthesis?

  1. A) amino group
  2. B) hydroxyl group
  3. C) phosphate group
  4. D) carboxyl group
  5. E) none of the above

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

89) A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of

  1. A) elements that occur in a salt.
  2. B) atoms that greatly influence the chemical properties of molecules they are part of.
  3. C) atoms that function in the body.
  4. D) elements that form at high pH.
  5. E) amino acids in a globular protein.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

90) Carbohydrate molecules

  1. A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes.
  2. B) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
  3. C) are the body’s most readily available source of energy.
  4. D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms.
  5. E) contain the genetic information found in cells.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is

  1. A) sucrose.
  2. B) caffeine.
  3. C) protein.
  4. D) vitamins.
  5. E) glucose.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

92) Which of the following are large polysaccharides and major dietary source of energy?

  1. A) maltose
  2. B) fructose
  3. C) sucrose
  4. D) starch
  5. E) lactose

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

93) A polysaccharide that is formed in muscle cells to store glucose is

  1. A) lactose.
  2. B) cellulose.
  3. C) glycogen.
  4. D) sucrose.
  5. E) fructose.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

94) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) lipid.
  3. C) protein.
  4. D) nucleic acid.
  5. E) cholesterol.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

95) Which of the following is correct regarding fructose?

  1. A) It is a disaccharide.
  2. B) It is a polysaccharide.
  3. C) It is the most important metabolic fuel in the body.
  4. D) It is obtained only from food.
  5. E) It is an isomer of glucose.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

96) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,

  1. A) two new monosaccharides are formed.
  2. B) a disaccharide is formed.
  3. C) a polysaccharide is formed.
  4. D) a starch is formed.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

97) Which one of the following must be broken down to fatty acids and glycerol for use as an energy source?

  1. A) lauric acid
  2. B) triglycerides
  3. C) prostaglandins
  4. D) cholesterol
  5. E) lecithin

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

98) Which of the following is a chemical messenger coordinating local cellular activities?

  1. A) diglycerides
  2. B) leukotrienes
  3. C) vholesterol
  4. D) lauric acid
  5. E) lecithin

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

99) Which of the following is a structural component of cell membranes?

  1. A) diglycerides
  2. B) prostaglandins
  3. C) cholesterol
  4. D) lauric acid
  5. E) glycogen

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

100) Which of the following is a structural component of hormones?

  1. A) monoglycerides
  2. B) prostaglandins
  3. C) lauric acid
  4. D) phospholipids
  5. E) steroids

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

101) Which of the following is a structural component of digestive secretions in bile?

  1. A) steroids
  2. B) glycerides
  3. C) eicosanoids
  4. D) fatty acids
  5. E) glycolipids

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

102) ________ are short-chain fatty acids in which five of the carbon atoms are joined in a ring.

  1. A) Cholesterol
  2. B) Estrogen
  3. C) Testosterone
  4. D) Prostaglandins
  5. E) Glycolipids

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

103) A shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of

  1. A) sex hormones.
  2. B) proteins.
  3. C) cytoplasm.
  4. D) glycogen.
  5. E) nucleic acids.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

104) A carbohydrate is attached to a diglyceride in which type of lipid?

  1. A) phospholipids
  2. B) prostaglandins
  3. C) leukotrienes
  4. D) steroids
  5. E) glycolipids

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

105) Which of the following lipids are produced in response to cellular injury or disease?

  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) glycolipids
  3. C) phospholipids
  4. D) sex steroids
  5. E) leukotrienes

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

106) ________ are large lipid molecules with distinctive carbon-ring frameworks.

  1. A) Steroids
  2. B) Eicosanoids
  3. C) Phospholipids
  4. D) Glycolipids
  5. E) Micelles

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

107) All amino acid molecules contain

  1. A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and phosphate.
  2. B) carbon, oxygen and nitrogen.
  3. C) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen.
  4. D) carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen.
  5. E) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphate and sulfate.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

108) Every amino acid has a central carbon atom to which all of the followings are attached except

  1. A) a hydrogen atom.
  2. B) a phosphate group.
  3. C) an amino group.
  4. D) a carboxyl group.
  5. E) a variable side group labeled as R.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

109) A sequence of amino acids bonded together in a linear chain is called a

  1. A) primary structure.
  2. B) secondary structure.
  3. C) tertiary structure.
  4. D) quaternary structure.
  5. E) tripeptide.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

110) Which of the following is a result of convoluted coiling and folding that grants protein its final three-dimensional shape?

  1. A) primary structure
  2. B) secondary structure
  3. C) tertiary structure
  4. D) quaternary structure
  5. E) pentagonal

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

111) All of the following are correct regarding protein denaturation except

  1. A) with increase in temperature, enzyme function deteriorates.
  2. B) tertiary structure becomes nonfunctional.
  3. C) secondary structure becomes nonfunctional.
  4. D) quaternary structure becomes nonfunctional.
  5. E) death may occur at very high temperature.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

112) Which of the following is correct regarding enzymes?

  1. A) They are made of lipids.
  2. B) They slow down cellular reactions.
  3. C) They are organic catalysts and are made of proteins.
  4. D) They bind to the active site of substrates.
  5. E) They are released during cellular injury.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.18

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

113) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.

  1. A) amino
  2. B) active
  3. C) carboxyl
  4. D) reactant
  5. E) neutral

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.18

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

114) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction occurs at

  1. A) dehydration.
  2. B) hydrolysis.
  3. C) synthesis.
  4. D) reversible.
  5. E) saturation limit.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.18

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

115) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is

  1. A) DNA.
  2. B) adenosine diphosphate.
  3. C) adenosine monophosphate.
  4. D) adenosine triphosphate.
  5. E) RNA.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

116) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between

  1. A) adenine and ribose.
  2. B) adenine and a phosphate group.
  3. C) the first and second phosphate group.
  4. D) the second and third phosphate group.
  5. E) the first and second, and the second and third phosphate groups.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

117) What product is formed from the addition of a phosphate group to ADP?

  1. A) adenosine diphosphate
  2. B) adenine
  3. C) adenosine triphosphate
  4. D) deoxyribonucleic acid
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

118) AMP + P →

  1. A) ADP.
  2. B) 2ADP.
  3. C) DNA.
  4. D) ATP.
  5. E) adenine.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

119) Adding a phosphate group to adenosine forms

  1. A) ADP.
  2. B) ATP.
  3. C) AMP.
  4. D) 2ATP.
  5. E) ribose.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

120) Adenosine is formed by combining

  1. A) adenine and ribose.
  2. B) adenine and phosphate group.
  3. C) ribose and a phosphate group.
  4. D) adenine, ribose, and a phosphate group.
  5. E) adenine, ribose, and 3 phosphate groups.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

121) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, a phosphate ion, and

  1. A) a second phosphate ion.
  2. B) a hydrogen ion.
  3. C) energy.
  4. D) ribose sugar.
  5. E) adenine.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

122) What is the individual subunit of nucleic acid called?

  1. A) ribonucleic acid
  2. B) deoxyribonucleic acid
  3. C) purine
  4. D) nucleotide
  5. E) pyrimidine

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

123) Molecules that store and process genetic information are

  1. A) proteins.
  2. B) nucleic acids.
  3. C) carbohydrates.
  4. D) lipids.
  5. E) steroids.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

124) What is an important characteristic of amino acid uracil?

  1. A) It is found only in DNA.
  2. B) It is found only in RNA.
  3. C) It is found both in DNA and RNA.
  4. D) It is not found in DNA or RNA.
  5. E) It is an essential part of quaternary proteins.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

125) All of the following are correct regarding RNA except

  1. A) it contains ribose sugar.
  2. B) molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand.
  3. C) the nitrogenous base is made of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.
  4. D) it makes protein as directed by DNA.
  5. E) it contains a double helix.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

126) All of the following are correct regarding DNA except

  1. A) it contains deoxyribose sugar.
  2. B) molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand.
  3. C) the nitrogenous base is made of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.
  4. D) it stores genetic information.
  5. E) it contains a double helix.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

127) Adenine and guanine are

  1. A) purines represented by T and C.
  2. B) pyrimidines represented by A and G.
  3. C) purines represented by A and G.
  4. D) pyrimidines represented by T and C.
  5. E) nucleotides represented by A and G.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

128) The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that

  1. A) the backbone of RNA contains ribose.
  2. B) RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines.
  3. C) RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines.
  4. D) DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines.
  5. E) DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

129) The purines found in DNA are ________ and ________.

  1. A) cytosine; guanine
  2. B) adenine; guanine
  3. C) thymine; cytosine
  4. D) adenine; cytosine
  5. E) thymine; guanine

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

130) The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and ________.

  1. A) cytosine; guanine
  2. B) adenine; guanine
  3. C) thymine; cytosine
  4. D) adenine; cytosine
  5. E) thymine; guanine

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

131) What is the relationship between an atom and matter? (Module 2.1A)

  1. A) An atom is the smallest stable unit of matter, and matter is anything that takes up space and has mass.
  2. B) An atom is the largest stable unit of matter, and matter is anything that takes up space and has mass.
  3. C) An atom is a particle with a negative electrical charge, and matter is mass within a gravitational field.
  4. D) An atom is a chemical substance made up of two or more different elements in a fixed proportion, and matter is a pure substance consisting only of atoms with the same atomic number.
  5. E) An atom is the smallest stable unit of matter, and matter is a pure substance consisting only of atoms with the same atomic number.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

132) Which subatomic particles have a positive charge? Which are uncharged? (Module 2.1B)

  1. A) protons; electrons
  2. B) electrons; protons
  3. C) protons; neutrons
  4. D) neutrons; electrons
  5. E) electrons; neutrons

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

133) Describe the subatomic particle not in the nucleus. (Module 2.1C)

  1. A) Protons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton cloud.
  2. B) Electrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating an electron cloud.
  3. C) Neutrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a neutron cloud.
  4. D) Protons and neutrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton and neutron cloud.
  5. E) Protons and electrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton and electron cloud.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

134) The gravitational field of the moon is 17% of Earth’s. How would the weight and mass of a 100-pound astronaut change on the moon? (Module 2.1D)

  1. A) On the moon, the astronaut would have more mass than on Earth but would weigh the same.
  2. B) On the moon, the astronaut would have less mass than on Earth but would weigh the same.
  3. C) On the moon, the astronaut would have the same mass as on Earth but would weigh 17 pounds (100 × 0.17).
  4. D) On the moon, the astronaut would have the same mass as on Earth but would weigh 588 pounds (100/0.17).
  5. E) On the moon, the astronaut would have less mass than on Earth and would weigh 17 pounds (100 × 0.17).

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

135) Which is larger: an element’s atomic number or mass number? (Module 2.2A)

  1. A) atomic number
  2. B) mass number

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

136) Carbon-12 (12C) is the most common form of the element carbon. How is the isotope carbon-13 (13C) similar to and different from 12C? (Module 2.2B)

  1. A) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more electron than 12
  2. B) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more proton than 12
  3. C) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more neutron than 12
  4. D) Isotope 13C has different chemical properties and has one more electron and one more proton than 12
  5. E) Isotope 13C has different chemical properties and has one more electron than 12

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

137) Describe trace elements. (Module 2.2D)

  1. A) Trace elements are abundant in the atmosphere and also abundant in the human body.
  2. B) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the body and are required for normal growth and maintenance.
  3. C) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the body and are not necessary for normal growth and maintenance.
  4. D) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the atmosphere but accumulate in the body at high levels.
  5. E) Trace elements are the elements produced by nuclear reactions in research laboratories.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

138) List the chemical symbols of the six most abundant elements in the human body and their total percentage contribution to total body weight. (Module 2.2E)

  1. A) O, C, H, N, K, Na. They account for 65% of total body weight.
  2. B) O, C, H, N, K, Na. They account for 99.3% of total body weight.
  3. C) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 65% of total body weight.
  4. D) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 99.3% of total body weight.
  5. E) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 100% of total body weight.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

139) Indicate the maximum number of electrons that can occupy each of the first three energy levels of an atom. (Module 2.3A)

  1. A) 1, 4, 8
  2. B) 1, 2, 4
  3. C) 2, 4, 8
  4. D) 2, 8, 8
  5. E) 2, 8, 16

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

140) Explain why the atoms of inert elements do not react with one another or combine with atoms of other elements. (Module 2.3B)

  1. A) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the innermost electron shell contains the maximum number of electrons possible.
  2. B) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the innermost electron shell contains the minimum number of electrons possible.
  3. C) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the outermost electron shell (valence shell) contains the maximum number of electrons possible.
  4. D) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the outermost electron shell (valence shell) contains the minimum number of electrons possible.
  5. E) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

141) Cations are smaller in diameter than their electrically neutral atom. Why? (Module 2.3D)

  1. A) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons are pulled closer toward the nucleus.
  2. B) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons are pulled further away from the nucleus.
  3. C) When electrons are gained, the electrons are pulled closer toward the nucleus.
  4. D) When electrons are gained, the electrons are pulled further away from the nucleus.
  5. E) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons enter the nucleus.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

142) Describe why table salt is a compound. (Module 2.4A)

  1. A) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one element in different proportions.
  2. B) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of only one element with different isotopes.
  3. C) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of only one element bound with more than one type of chemical bond.
  4. D) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one isotope in different proportions.
  5. E) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one element in a fixed proportion.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

143) How many electrons are shared by the oxygen atoms in an oxygen molecule?

(Module 2.4B)

  1. A) one electron
  2. B) eight electrons
  3. C) 1 pair of electrons
  4. D) 2 pairs of electrons
  5. E) 3 pairs of electrons

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

144) Describe the kind of bonds that hold the atoms in a water molecule together. (Module 2.4C)

  1. A) Water molecule bonds are ionic bonds, in which electrons are gained and lost to create the bond.
  2. B) Water molecule bonds are oxygen bonds, in which oxygen atoms form bonds together.
  3. C) Water molecule bonds are polar covalent bonds, in which unequal sharing of electrons occurs.
  4. D) Water molecule bonds are nonpolar covalent bonds, in which equal sharing of electrons occurs.
  5. E) Water molecules bonds are nonpolar ionic bonds, in which equal movement of electrons occurs.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

145) Describe the different states of matter in terms of shape and volume. (Module 2.5A)

  1. A) Solids have a fixed volume and shape, liquids have a constant volume but no fixed shape, and gases have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape.
  2. B) Solids have a constant volume but not fixed shape, liquids have a fixed volume and shape, and gases have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape.
  3. C) Solids have a constant volume but not fixed shape, liquids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, and gases have a fixed volume and shape.
  4. D) Solids have a fixed volume and shape, liquids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, and gases have a constant volume but no fixed shape.
  5. E) Solids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, liquids have a constant volume but no fixed shape, and gases have a fixed volume and shape.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

146) By what means are water molecules attracted to each other? (Module 2.5B)

  1. A) by oxygen bonds
  2. B) by hydrogen bonds
  3. C) by ionic bonds
  4. D) by nonpolar covalent bonds
  5. E) by isotopes

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

147) Explain why small insects can walk on the surface of a pond and why tears protect the surface of the eye from dust particles. (Module 2.5C)

  1. A) The attraction of the water molecules disrupts the ionic bonds preventing small objects from penetrating the water.
  2. B) The attraction of water molecules creates a gas layer that prevents small objects from penetrating the water.
  3. C) The attraction of water molecules creates an ice layer that prevents small objects from penetrating the water.
  4. D) The attraction of water molecules creates a surface tension barrier that prevents small objects from penetrating the water.
  5. E) The attraction of water molecules forms ionic bonds creating a barrier that prevents small objects from penetrating the water.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

148) Name the participants in a chemical reaction. (Module 2.7A)

  1. A) reactants
  2. B) products
  3. C) enzymes
  4. D) vitamins
  5. E) cofactors

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

149) How are chemical reactions represented? (Module 2.7B)

  1. A) Reactions are represented by line plots and the line represents the direction of the reaction.
  2. B) Reactions are represented by a sine wave and the slope represents the direction of the reaction.
  3. C) Reactions are represented by chemical equations and the arrow represents the direction of the reaction.
  4. D) Reactions are represented by Lewis structural models and the total number of atoms represents the direction of the reaction.
  5. E) Reactions are represented by superscripts and subscripts and the charge represents the direction of the reaction.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

150) What is formula weight? (Module 2.7C)

  1. A) the sum of the atomic weights of its component atoms
  2. B) the weight in grams equal to the element’s atomic weight
  3. C) the total weight of an element including the isotopes
  4. D) the average weight of an element’s different atomic masses and proportions of its different isotopes
  5. E) the sum of the atomic weights of the elements making up an ionic compound

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

151) Using chemical notation, write the molecular formula for glucose, a compound composed of 6 carbon (C) atoms, 12 hydrogen (H) atoms, and 6 oxygen (O) atoms. (Module 2.7D)

  1. A) CHO
  2. B) CH2O
  3. C) C1H2O1
  4. D) C6H12O6
  5. E) CHO (6-12-6)

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

152) Calculate the weight of 1 mol of glucose. (The atomic weight of carbon = 12).

(Module 2.7E)

  1. A) 29 grams
  2. B) 180 grams
  3. C) 12 grams
  4. D) 24 grams
  5. E) 120 grams

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

153) Compare the role of water in hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis reactions.

(Module 2.8A)

  1. A) In hydrolysis, water is a reactant; in dehydration synthesis, water is a product.
  2. B) In hydrolysis, water is a product; in dehydration synthesis, water is a reactant.
  3. C) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is a reactant.
  4. D) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is a product.
  5. E) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is an enzyme.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

154) What is the source of energy that converts glucose, a six-carbon molecule, into two three-carbon molecules in cells? (Module 2.8C)

  1. A) The potential energy stored in the ionic bonds of the glucose molecule is released when some of the bonds break.
  2. B) The kinetic energy released as ions are formed when glucose is broken down.
  3. C) The potential energy stored in the covalent bonds of the glucose molecule is released when some of the bonds break.
  4. D) The kinetic energy released as one glucose molecule combines with another glucose molecule.
  5. E) The kinetic energy is converted to potential energy as the glucose molecule forms.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

155) What is an enzyme? (Module 2.9A)

  1. A) An enzyme is a protein that increases the activation energy so more energy can be generated.
  2. B) An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
  3. C) An enzyme provides the activation energy of a reaction.
  4. D) An enzyme is an inorganic compound.
  5. E) An enzyme is a polymer produced by linking monomers together.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

156) Why do our cells need enzymes? (Module 2.9B)

  1. A) Enzymes are important sources of nutrients.
  2. B) Enzymes are important inorganic compounds used by cells.
  3. C) Enzymes provide the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.
  4. D) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.
  5. E) Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

157) What is an important by-product of exergonic reactions? (Module 2.9C)

  1. A) water
  2. B) carbon dioxide
  3. C) oxygen
  4. D) polymers
  5. E) heat

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

158) Explain how the ionic compound sodium chloride dissolves in water. (Module 2.11A)

  1. A) The positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged chloride ions, and the negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged sodium ions.
  2. B) The positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged chloride ions, and the negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged sodium ions.
  3. C) The negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged chloride ions, and the positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged sodium ions.
  4. D) The negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged chloride ions, and the positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged sodium ions.
  5. E) Sodium chloride is hydrophobic so it does not dissolve in water.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

159) Define electrolytes. (Module 2.11B)

  1. A) Electrolytes are enzymes that create energy in a solution.
  2. B) Electrolytes are enzymes that lower the activation energy for a solution.
  3. C) Electrolytes are ions that will conduct an electrical current in a solution.
  4. D) Electrolytes are hydrophobic and will create an electrical barrier between the hydrophobic substances and the hydrophilic substances in a solution.
  5. E) Electrolytes are sugar polymers used to rehydrate by increasing plasma volume.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

160) Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. (Module 2.11C)

  1. A) Hydrophilic molecules are attracted to water, whereas hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water molecules.
  2. B) Hydrophilic molecules do not interact with water molecules, whereas hydrophobic molecules are attracted to water.
  3. C) Hydrophilic molecules are inorganic, whereas hydrophobic molecules are organic.
  4. D) Hydrophilic molecules are organic, whereas hydrophobic molecules are inorganic.
  5. E) Hydrophilic molecules are monomers, whereas hydrophobic molecules are polymers.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

161) Define pH. (Module 2.12A)

  1. A) pH is a measure of the oxygen concentration in a solution.
  2. B) pH is a measure of the pressure of all the dissolved gases in a solution.
  3. C) pH is a measure of blood pressure.
  4. D) pH is a measure of the temperature in a solution.
  5. E) pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

162) A hydrogen ion is the same as what subatomic particle? (Module 2.12B)

  1. A) electron
  2. B) neutron
  3. C) proton
  4. D) quark
  5. E) neutrino

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

163) List the elements that make up organic compounds. (Module 2.13A)

  1. A) hydrogen and oxygen only
  2. B) hydrogen and carbon, and generally oxygen as well
  3. C) hydrogen, oxygen, sodium, chloride
  4. D) sodium, chloride, and potassium
  5. E) hydrogen, nitrogen, and sodium

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

164) What is a functional group? (Module 2.13B)

  1. A) A functional group is the result of dissociation of organic molecules.
  2. B) A functional group is the final energy source in organic catabolism.
  3. C) A functional group is the complex created when an enzymes binds its substrate to complete a reaction.
  4. D) A functional group is a grouping of atoms that confer specific chemical properties to the rest of the molecule to which it is attached.
  5. E) A functional group is the specific grouping of atoms on a molecule to which enzymes can bind.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

165) Describe the functional groups that are considered acidic or basic. (Module 2.13D)

  1. A) An amino group acts as a base because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a carboxyl group acts as an acid because it releases a hydrogen ion.
  2. B) An amino group acts as a base because it releases a hydrogen ion, and a carboxyl group acts as an acid because it can accept hydrogen ions.
  3. C) A phosphate group acts as a base because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a hydroxyl group acts as an acid because it releases a hydrogen ion.
  4. D) A phosphate group acts as an acid because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a hydroxyl group acts as a base because it releases a hydrogen ion.
  5. E) Phosphate groups can act as an acid or a base depending on the pH of the surrounding solution.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

166) What is the most important function of carbohydrates? (Module 2.14A)

  1. A) to form and maintain the cell membrane
  2. B) to provide the basic structure for all steroid hormones to be derived
  3. C) they act as enzymes
  4. D) they are the building blocks of proteins
  5. E) they are the primary energy source

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

167) Which of the structural representations of glucose shown below is more common in the body? (Module 2.14B)

  1. A) linear form
  2. B) ring form
  3. C) ionic form
  4. D) unsaturated form
  5. E) saturated form

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

168) List the three structural classes of carbohydrates, and give an example of each.

(Module 2.14C)

  1. A) monosaccharides (glucose), disaccharides (sucrose), and polysaccharides (starch)
  2. B) monosaccharides (sucrose), disaccharides (starch), and polysaccharides (glucose)
  3. C) monosaccharides (glucose), disaccharides (starch), and polysaccharides (sucrose)
  4. D) monosaccharides (sucrose), disaccharides (glucose), and polysaccharides (starch)
  5. E) monosaccharides (starch), disaccharides (glucose), and polysaccharides (sucrose)

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

169) Predict the reactants and the type of chemical reaction involved when muscle cells make and store glycogen. (Module 2.14D)

  1. A) glucose and fructose; dehydration synthesis
  2. B) glucose and fructose; hydrolysis
  3. C) many glucose monomers; dehydration synthesis
  4. D) many glucose monomers; hydrolysis
  5. E) many starch monomers; hydrolysis

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

170) Describe lipids in terms of their elemental composition and solubility in water.

(Module 2.15A)

  1. A) water-soluble organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
  2. B) water-insoluble organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
  3. C) water-soluble inorganic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen
  4. D) water-insoluble inorganic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen
  5. E) water-soluble organic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

171) In the hydrolysis of a triglyceride, what are the reactants and the products? (Module 2.15D)

  1. A) The reactants are a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids; the products are a triglyceride and three water molecules.
  2. B) The reactants are a triglyceride and three water molecules; the products are a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids.
  3. C) The reactants are a glucose monomer and three water molecules; the products are a glycogen molecule and three fatty acids.
  4. D) The reactants are a glycogen molecule and three water molecules; the products are a glucose monomer and three fatty acids.
  5. E) The reactants are a glycine molecule and three water molecules; the products are a glyceride molecule and three fatty acids.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

172) Describe the structure and role of prostaglandins. (Module 2.16A)

  1. A) They are a type of leukotrienes released by cells to coordinate local cellular activities and produce pain sensations.
  2. B) They are a type of steroid used to maintain the plasma membrane and for cell growth and division.
  3. C) They are a type of eicosanoid released by cells to coordinate local cellular activities and produce pain sensations.
  4. D) They have a carbohydrate attached to a diglyceride and are used to maintain the plasma membrane.
  5. E) They have a carbon-ring structure and are used for producing many steroid hormones.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

173) Why is cholesterol necessary in the body? (Module 2.16B)

  1. A) It is important for energy production.
  2. B) It is an important enzyme.
  3. C) It is a building block for proteins.
  4. D) It is a component of plasma membranes and is important for cell growth and division.
  5. E) It makes up the genetic material.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

174) Describe the orientations of phospholipids and glycolipids when they form a micelle. (Module 2.16C)

  1. A) The hydrophobic tails are inside, and the hydrophilic heads form the surface of the micelle.
  2. B) The hydrophilic tails are inside, and the hydrophobic heads form the surface of the micelle.
  3. C) The hydrophobic heads are inside, and the hydrophilic tails form the surface of the micelle.
  4. D) The hydrophilic heads are inside, and the hydrophobic tails form the surface of the micelle.
  5. E) The phospholipids are on the inside, and the glycolipids form the surface of the micelle.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

175) What do cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids have in common? (Module 2.16D)

  1. A) They all form ring structures.
  2. B) They all have carbohydrate groups attached.
  3. C) They are all linear structures.
  4. D) They are all structural lipids that form membranes of cells.
  5. E) They are all soluble in water.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

176) What kind of bond forms during the dehydration synthesis of two amino acids, and which functional groups are involved? (Module 2.17B)

  1. A) A glycosidic bond forms between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other amino acid.
  2. B) A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen atom of one amino acid and the oxygen atom of the other amino acid.
  3. C) An ionic bond forms between the amino ion of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid of the other amino acid.
  4. D) A lipophilic bond forms between the hydrophobic tail of one amino acid and the hydrophilic head of the other amino acid.
  5. E) A peptide bond forms between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other amino acid.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

177) What are the reactants in an enzymatic reaction called? (Module 2.18A)

  1. A) ATP
  2. B) energy
  3. C) substrates
  4. D) products
  5. E) inhibitors

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.18

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

178) Relate an enzyme’s structure to its reaction specificity. (Module 2.18B)

  1. A) The reaction specificity relates to the unique shape of the active site to which only a complementary shape can bind.
  2. B) The reaction specificity relates to the number of enzymes with the same structure.
  3. C) The reaction specificity relates to the size of the enzyme.
  4. D) The reaction specificity relates to how many active sites are present on the enzyme.
  5. E) The reaction specificity relates to how much energy is created when the enzyme-substrate complex forms.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  2.18

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

179) Describe ATP. (Module 2.19A)

  1. A) ATP consists of an adenine molecule with three potassium ions attached.
  2. B) ATP consists of an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached.
  3. C) ATP consists of an adenosine, a thymine, and a pyrimidine molecule linked together.
  4. D) ATP consists of an adenine molecule with three phosphate groups attached.
  5. E) ATP consists of an adenosine with three potassium ions attached.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

180) Compare AMP with ADP. (Module 2.19B)

  1. A) AMP has one potassium ion and ADP has two potassium ions.
  2. B) AMP has one sugar molecule and ADP has two sugar molecules.
  3. C) AMP has one fatty acid and ADP has two fatty acids.
  4. D) AMP has one phosphate group and ADP has two phosphate groups.
  5. E) AMP has one binding site and ADP has two binding sites.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

181) Where do cells obtain the energy needed for their vital functions? (Module 2.19C)

  1. A) Energy depends on the number of rings in their structure.
  2. B) Energy comes from the type of sugar molecule bound to the structure.
  3. C) Energy comes from breaking high energy bonds in a compound.
  4. D) Energy comes from the number of enzymes that are present in the cell.
  5. E) Energy comes from the type of nitrogenous base in the structure.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

182) What are the products of ATP hydrolysis? (Module 2.19D)

  1. A) AMP, two phosphate groups, and energy
  2. B) ADP, a phosphate group, and energy
  3. C) 3 phosphate groups and energy
  4. D) an adenosine, a phosphate group, and energy
  5. E) ribose, adenine, a phosphate group, and energy

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.19

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

183) Explain how the complementary strands of DNA are held together. (Module 2.20B)

  1. A) They are held by ionic bonds.
  2. B) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine.
  3. C) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to cytosine and thymine to guanine.
  4. D) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to guanine and thymine to cytosine.
  5. E) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to adenine, thymine to thymine, guanine to guanine, and cytosine to cytosine.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 


Essay Questions

 

184) Compare and contrast ionic and covalent bonds.

Answer:  An ionic bond is when one molecule loses an electron and gives it to another molecule. One molecule becomes positive and the other one becomes negative. This forms a weak magnetic attraction between the two molecules. A covalent bond is when two or more molecules share an electron with each other. The bond is much stronger than an ionic bond.

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

185) Predict what will happen in the human body when a person ingests a large amount of Rolaids®, i.e., a base.

Answer:  Because the Rolaids® are a base, they would neutralize some of the acid in the stomach. If enough of the acid is neutralized, the body’s buffer systems would need to correct the pH shift.

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

186) Justify why blood has a very narrow normal pH range. What happens if the blood pH gets too high or too low?

Answer:  Homeostasis requires that the pH of body fluids be maintained almost constant to avoid disruptions of normal cell and tissue function. If the pH of the blood and body fluids gets too high, alkalosis occurs, causing uncontrollable muscle contractions. If the pH of the blood and body fluids gets too low, acidosis occurs and will result in coma and death.

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

187) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.

Answer:  Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.

Learning Outcome:  2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

188) Describe the importance of hemoglobin.

Answer:  It is a globular protein, which is made of quaternary structure. It is comprised of four polypeptide subunits. Red blood cells contain a large amount of hemoglobin. Oxygen binds to heme unit of the molecule and carried from the lung to the tissue.

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

189) What are the characteristics of an RNA molecule?

Answer:  It consists of a single chain of nucleotide. The order of nucleotides and the interactions among them will affect the shape and the function of RNA. There are three different types of RNA and each one has its own specific function: (1) messenger RNA (mRNA), (2) transfer RNA (tRNA), and (3) ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

190) How is it possible for two samples of hydrogen to contain the same number of atoms yet have different weights? (Module 2.2C)

Answer:  Isotopes are atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Hydrogen has three isotopes: hydrogen-1, with a mass number of 1; deuterium, with a mass number of 2; and tritium, with a mass number of 3. The mass number is greater in each isotope because the atoms contain an increasing number of neutrons. The heavier hydrogen sample must contain a higher proportion of one or both of the heavier isotopes.

Learning Outcome:  2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

191) Explain how cations and anions form. (Module 2.3C)

Answer:  A cation is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons from its outermost electron shell; it has an overall positive charge because it contains more protons than electrons. An anion is formed when an atom gains one or more electrons in its outermost electron shell; it has an overall negative charge because it contains more electrons than protons.

Learning Outcome:  2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

192) Explain why we can use the term molecule for the smallest particle of water but not for that of table salt. (Module 2.4D)

Answer:  The term molecule refers only to chemical structures held together by covalent bonds. Table salt is an ionic compound whose components — sodium ions and chloride ions — are held together by ionic bonds.

Learning Outcome:  2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

193) Describe the relationship between thermal energy (temperature) and stability of the hydrogen bonds between water molecules in ice, in liquid water, and as a gas. (Module 2.5D)

Answer:  The low thermal energy of ice slows the vibration of water molecules, resulting in stable hydrogen bonds. Liquid water has more thermal energy than does ice, and hydrogen bonds are less stable as they break and re-form. At the boiling point, hydrogen bonds are broken, and the water molecules are independent of each other.

Learning Outcome:  2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

194) Describe how cells are chemical factories. (Module 2.6A)

Answer:  Cells are chemical factories because they use complex chemical reactions to provide the energy they need to maintain homeostasis and to perform essential functions.

Learning Outcome:  2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

195) Compare and contrast the terms work, energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy. (Module 2.6B)

Answer:  Work is the movement of an object or a change in the physical structure of matter. Energy is the capacity to perform work. Potential energy is stored energy that has the potential (capability) to do work. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.

Learning Outcome:  2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

196) Relate the terms work, energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy to a muscle contraction at the cellular level. (Module 2.6C)

Answer:  Cells do work when they synthesize complex molecules and move materials into and out of cells. Muscle contraction requires energy. Molecules inside muscle cells store the potential energy of contraction. The potential energy of contraction is converted into kinetic energy when a muscle contracts.

Learning Outcome:  2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

197) Identify and describe three types of chemical reactions important in human physiology. (Module 2.8B)

Answer:  Three types of chemical reactions important in human physiology are (1) decomposition reactions, in which a molecule is broken down into smaller fragments; (2) synthesis reactions, in which small molecules are assembled into larger ones; and (3) exchange reactions, in which parts of the reacting molecules are shuffled around to produce new products.

Learning Outcome:  2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

198) Explain the differences between metabolites and nutrients. (Module 2.9D)

Answer:  Metabolites are molecules that can be synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside our bodies. Nutrients are essential metabolites normally obtained from the diet.

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

199) Explain why enzymes are often called organic catalysts. (Module 2.9E)

Answer:  Enzymes are special protein catalysts. Proteins are one class of organic compounds.

Learning Outcome:  2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

200) Predict how water plays a role as a lubricant, reactant, coolant, and solvent during exercise. (Module 2.10A)

Answer:  During exercise, water lubricates the joints for easy movement. It also functions in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions that occur during muscle contraction. Water also cools the body through the evaporation of perspiration from the skin. Water dissolves wastes generated by exercise.

Learning Outcome:  2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

201) Explain the differences among an acid, a base, and a salt. (Module 2.12C)

Answer:  An acid is a compound whose dissociation in solution releases a hydrogen ion (H+) and an anion; a base is a compound whose dissociation releases a hydroxide ion (OH-) into the solution or removes a hydrogen ion (H+) from the solution; and a salt is an ionic compound consisting of a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH-.

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

202) What is the relationship between buffers and pH in physiological systems? (Module 2.12D)

Answer:  Buffers stabilize body pH by removing or replacing hydrogen ions. The pH of various body fluids must remain relatively constant if the body is to maintain homeostasis and remain healthy.

Learning Outcome:  2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

203) Identify the important functional groups of organic compounds. (Module 2.13C)

Answer:  Amino groups are the functional groups of amino acids. Carboxyl groups are functional groups of fatty acids and amino acids. Hydroxyl groups are the functional groups that link molecules by dehydration synthesis and affect a molecule’s solubility. Phosphate groups are functional groups found in nucleic acids and high-energy compounds.

Learning Outcome:  2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

204) List examples of representative lipids in the body. (Module 2.15B)

Answer:  Examples of lipids found in the body are fatty acids, glycerides, eicosanoids, steroids, phospholipids, and glycolipids.

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

205) Describe the structures of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. (Module 2.15C)

Answer:  All fatty acids consist of a hydrocarbon chain and a carboxyl group. In saturated fatty acids, each carbon atom in the hydrocarbon chain has four single covalent bonds that bind the maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible. In unsaturated fatty acids, one or more of the carbon atoms in the hydrocarbon chain has double covalent bonds, so fewer hydrogen atoms are bonded.

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

206) Summarize the functions of lipids in the body. (Module 2.15E)

Answer:  Lipids are both a source of energy and a means of energy storage and insulation and physical protection. Some lipids act as chemical messengers between cells. Lipids are essential components of plasma membranes.

Learning Outcome:  2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

207) Describe proteins. (Module 2.17A)

Answer:  Proteins are organic compounds formed from amino acids. Each amino acid contains a carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a variable group, known as an R group or side chain.

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

208) Why does boiling a protein affect its functional properties? (Module 2.17C)

Answer:  The heat of boiling breaks bonds that maintain the protein’s tertiary structure, quaternary structure, or both. The resulting change in shape affects the ability of the protein molecule to perform its normal biological functions. These changes are known as denaturation.

Learning Outcome:  2.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

209) Describe and identify the two classes of nucleic acids. (Module 2.20A)

Answer:  Nucleic acids are large organic molecules composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus that regulate the synthesis of proteins and make up the genetic material in cells. The two classes of nuclei acids are ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

210) Compare and contrast the nucleotides of DNA and RNA. (Module 2.20C)

Answer:  DNA is composed of a pair of nucleotide chains, and RNA is made up of a single chain. The nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine are common to both DNA and RNA nucleotides. The nitrogenous base thymine is found only in DNA, and uracil is found only in RNA.

Learning Outcome:  2.20

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 14   The Autonomic Nervous System

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The statement “There is always a synapse in a peripheral ganglion between the CNS and the effector organ” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n) ________ neuron.

  1. A) upper motor
  2. B) lower motor
  3. C) preganglionic
  4. D) postganglionic
  5. E) somatomotor

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) Ganglionic neurons usually synapse with preganglionic neurons in the ________ and have axons that innervate ________.

  1. A) brain; visceral effectors
  2. B) autonomic ganglia; visceral effectors
  3. C) visceral effectors; autonomic ganglia
  4. D) visceral effectors; brain
  5. E) brain; spinal cord

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

4) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on

  1. A) postganglionic fibers.
  2. B) visceral reflex responses.
  3. C) motor neurons.
  4. D) ganglionic neurons.
  5. E) sensory neuron neurons.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

5) Ganglionic neurons innervate as all of the following except

  1. A) smooth muscle.
  2. B) cardiac muscle.
  3. C) adipose tissue.
  4. D) glands.
  5. E) skeletal muscle.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

6) Autonomic motor neurons

  1. A) cause general relaxation.
  2. B) cause general excitation.
  3. C) conduct impulses from sensory receptors.
  4. D) conduct impulses to skeletal muscles.
  5. E) conduct impulses to smooth and cardiac muscles and glands.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

7) All of the following are visceral effectors except

  1. A) smooth muscles.
  2. B) cardiac muscle.
  3. C) adipocytes.
  4. D) skeletal muscles.
  5. E) glands.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

8) The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?

  1. A) somatic division
  2. B) craniosacral division
  3. C) resting division
  4. D) thoracolumbar division
  5. E) both somatic division and craniosacral division

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

9) Which of the following is true for the craniosacral division?

  1. A) It is also called the sympathetic division of the ANS.
  2. B) It is also called the parasympathetic division of the ANS.
  3. C) It is referred to the “fight or flight” division.
  4. D) It is a division of the visceral sensory nervous system.
  5. E) It is included solely in the peripheral nervous system.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

10) Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located

  1. A) only in the brain stem.
  2. B) only in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
  3. C) only in the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
  4. D) both in the brain stem and in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
  5. E) only in the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

11) The statement “It sends its preganglionic fibers to terminal or intramural ganglia” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

12) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity?

  1. A) thoracic
  2. B) lumbar
  3. C) abdominopelvic
  4. D) vertebral
  5. E) cranial

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

13) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is known as the “rest and digest” division.

  1. A) sympathetic
  2. B) parasympathetic
  3. C) thoracolumbar
  4. D) visceral
  5. E) somatomotor

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

14) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ________ ganglia.

  1. A) intramural
  2. B) collateral
  3. C) chain
  4. D) prevertebral
  5. E) suprarenal

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

15) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia.

  1. A) intramural
  2. B) collateral
  3. C) chain
  4. D) paravertebral
  5. E) suprarenal

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

16) Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are found within the

  1. A) intramural ganglia.
  2. B) collateral ganglia.
  3. C) chain ganglia.
  4. D) brainstem.
  5. E) adrenal glands.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

17) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within

  1. A) intramural ganglia.
  2. B) collateral ganglia.
  3. C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
  4. D) suprarenal ganglia.
  5. E) white rami.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

18) The statement “Its ganglia are usually near or within the end organ” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

19) The celiac ganglia do not innervate the

  1. A) liver.
  2. B) spleen.
  3. C) stomach.
  4. D) pancreas.
  5. E) intestines.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

20) Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the

  1. A) heart.
  2. B) pupils.
  3. C) sweat glands.
  4. D) digestive tract.
  5. E) arrector pili muscles.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

21) The statement “It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

22) Splanchnic nerves

  1. A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord.
  2. B) consist of axons that synapse in collateral ganglia.
  3. C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax.
  4. D) connect chain ganglia.
  5. E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

23) Sympathetic innervation of the urinary bladder is by way of the ________ ganglion.

  1. A) celiac
  2. B) superior mesenteric
  3. C) inferior mesenteric
  4. D) pudendal
  5. E) pelvic

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

24) The sympathetic collateral ganglia include all of the following except the

  1. A) celiac.
  2. B) superior mesenteric.
  3. C) inferior mesenteric.
  4. D) lumbar
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

25) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial nerves except

  1. A) III.
  2. B) VII.
  3. C) IX.
  4. D) X.
  5. E) XII.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

26) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s).

  1. A) splanchnic
  2. B) facial
  3. C) vagus
  4. D) glossopharyngeal
  5. E) trigeminal

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

27) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion?

  1. A) ciliary
  2. B) pterygopalatine
  3. C) submandibular
  4. D) otic
  5. E) celiac

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) Intramural ganglia in the large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs are innervated by the ________ nerves.

  1. A) spinal
  2. B) splanchnic
  3. C) ciliary
  4. D) pelvic
  5. E) collateral

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

29) Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the

  1. A) suprarenal medulla.
  2. B) celiac ganglia.
  3. C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
  4. D) inferior mesenteric ganglia.
  5. E) splanchnic nerves.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

30) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the

  1. A) celiac plexus.
  2. B) hypogastric plexus.
  3. C) cardiac plexus.
  4. D) pterygopalatine ganglia.
  5. E) otic ganglia.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

31) What type of neuron of the parasympathetic division exits the brain stem?

  1. A) somatic motor neuron
  2. B) preganglionic neuron
  3. C) sensory neuron
  4. D) ganglionic neuron
  5. E) astrocyte

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

32) Which structure carries postganglionic fibers for distribution in the body wall and limbs?

  1. A) gray ramus
  2. B) dorsal ramus
  3. C) spinal nerve
  4. D) white ramus
  5. E) ventral root

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

33) Which of the following is exclusive to the sympathetic division of the ANS?

  1. A) ventral roots
  2. B) dorsal rami
  3. C) spinal nerves
  4. D) ventral rami
  5. E) short pre-ganglionic fibers

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

34) Two terms that both refer to internal organs are

  1. A) sympathetic and parasympathetic.
  2. B) viscera and somatic.
  3. C) splanchnic and ganglionic.
  4. D) splanchnic and viscera.
  5. E) somatic and preganglionic.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

35) Which of the following provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to structures in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

  1. A) vagus nerves
  2. B) sciatic nerves
  3. C) glossopharyngeal nerves
  4. D) pelvic nerves
  5. E) splanchnic nerves

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

36) Injury to the cervical sympathetic ganglia would not affect the function of the

  1. A) heart.
  2. B) pupils.
  3. C) salivary glands.
  4. D) lungs.
  5. E) lacrimal glands.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

37) As the result of an accident, the white rami of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad’s body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect might be affected by this injury?

  1. A) left pupil
  2. B) right pupil
  3. C) heart
  4. D) left and right pupil
  5. E) left pupil and heart

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

38) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic pelvic nerves synapse on neurons located within ________ ganglia.

  1. A) pterygopalatine
  2. B) ciliary
  3. C) coccygeal
  4. D) inferior mesenteric
  5. E) intramural

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

39) Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to

  1. A) dilate the right pupil.
  2. B) constrict the right pupil.
  3. C) dilate the left pupil.
  4. D) constrict the left pupil.
  5. E) smile and frown.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

40) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the

  1. A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord.
  2. B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.
  3. C) lateral gray horns of segments T1to L2of the spinal cord.
  4. D) anterior gray horns of segments T1to L2of the spinal cord.
  5. E) lateral gray horns of T1to S2 of the spinal cord.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

41) The adrenal medullae secrete

  1. A) medullin.
  2. B) epinephrine.
  3. C) norepinephrine.
  4. D) renin.
  5. E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

42) Which neurotransmitter is released at the sympathetic chain ganglia?

  1. A) norepinephrine
  2. B) dopamine
  3. C) acetylcholine
  4. D) endorphin
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

43) Postganglionic sympathetic axons release the neurotransmitter ________ at their effector junctions.

  1. A) acetylcholine
  2. B) nitric oxide
  3. C) norepinephrine
  4. D) acetylcholine or nitric oxide or norepinephrine
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

44) Sympathetic nerves

  1. A) provoke feelings of sympathy.
  2. B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover.
  3. C) are bundles of postganglionic fibers that innervate organs within the thoracic cavity.
  4. D) control swallowing.
  5. E) stimulate gastric secretion.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

45) The statement “Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

46) In general, sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and postganglionic fibers are ________.

  1. A) long; short
  2. B) short; long
  3. C) long; long
  4. D) short; short

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

47) In general, parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and postganglionic fibers are ________.

  1. A) long; short
  2. B) short; long
  3. C) long; long
  4. D) short; short

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

48) The statement “Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

49) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is false?

  1. A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord.
  2. B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors.
  3. C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
  4. D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic division.
  5. E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

50) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except

  1. A) increased sweat secretion.
  2. B) reduced circulation to the skin.
  3. C) decreased heart rate.
  4. D) dilation of the pupils.
  5. E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

51) Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type?

  1. A) the heart
  2. B) a blood vessel in the skin
  3. C) a sweat gland
  4. D) the liver
  5. E) the salivary glands

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

52) Neurons that use norepinephrine as a transmitter are called

  1. A) cholinergic.
  2. B) adrenergic.
  3. C) nicotinic.
  4. D) muscarinic.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

53) Stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine results in

  1. A) an increase in the amount of intracellular cAMP.
  2. B) a decrease in the amount of intracellular cAMP.
  3. C) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ion.
  4. D) release of calcium ions from intracellular stores.
  5. E) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

54) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells does not result in

  1. A) the formation of cAMP.
  2. B) increased heart rate.
  3. C) increased force of contraction.
  4. D) increased metabolism.
  5. E) inactivation of G proteins.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

55) Nicotinic receptors

  1. A) respond to epinephrine.
  2. B) respond to norepinephrine.
  3. C) open chemically gated sodium ion channels.
  4. D) are found at neuroeffector junctions of the autonomic nervous system.
  5. E) open chemically gated calcium ion channels.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

56) Muscarinic receptors

  1. A) are normally activated by acetylcholine.
  2. B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia.
  3. C) always produce an excitatory response.
  4. D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane.
  5. E) are blocked by norepinephrine.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

57) The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors does not lead to

  1. A) an increase in metabolic activity.
  2. B) relaxation of airway smooth muscle.
  3. C) the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes.
  4. D) cardiac muscle stimulation.
  5. E) release of calcium from the ER.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

58) Which of the following statements about adrenergic receptors is true?

  1. A) They are proteins in the plasma membrane.
  2. B) When activated, cAMP levels are affected.
  3. C) Epinephrine activates both alpha and beta types.
  4. D) Norepinephrine activates mainly the alpha type.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

59) A neuron with nicotinic receptors is exposed to acetylcholine. This will not lead to

  1. A) activation of chemically gated ion channels.
  2. B) excitation of the neuron.
  3. C) entry of sodium ion.
  4. D) binding of the nicotine to the channel.
  5. E) activation of muscarinic receptors.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

60) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating

  1. A) constipation.
  2. B) diarrhea.
  3. C) excessive salivation.
  4. D) excessive heart rate.
  5. E) depressed heart rate.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

61) Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. What would not occur?

  1. A) constriction of the pupils
  2. B) constriction of respiratory passageways
  3. C) diarrhea
  4. D) reduction in heart rate
  5. E) feeling of euphoria and increased energy

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

62) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that

  1. A) activates β1adrenergic receptors.
  2. B) activates β2adrenergic receptors.
  3. C) blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
  4. D) activates β1or β2 adrenergic receptors.
  5. E) activates β2adrenergic receptors or blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

63) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors.

  1. A) nicotinic cholinergic
  2. B) muscarinic cholinergic
  3. C) alpha-1 adrenergic
  4. D) alpha-2 adrenergic
  5. E) beta-1 adrenergic

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

64) Sweat glands contain ________ receptors.

  1. A) nicotinic cholinergic
  2. B) muscarinic cholinergic
  3. C) alpha
  4. D) beta
  5. E) both muscarinic cholinergic and beta

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

65) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving

  1. A) two nerves from the spinal cord.
  2. B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
  3. C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
  4. D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
  5. E) two nerves from the spinal cord and both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

66) Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon

  1. A) sympathetic stimulation only.
  2. B) parasympathetic stimulation only.
  3. C) somatomotor stimulation only.
  4. D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation.
  5. E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

67) Ganglionic neurons in the adrenal gland

  1. A) are located in the adrenal cortex.
  2. B) release acetylcholine into blood capillaries.
  3. C) release epinephrine into blood capillaries.
  4. D) have no known function.
  5. E) are modified and can’t release neurotransmitters.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

68) The statement “It controls the diameter of the pupil” is

  1. A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
  2. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
  3. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  4. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
  5. E) true only for the somatic nervous system.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

69) Parasympathetic stimulation

  1. A) increases heart rate.
  2. B) increases gastric motility.
  3. C) causes sweat glands to secrete.
  4. D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
  5. E) causes the pupils to dilate.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

70) In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when

  1. A) sympathetic stimulation is increased.
  2. B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased.
  3. C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased.
  4. D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased.
  5. E) somatomotor stimulation is increased.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

71) The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state(s)?

  1. A) exertion
  2. B) trauma
  3. C) digestion
  4. D) stress
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) Sympathetic activation leads to all of the following except

  1. A) vasoconstriction to digestive organs.
  2. B) vasodilation to skeletal muscle.
  3. C) increased heart rate.
  4. D) increased release of insulin.
  5. E) increase in alertness.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

73) During sympathetic activation, which of the following would not occur?

  1. A) elevated heart rate
  2. B) elevated blood pressure
  3. C) increased sweating
  4. D) elevated blood glucose
  5. E) constriction of pupil

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

74) Parasympathetic functions include all of the following except

  1. A) reduction in the rate of cardiac contraction.
  2. B) constriction of the pupils.
  3. C) dilation of the airways.
  4. D) stimulation of urination.
  5. E) stimulation of defecation.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

75) Which of the following would lead to increased heart rate?

  1. A) increased sympathetic input
  2. B) decreased sympathetic input
  3. C) increased parasympathetic input
  4. D) decreased parasympathetic input
  5. E) both increased sympathetic input and decreased parasympathetic input

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

76) Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to

  1. A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter.
  2. B) increased heart rate.
  3. C) hydrolysis of liver glycogen reserves.
  4. D) activation of ventral sweat glands.
  5. E) increased gastric motility.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

77) Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it

  1. A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions.
  2. B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity.
  3. C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their activity.
  4. D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control options.
  5. E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

78) A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are not the result of

  1. A) sympathetic activation.
  2. B) increased levels of epinephrine in the blood.
  3. C) increased activity of autonomic centers in the hypothalamus.
  4. D) stimulation of the cardioacceleratory reflex.
  5. E) stimulation of the pancreas to release insulin.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

79) Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

  1. A) opposing
  2. B) complementary
  3. C) dual

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

80) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in

  1. A) an increase in vessel diameter.
  2. B) a decrease in vessel diameter.
  3. C) oscillation in vessel diameter.
  4. D) an increase in blood flow through the vessel.
  5. E) both an increase in vessel diameter and an increase in blood flow through the vessel.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

81) Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.

  1. A) short
  2. B) long
  3. C) both short and long
  4. D) neither short nor long

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

82) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the

  1. A) cerebrum.
  2. B) pons.
  3. C) thalamus.
  4. D) hypothalamus.
  5. E) medulla oblongata.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

83) Which of the following is an example of a parasympathetic visceral reflex?

  1. A) defecation reflex
  2. B) cardioacceleratory reflex
  3. C) pupillary reflex
  4. D) ejaculation (in males) in response to tactile stimuli
  5. E) vasomotor reflex

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

84) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata?

  1. A) swallowing reflex
  2. B) baroreceptor reflex
  3. C) coughing reflex
  4. D) cardioacceleratory reflex
  5. E) pupillary reflex

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

85) Baroreceptors are not found in the

  1. A) digestive tract.
  2. B) lungs.
  3. C) colon.
  4. D) aorta.
  5. E) oral cavity.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

86) Chemoreceptors that play an important role in reflexive control of respiratory function are not affected by

  1. A) pH.
  2. B) PO2.
  3. C) PCO2.
  4. D) hydrogen ion concentration.
  5. E) sodium ion concentration.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

87) In which of the following organs are both chemoreceptors and baroreceptors associated with respiratory autonomic reflexes?

  1. A) only lungs
  2. B) only aorta
  3. C) only carotid arteries
  4. D) both lungs and aorta
  5. E) both aorta and carotid arteries

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

88) Which brain area is considered to be the headquarters of the ANS?

  1. A) cerebral cortex
  2. B) thalamus
  3. C) limbic system
  4. D) hypothalamus
  5. E) brain stem

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

89) Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function?

  1. A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you
  2. B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant
  3. C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
  4. D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room
  5. E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

90) Compare the SNS with the ANS. (Module 14.1A)

  1. A) The SNS consists of the brain and spinal cord. The ANS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles.
  2. B) The SNS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. The ANS consists of the brain and spinal cord.
  3. C) The SNS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. The ANS controls the visceral effectors: smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, and adipocytes.
  4. D) The SNS controls the visceral effectors: smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, and adipocytes. The ANS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles.
  5. E) The SNS controls the muscular visceral effectors: smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. The ANS controls the other visceral effectors: glands and adipocytes.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) Describe the role of preganglionic neurons. (Module 14.1B)

  1. A) They are part of visceral reflex arcs, and most of their activity is a direct reflex response, rather than responses to commands from the hypothalamus.
  2. B) They are part of the visceral motor neurons in peripheral ganglia.
  3. C) They are ganglionic neurons that innervate visceral effectors.
  4. D) They are upper motor neurons whose cell bodies lie within nuclei of the brain or the primary motor cortex.
  5. E) They are motor neurons within the central nervous system that are controlled by reflexes based in the spinal cord or brain.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

92) Explain the function of autonomic ganglia. (Module 14.1C)

  1. A) They are part of visceral reflex arcs, and most of their activity is a direct reflex response, rather than responses to commands from the hypothalamus.
  2. B) They are part of the visceral motor neurons in peripheral ganglia.
  3. C) They are ganglionic neurons that innervate visceral effectors.
  4. D) They are upper motor neurons whose cell bodies lie within nuclei of the brain or the primary motor cortex.
  5. E) They are motor neurons within the central nervous system that are controlled by reflexes based in the spinal cord or brain.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

93) Identify two major divisions of the ANS. (Module 14.2A)

  1. A) somatic division and sympathetic division
  2. B) somatic division and parasympathetic division
  3. C) enteric division and the central division
  4. D) central division and sympathetic division
  5. E) sympathetic division and parasympathetic division

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

94) Compare the anatomy of the sympathetic division with that of the parasympathetic division. (Module 14.2B)

  1. A) In the SNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to the spinal cord. In the PNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to or within the target organs.
  2. B) In the SNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to the spinal cord. In the PNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to or within the target organs.
  3. C) In the SNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord.
  4. D) In the SNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord.
  5. E) In the SNS, axons emerge from the cervical and thoracic segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the lumbar and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

95) Describe the ENS. (Module 14.2C)

  1. A) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that includes the brain and spinal cord.
  2. B) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that involves sensory input only.
  3. C) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that involves the voluntary movements of the skeletal muscle.
  4. D) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that uses spinal reflexes to mediate changes in the effectors.
  5. E) The ENS is a division of the nervous system consisting of a network of neurons and nerve networks in the walls of the digestive tract that primarily operates locally, without instructions from the CNS.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

96) Which division of the ANS is responsible for the physiological changes you experience when startled by a loud noise? (Module 14.2D)

  1. A) enteric division of the ANS
  2. B) sympathetic division of the ANS
  3. C) parasympathetic division of the ANS
  4. D) central division of the ANS
  5. E) effector division of the ANS

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

97) Starting in the spinal cord, trace the path of a nerve impulse through the sympathetic ANS to its target organ in the abdominal cavity. (Module 14.3A)

  1. A) preganglionic neurons (T1-L2) — collateral ganglia — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
  2. B) preganglionic neurons (S2-S4) — collateral ganglia — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
  3. C) collateral ganglia — preganglionic neurons (T1-L2) — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
  4. D) collateral ganglia — preganglionic neurons (S2-S4) — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity
  5. E) ganglionic neurons — preganglionic neurons ((T1-L2) — collateral ganglia — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

98) Describe an intramural ganglion. (Module 14.3B)

  1. A) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the brainstem.
  2. B) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the spinal cord.
  3. C) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the target organ.
  4. D) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons embedded in the tissues of the target organ.
  5. E) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons that release neurotransmitters that function as hormones into the general circulation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

99) Define splanchnic nerves. (Module 14.4A)

  1. A) Splanchnic nerves are nerves that innervate intramural ganglia in the walls of the kidneys, urinary bladder, terminal portions of the large intestine, and sex organs.
  2. B) Splanchnic nerves form nerve plexuses when they intermingle with branches of the vagus nerve similar to the nerve plexuses formed by spinal nerves innervating the limbs.
  3. C) Splanchnic nerves carry sacral parasympathetic output.
  4. D) Splanchnic nerves form a collection of three cervical sympathetic ganglia (superior, middle, and inferior).
  5. E) Splanchnic nerves are three groups of nerves — cardiopulmonary, abdominopelvic (greater, lesser, and lumbar), and pelvic (sacral) — that supply the viscera.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

100) Name the plexuses innervated by the vagus nerve. (Module 14.4B)

  1. A) brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses
  2. B) sacral and pelvic plexuses
  3. C) cardiac, celiac, inferior mesenteric, and hypogastric plexuses
  4. D) cervical, cardiopulmonary, celiac, and sacral plexuses
  5. E) cervical, celiac, sacral, and coccygeal plexuses

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

101) Which nerve carries most of the parasympathetic outflow? (Module 14.4C)

  1. A) occulomotor nerve
  2. B) facial nerve
  3. C) glossopharyngeal nerve
  4. D) vagus nerve
  5. E) abducens nerve

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

102) What neurotransmitter is released by all parasympathetic neurons? (Module 14.5B)

  1. A) acetylcholine
  2. B) epinephrine
  3. C) norepinephrine
  4. D) dopamine
  5. E) serotonin

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

103) Compare nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors. (Module 14.6B)

  1. A) Nicotinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine G protein-coupled receptors located at all parasympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions, and at a few sympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions.
  2. B) Nicotinic receptors are acetylcholine G protein-coupled receptors located at all parasympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions, and at a few sympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells.
  3. C) Nicotinic receptors binds epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors binds norepinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells.
  4. D) Nicotinic receptors binds norepinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors binds epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells.
  5. E) Nicotinic receptors binds norepinephrine and epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

104) Name the two types of motor pathways. (Module 14.7B)

  1. A) sympathetic and parasympathetic
  2. B) sensory and somatosensory
  3. C) somatic and visceral
  4. D) peripheral and visceral
  5. E) external and internal

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

105) Identify somatic effectors and visceral effectors. (Module 14.7C)

  1. A) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. Visceral effectors are glands and adipose tissue.
  2. B) Somatic effectors are glands and adipose tissue. Visceral effectors are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle.
  3. C) Somatic effectors are smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue. Visceral effectors are skeletal muscle.
  4. D) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle. Visceral effectors are smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue.
  5. E) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. Visceral effectors are adipose tissue.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

106) Define dual innervation. (Module 14.8A)

  1. A) Dual innervation means that a given body system sends both sensory impulses and receives motor commands.
  2. B) Dual innervation means that a given body system receives instructions from both the central and peripheral nervous systems.
  3. C) Dual innervation means that sensory neurons and motor neurons are present in the tissue.
  4. D) Dual innervation means that a given body system has twice the amount of neural stimulation needed to produce an action.
  5. E) Dual innervation means that a given body system receives instructions from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

107) Define visceral reflex. (Module 14.9A)

  1. A) A visceral reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following exposure to a single specific somatic stimulus.
  2. B) A visceral reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following repeated exposure to specific somatic stimuli.
  3. C) A visceral reflex is an autonomic reflex initiated in the viscera. It can be modified, facilitated, or inhibited by higher centers, especially those in the hypothalamus.
  4. D) A visceral reflex is an automatic response to a somatic stimulus that is controlled in the spinal cord and can function without input from the brain.
  5. E) A visceral reflex is when visceral sensory inputs are sent quickly by the spinal cord to the brain for analysis before any response occurs.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

108) Compare short reflexes with long reflexes. (Module 14.9B)

  1. A) Short reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS, whereas long reflexes involve interneurons within the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to the effectors.
  2. B) Short reflexes involve interneurons within the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to the effectors, whereas long reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS.
  3. C) Short reflexes predominantly coordinate the activities of an entire organ, whereas long reflexes predominantly control very simple motor responses in one small part of a target organ.
  4. D) Short reflexes control many different peripheral effectors, whereas long reflexes predominate in the enteric nervous system.
  5. E) Short reflexes involve processing in the brainstem, whereas long reflexes involve processing in the cerebrum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

109) Describe the solitary nuclei. (Module 14.9C)

  1. A) They are large tracts of white matter that link the brain with the spinal cord.
  2. B) They are large tracts of white matter that relay sensory information to the cerebellum.
  3. C) They are large masses of gray matter in the pons that control respiratory rhythmicity centers.
  4. D) They are large masses of gray matter on each side of the medulla oblongata that serve as processing sorting centers for visceral sensory information.
  5. E) They are large masses of gray matter of each side of the medulla oblongata that relay somatic information to the thalamus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

110) Define baroreceptors. Where are baroreceptors located within the body? (Module 14.10A)

  1. A) Baroreceptors are thermoreceptors that detect changes in temperature. They are primarily located in the skin and hypothalamus.
  2. B) Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that detect changes in pressure. They are located along the digestive tract, within the walls of the urinary bladder, in the carotid and aortic sinuses, and in the lungs.
  3. C) Baroreceptors are chemoreceptors that detect changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations. They are located within the medulla oblongata and in the carotid and aortic bodies.
  4. D) Baroreceptors are nociceptors that detect pain. They are located throughout the somatic and visceral systems of the body.
  5. E) Baroreceptors are chemoreceptors that detect changes in pH. They are located within the medulla oblongata and in the carotid and aortic bodies.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

111) Which type of receptor is sensitive to changes in blood pH? (Module 14.10B)

  1. A) baroreceptors
  2. B) proprioceptors
  3. C) photoreceptors
  4. D) chemoreceptors
  5. E) mechanoreceptors

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  14.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

112) What brain structure is considered to be the headquarters for the ANS? (Module 14.11A)

  1. A) thalamus
  2. B) hypothalamus
  3. C) midbrain
  4. D) pons
  5. E) medulla oblongata

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  14.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

113) What brain structure relays somatosensory information? (Module 14.11B)

  1. A) thalamus
  2. B) hypothalamus
  3. C) midbrain
  4. D) pons
  5. E) medulla oblongata

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  14.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering


Essay Questions

 

114) Why is the adrenal medulla considered to be a modified sympathetic ganglion?

Answer:  Preganglionic sympathetic fibers entering the adrenal gland proceed to the adrenal medulla, where they synapse on neuroendocrine cells that release the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine into the bloodstream causing sympathetic effects body wide.

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

115) List the different types of adrenergic receptors, the responses they produce, and by what mechanisms.

Answer:  There are two types of alpha receptors and three types of beta receptors. The alpha-1 receptor produces excitation or stimulation of metabolism. It works by activation of an enzyme and/or by release of calcium ion from internal stores. The alpha-2 receptor is inhibitory on its target cell by reducing the level of cAMP. Beta-1 receptors are stimulating, causing an increase in cardiac muscle rate and force of contraction and/or lead to increased energy consumption. They activate cellular enzymes. Beta-2 receptors inhibit activity or produce relaxation in smooth muscle cells of the respiratory passageways and blood vessels of skeletal muscle. They operate through enzyme activation. Beta-3 receptors release fatty acids from adipose tissue.

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

116) Mr. Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why?

Answer:  You would want to use a beta-blocker, because the stimulation of beta-1 receptors increases heart rate. By blocking these receptors, parasympathetic influence will predominate and the heart will slow down.

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

117) The nervous and endocrine systems are the body’s two main regulatory systems. Describe some of the ways that the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system interact.

Answer:  The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is triggered by preganglionic sympathetic activity. The sympathetic division also controls the release of rennin from the kidneys, insulin from the pancreas, ADH from the pituitary, and melatonin from the pineal. Hormones such as thyroid have a powerful effect on brain development and metabolism.

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

118) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function?

Answer:  The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to many organs within the ventral cavity, including the digestive organs. It stimulates gastric motility and secretion of acid and enzymes. Removing the vagus innervation will eliminate parasympathetic stimulation, leaving only sympathetic innervation, which is inhibitory. This procedure will thus greatly reduce gastric activity. Hormonal stimulation will remain but higher centers will no longer influence secretion of gastric juice.

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

119) List general responses to increased sympathetic activity and to parasympathetic activity. (Module 14.3C)

Answer:  General responses to increased sympathetic activity include heightened mental alertness, increased metabolic rate, reduced digestive and urinary functions, activation of energy reserves, increased respiratory rate and dilation of respiratory passageways, elevated heart rate and blood pressure, and activation of sweat glands. General responses to increased parasympathetic activity include decreased metabolic rate, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, increased secretion by salivary and digestive glands, increased motility and blood flow in the digestive tract, and stimulation of urinary and defecation.

Learning Outcome:  14.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

120) What physiological changes are typical in a tense or anxious person? (Module 14.5A)

Answer:  In a tense or anxious person, increased sympathetic stimulation typically causes increased alertness (being “on edge”); a feeling of increased energy; increased heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate; increase in muscle tone; and mobilization of energy reserves.

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

121) Why is the parasympathetic division called the anabolic system? (Module 14.5C)

Answer:  The parasympathetic division is sometimes referred to as the anabolic system because parasympathetic stimulation leads to a general increase in the nutrient content of the blood. Cells throughout the body respond to the increase by absorbing the nutrients and using them to support growth and other anabolic activities.

Learning Outcome:  14.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

122) Compare and contrast alpha and beta receptors. (Module 14.6A)

Answer:  Both alpha receptors and beta receptors are adrenergic receptors on the membranes of target cells. Alpha receptors are more sensitive to NE than beta receptors, but both receptors are stimulated by E. Alpha-1 receptor stimulation typically excites the target cell, and alpha-2 receptor stimulation generally inhibits the target cell. Simulation of beta receptors may result in excitation or inhibition of the target cell.

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

123) A person with high blood pressure (hypertension) is prescribed a drug that blocks beta receptors. How could this medication alleviate hypertension? (Module 14.6C)

Answer:  Blocking the beta receptors on cardiac cells would decrease (or prevent) sympathetic stimulation of tissues containing those cells. As a result, heart rate, force of cardiac muscle contraction, and contraction of the smooth muscle in blood vessel walls would decrease, lowering blood pressure.

Learning Outcome:  14.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

124) Explain the significance of the ANS to homeostasis. (Module 14.7A)

Answer:  The ANS adjusts the activities of virtually every body system, maintaining homeostasis without instructions or interference from the conscious mind.

Learning Outcome:  14.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

125) Explain autonomic tone and its significance in controlling visceral function.

(Module 14.8B)

Answer:  Autonomic tone is the background level of activity in sympathetic or parasympathetic motor neurons under resting conditions. It provides a mechanism for fine control of visceral function because it allows a resting neuron to be less active or more active rather than to simply switch from off to on. This is particularly important when only one division innervates a visceral organ or when an organ (such as the heart) must be precisely controlled over a broad range of activity levels.

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

126) You go outside on a cold day, and blood flow to your skin is reduced, conserving body heat. You become angry, and your face turns red. Explain these changes. (Module 14.8C)

Answer:  The blood vessels of the skin receive only sympathetic innervation. When you go outside into the cold, sympathetic neurons release NE and cause vasoconstriction of superficial blood vessels through stimulation of alpha receptors. When you get angry, sympathetic activation occurs, and large amounts of epinephrine enter the circulation. This stimulates beta receptors in the superficial blood vessels, dilating those vessels, and stimulates the heart, increasing blood pressure and blood flow. As a result, your skin — and most obviously your face — turns red.

Learning Outcome:  14.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

127) Harry has a brain tumor that is pressing against his hypothalamus. Explain the effect on autonomic function. (Module 14.11C)

Answer:  A brain tumor pressing on the hypothalamus could interfere with autonomic function because the hypothalamus receives visceral sensory information and controls both sympathetic and parasympathetic functions.

Learning Outcome:  14.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 26   The Reproductive System

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) What is the function of gonads?

  1. A) produce gametes
  2. B) transport gametes
  3. C) produce hormones
  4. D) produce gametes and produce hormones
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) The reproductive system does not include

  1. A) gonads and external genitalia.
  2. B) ducts that receive and transport the gametes.
  3. C) accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids.
  4. D) mammary glands.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) The male gonad is called a(n)

  1. A) ductus.
  2. B) epididymis.
  3. C) scrotum.
  4. D) testis.
  5. E) spermatid.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

4) Which of the following muscles move the testes towards the body?

  1. A) the cremaster
  2. B) the tunica muscularis
  3. C) the biceps brachii
  4. D) the dartos
  5. E) both the cremaster and the dartos

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

5) Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa, divide the testis into

  1. A) seminiferous tubules.
  2. B) straight tubules.
  3. C) lobules.
  4. D) rete testis.
  5. E) the epididymis and the testis proper.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

6) The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the

  1. A) spermatic cord.
  2. B) raphe.
  3. C) tunica albuginea.
  4. D) acrosome.
  5. E) dartos muscle.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

7) The spermatic cord is

  1. A) a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis.
  2. B) a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity.
  3. C) the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum.
  4. D) a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac.
  5. E) a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

8) The tough fibrous capsule that surrounds the testis is called the

  1. A) median raphe.
  2. B) spermatic cord.
  3. C) tunica albuginea.
  4. D) dartos.
  5. E) epididymis.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

9) The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems?

  1. A) muscular
  2. B) urinary
  3. C) endocrine
  4. D) digestive
  5. E) integumentary

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

10) In what order does sperm produced in the semiferous tubules pass through the following structures before being stored in the epididymis?

 

1) Efferent ductules

2) Straight ductules

3) Rete testis

  1. A) 1,3,2
  2. B) 1,2,3
  3. C) 3,2,1
  4. D) 2,3,1
  5. E) 2,1,3

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

Figure 26-1

 

11) Identify the structure labeled “11.”

  1. A) bulbourethral gland
  2. B) prostate gland
  3. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
  4. D) epididymis
  5. E) ductus deferens

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

12) Identify the structure labeled “3.”

  1. A) corpora cavernosa
  2. B) prostatic urethra
  3. C) corpus spongiosum
  4. D) penile urethra
  5. E) ejaculatory duct

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

13) Identify the structure labeled “4.”

  1. A) testis
  2. B) prostate gland
  3. C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
  4. D) epididymis
  5. E) ductus deferens

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

14) Identify the structure labeled “10.”

  1. A) testis
  2. B) prostate gland
  3. C) seminal gland
  4. D) epididymis
  5. E) ductus deferens

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

15) Contraction of the cremaster muscles

  1. A) relaxes the scrotal sac.
  2. B) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity.
  3. C) propels sperm through the urethra.
  4. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens.
  5. E) both relaxes the scrotal sac and propels sperm through the urethra.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

16) Contraction of the dartos muscle

  1. A) elevates the scrotal sac.
  2. B) produces an erection.
  3. C) propels sperm through the urethra.
  4. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens.
  5. E) initiates seminal emission.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

17) The ________ is an opening through which the spermatic cord passes.

  1. A) seminiferous tubule
  2. B) inguinal canal
  3. C) scrotal cavity
  4. D) efferent ductule
  5. E) infundibulum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

18) The ________ is a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac.

  1. A) rete testis
  2. B) raphe
  3. C) dartos muscle
  4. D) tunica albuginea
  5. E) cremaster muscle

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

19) The ________ is a fleshy pouch suspended below the perineum and anterior to the anus.

  1. A) scrotum
  2. B) rete testis
  3. C) raphe
  4. D) prostate gland
  5. E) bulbourethral gland

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

20) At 8 months development in a male fetus, the testes

  1. A) remain in the abdominal cavity.
  2. B) have been pulled through the abdominal musculature into the scrotum.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

21) Sperm develop from stem cells called

  1. A) spermatogonia.
  2. B) primary spermatocytes.
  3. C) secondary spermatocytes.
  4. D) spermatids.
  5. E) spermatozoa.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

22) When spermatogonia divide, the two daughter cells produced are a spermatogonium and a

  1. A) sperm.
  2. B) spermatocyte.
  3. C) spermatid.
  4. D) spermatozoon.
  5. E) Sertoli cell.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

23) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called

  1. A) spermatogonia.
  2. B) primary spermatocytes.
  3. C) secondary spermatocytes.
  4. D) spermatids.
  5. E) spermatozoa.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

24) The process of spermiogenesis produces

  1. A) spermatogonia.
  2. B) primary spermatocytes.
  3. C) secondary spermatocytes.
  4. D) spermatids.
  5. E) spermatozoa.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

25) The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called

  1. A) mitosis.
  2. B) meiosis.
  3. C) maturation.
  4. D) capacitation.
  5. E) fertilization.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

26) Secondary spermatocytes each contain

  1. A) 23 single chromosomes.
  2. B) 23 chromosomes, each with a pair of duplicate chromatids.
  3. C) twice the diploid number of chromosomes.
  4. D) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
  5. E) 46 chromosomes.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

27) In a mature human spermatozoan,

  1. A) the acrosome is next to the tail.
  2. B) the middle piece contains the chromosomes.
  3. C) the tail contains the mitochondria.
  4. D) the head contains 46 chromosomes.
  5. E) the acrosome is next to the nucleus, and the head contains 23 chromosomes.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) During meiosis I, in maternal and paternal systems, chromosomes fuse together during the process called ________ to form a ________.

  1. A) synapsis; chromatid
  2. B) prophase I; chromatid
  3. C) synapsis; spermatid
  4. D) metaphase II; tetrad
  5. E) synapsis; tetrad

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

29) How many tetrads form during synapsis?

  1. A) 23
  2. B) hundreds
  3. C) thousands
  4. D) 46
  5. E) 4

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

30) Secondary spermatocytes divide to produce ________ spermatids, each having ________ chromosomes.

  1. A) millions of; 46
  2. B) four; 23
  3. C) one; 46
  4. D) millions of; 23
  5. E) four; 46

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

31) Which of the following is true immediately after a spermatogonium completes cell division?

  1. A) Mature spermatozoa enter the lumen.
  2. B) Fusion of diploid nuclei occurs.
  3. C) The primary spermatocyte is directed toward the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.
  4. D) Daughter cells of spermatogonia are haploid.
  5. E) Spermiogenesis begins.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

32) Spermatids mature into spermatozoa by the process of

  1. A) spermatogenesis.
  2. B) meiosis.
  3. C) mitosis.
  4. D) spermiogenesis.
  5. E) capacitation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

33) The ________ is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA.

  1. A) acrosomal cap
  2. B) head
  3. C) neck
  4. D) middle piece
  5. E) flagellum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

34) In a spermatozoan, activity in the ________ provides energy required to move the tail.

  1. A) endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B) Golgi apparatus
  3. C) nucleus
  4. D) mitochondria
  5. E) lysosomes

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

35) The ________ of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization.

  1. A) acrosomal cap
  2. B) neck
  3. C) middle piece
  4. D) flagellum
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

36) Interstitial cells produce

  1. A) sperm.
  2. B) inhibin.
  3. C) nutrients.
  4. D) androgens.
  5. E) androgen-binding protein.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

37) Sperm production occurs in the

  1. A) ductus deferens.
  2. B) seminiferous tubules.
  3. C) epididymis.
  4. D) seminal glands.
  5. E) rete testis.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

38) Nurse cells are not

  1. A) found in the seminiferous tubules.
  2. B) important in forming the blood-testis barrier.
  3. C) involved in coordinating spermatogenesis.
  4. D) precursors to gametes.
  5. E) also called Sertoli cells.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

39) The stage at which a spermatozoan detaches from the nurse cells and enters the seminiferous tubule is called

  1. A) division.
  2. B) meiosis.
  3. C) spermiation.
  4. D) spermiogenesis.
  5. E) capacitation.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

40) What is the proper arrangement of the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus?

 

  1. ductus deferens
  2. urethra
  3. ejaculatory duct
  4. epididymis
  5. A) 1, 3, 4, 2
  6. B) 4, 3, 1, 2
  7. C) 4, 1, 2, 3
  8. D) 4, 1, 3, 2
  9. E) 1, 4, 3, 2

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

41) The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the

  1. A) seminal vesicles.
  2. B) prostate glands.
  3. C) vestibular glands.
  4. D) Bartholin’s glands.
  5. E) bulbourethral glands.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

42) Spermatozoa functionally mature within the

  1. A) epididymis.
  2. B) ductus deferens.
  3. C) rete testes.
  4. D) seminiferous tubules.
  5. E) seminal gland.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

43) The organ that surrounds the urethra and secretes an antibiotic protein is the

  1. A) seminal gland (seminal vesicle).
  2. B) bulbourethral gland.
  3. C) prostate gland.
  4. D) vestibular gland.
  5. E) Bartholin’s gland.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

44) The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged spermatozoa, and is the site of sperm maturation is the

  1. A) ductus deferens.
  2. B) rete testis.
  3. C) seminal gland.
  4. D) epididymis.
  5. E) prostate gland.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

45) The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the

  1. A) ductus deferens.
  2. B) epididymis.
  3. C) seminal gland.
  4. D) ejaculatory duct.
  5. E) corpus cavernosum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

46) The ________ is/are in contact with the posterior side to the urinary bladder.

  1. A) prostate gland
  2. B) bulbourethral gland
  3. C) seminal glands
  4. D) corpus cavernosum
  5. E) testes

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

47) Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature spermatozoa?

  1. A) in the seminiferous tubules
  2. B) in the head of the epididymis
  3. C) in the ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct
  4. D) in the seminal gland
  5. E) in the prostate gland

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

48) Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except

  1. A) producing spermatozoa.
  2. B) meeting the nutrient needs of spermatozoa for motility.
  3. C) propelling spermatozoa and fluids along the reproductive tract.
  4. D) producing buffers.
  5. E) activating the spermatozoa.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

49) Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens by

  1. A) hydrostatic force.
  2. B) ciliary action.
  3. C) peristaltic contractions.
  4. D) suction.
  5. E) hydraulic action.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

50) The ________ carries fluid from the seminal gland through the prostate.

  1. A) ductus deferens
  2. B) ejaculatory duct
  3. C) corpora cavernosa
  4. D) efferent tubule
  5. E) ampulla

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

51) Which of these glands secretes a fluid that lubricates the tip of the penis?

  1. A) prostate
  2. B) seminal gland
  3. C) bulbourethral gland
  4. D) vestibular gland
  5. E) Bartholin’s gland

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

52) Contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscles result in

  1. A) erection.
  2. B) emission.
  3. C) ejaculation.
  4. D) detumescence.
  5. E) impotence.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

53) Which of the following is not required for arousal to occur?

  1. A) There must be sufficient blood hydrostatic pressure.
  2. B) The sacral spinal cord must be intact.
  3. C) Nitric oxide must be present.
  4. D) Sympathetic stimulation of sacral nerves.
  5. E) Parasympathetic stimulation of pelvic nerves.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

54) The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the

  1. A) urethra.
  2. B) ejaculatory duct.
  3. C) penis.
  4. D) corpus cavernosum.
  5. E) corpus spongiosum.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

55) The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the

  1. A) ejaculatory duct.
  2. B) prepuce.
  3. C) corpus cavernosum.
  4. D) corpus spongiosum.
  5. E) penile urethra.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

56) The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the

  1. A) membranous urethra.
  2. B) penile urethra.
  3. C) glans penis.
  4. D) corpus spongiosum.
  5. E) corpus cavernosum.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

57) The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the

  1. A) membranous urethra.
  2. B) penile urethra.
  3. C) corpus spongiosum.
  4. D) corpora cavernosa.
  5. E) prepuce.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

58) Emission and ejaculation require all of the following except

  1. A) sympathetic stimulation.
  2. B) peristaltic contractions of the ampulla.
  3. C) propulsion of semen.
  4. D) contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscle.
  5. E) contraction of the dartos muscles.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

59) ________ is defined as an inability to achieve or maintain an erection.

  1. A) Infertility
  2. B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
  3. C) Emission
  4. D) Sterility
  5. E) Impotence

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

60) The ________ penetrates the urogenital diaphragm.

  1. A) penile urethra
  2. B) membranous urethra
  3. C) prostatic urethra

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

61) The ________ passes through the shaft of the penis to the external urethral meatus.

  1. A) penile urethra
  2. B) membranous urethra
  3. C) prostatic urethra

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

62) The penile urethra passes through the corpus

  1. A) cavernosum.
  2. B) spongiosum.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

63) The primary role of FSH in males is to

  1. A) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.
  2. B) stimulate the nurse cells to produce inhibin.
  3. C) initiate sperm production in the testes.
  4. D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics.
  5. E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

64) The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is

  1. A) FSH.
  2. B) LH.
  3. C) ACTH.
  4. D) ADH.
  5. E) GH.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

65) Testosterone is secreted by the

  1. A) hypothalamus.
  2. B) adenohypophysis.
  3. C) nurse cells.
  4. D) interstitial cells.
  5. E) suprarenal cortex.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

66) A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After 3 weeks, which of the following would you not expect to observe?

  1. A) increased sex drive
  2. B) decreased levels of GnRH
  3. C) decreased levels of LH and FSH
  4. D) decreased levels of DHT
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

67) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will

  1. A) not develop secondary sex characteristics.
  2. B) be sterile.
  3. C) be impotent.
  4. D) have impaired function of the interstitial cells.
  5. E) produce large amounts of inhibin.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

68) The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except

  1. A) maintain the blood-testis barrier.
  2. B) support spermiogenesis.
  3. C) secrete inhibin.
  4. D) secrete testosterone.
  5. E) secrete androgen-binding protein.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

69) Which of the following is not true of interstitial cells?

  1. A) They are found in the tissue between seminiferous tubules.
  2. B) They respond to luteinizing hormone.
  3. C) They produce testosterone.
  4. D) They help establish male secondary sex characteristics.
  5. E) They produce inhibin.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

70) The main organs of the female reproductive tract include all of the following except the

  1. A) vagina.
  2. B) urinary bladder.
  3. C) uterus.
  4. D) ovaries.
  5. E) mammary glands.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

71) Which structure(s) of the female reproductive system contain(s) glands that lubricate the vaginal entrance?

  1. A) mammaries
  2. B) uterus
  3. C) gonads
  4. D) labia
  5. E) uterine tube

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the

  1. A) ovary itself.
  2. B) uterine tube.
  3. C) uterus.
  4. D) cervix.
  5. E) vagina.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

73) The broad ligament does all of the following except

  1. A) enclose the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus.
  2. B) support and stabilizes the position of the ovary.
  3. C) stay continuous with the parietal peritoneum.
  4. D) subdivide the peritoneal cavity.
  5. E) attach to floor of the pelvic cavity.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

74) The region where blood vessels enter the ovary is called the

  1. A) infundibulopelvic ligament.
  2. B) tunica albuginea.
  3. C) ovarian umbilical cord.
  4. D) ovarian hilum.
  5. E) ovarian ligament.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

Figure 26-2

 

75) Identify the structure labeled “2.”

  1. A) ureter
  2. B) uterine tube
  3. C) suspensory ligament
  4. D) ovarian ligament
  5. E) infundibulum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

76) Identify the structure labeled “9.”

  1. A) uterus
  2. B) vagina
  3. C) cervix
  4. D) clitoris
  5. E) greater vestibular gland

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

77) Identify the structure labeled “12.”

  1. A) uterus
  2. B) vagina
  3. C) clitoris
  4. D) labium
  5. E) ovary

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

78) What is not produced by the structure labeled “1”?

  1. A) ova
  2. B) estrogen
  3. C) progesterone
  4. D) inhibin
  5. E) FSH

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

79) Identify the structure labeled “11.”

  1. A) ureter
  2. B) uterus
  3. C) vagina
  4. D) cervix
  5. E) infundibulum

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

80) The ________ is a pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum.

  1. A) fundus
  2. B) vesico-uterine pouch
  3. C) ampulla
  4. D) recto-uterine pouch
  5. E) infundibulum

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

81) The ligament that attaches the ovary to the uterus is the ________ ligament.

  1. A) inguinal
  2. B) mesovarium
  3. C) suspensory
  4. D) ovarian
  5. E) broad

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

82) The ________ ligament extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall.

  1. A) inguinal
  2. B) tunica albuginea
  3. C) suspensory
  4. D) ovarian
  5. E) broad

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

83) Which of the following best describes the mesovarium?

  1. A) a thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the ovary
  2. B) an expanded funnels that opens into the pelvic cavity
  3. C) an extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus
  4. D) a layer of squamous or cuboidal cells that covers the ovary
  5. E) the inner lining of the uterus

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

84) Which of the following statements concerning oogenesis is false?

  1. A) Oogenesis begins before birth.
  2. B) Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia.
  3. C) An ovum completes meiosis II after it is fertilized.
  4. D) About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty.
  5. E) By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about 80 percent of their oocytes.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

85) The granulosa cells of developing follicles work with thecal cells to produce

  1. A) estrogens.
  2. B) progesterone.
  3. C) FSH.
  4. D) LH.
  5. E) GnRH.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

86) What structure releases the secondary oocyte during ovulation?

  1. A) zona pellucida
  2. B) Graafian follicle
  3. C) secondary follicle
  4. D) antrum
  5. E) primary follicle

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

87) The primary follicle develops from the

  1. A) ovarian hilum.
  2. B) ovarian follicles.
  3. C) primordial follicle.
  4. D) ovarian stroma.
  5. E) granulosa cells.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

88) Which of the following is greater?

  1. A) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth
  2. B) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at puberty

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

89) The ________ is the region between the developing oocyte and the granulosa cells.

  1. A) corona radiata
  2. B) egg nest
  3. C) antrum
  4. D) corpus albicans
  5. E) zona pellucida

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

90) The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation.

  1. A) corona radiata
  2. B) egg nest
  3. C) antrum
  4. D) corpus luteum
  5. E) zona pellucida

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) The structure that transports the ovum to the uterus is the

  1. A) uterosacral ligament.
  2. B) vagina.
  3. C) uterine tube.
  4. D) infundibulum.
  5. E) myometrium.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

92) The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the

  1. A) vagina.
  2. B) uterine tube.
  3. C) ovary.
  4. D) uterus.
  5. E) cervix.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

93) Which of the following properly describes the cervix?

  1. A) It is a constricted passageway at the superior end of the uterine cavity.
  2. B) It connects to the uterine cavity by the internal os.
  3. C) Its outer layer is called the perimetrium.
  4. D) It contains fingerlike projections called fimbriae.
  5. E) It connects the ampulla and infundibulum.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

94) The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the

  1. A) endometrium.
  2. B) perimetrium.
  3. C) myometrium.
  4. D) uterometrium.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

95) Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum?

  1. A) ampulla
  2. B) anterior segment
  3. C) infundibulum
  4. D) posterior segment
  5. E) isthmus

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

96) The ________ is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes.

  1. A) body
  2. B) cervix
  3. C) myometrium
  4. D) fundus
  5. E) internal os

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

97) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the

  1. A) ampulla.
  2. B) distal segment.
  3. C) infundibulum.
  4. D) proximal segment.
  5. E) isthmus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

98) The opening connecting the uterus to the cervical canal is the

  1. A) uterine lumen.
  2. B) internal os.
  3. C) ampulla.
  4. D) isthmus.
  5. E) external os.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

99) The funnel-like opening at the distal end of the uterine tube is called the

  1. A) ampulla.
  2. B) ovary.
  3. C) isthmus.
  4. D) infundibulum.
  5. E) external os.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

100) The ________ are fingerlike projections that capture the freshly ovulated ovum.

  1. A) vesico-uterine pouches
  2. B) fimbriae
  3. C) areolae
  4. D) polar bodies
  5. E) uterine tubes

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

101) The main portion of the uterus is called the

  1. A) fundus.
  2. B) cervix.
  3. C) internal os.
  4. D) body.
  5. E) cervical canal.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

102) The region between the internal os and the external os is the

  1. A) ampulla.
  2. B) vagina.
  3. C) cervical canal.
  4. D) uterine tube.
  5. E) isthmus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

103) The internal os connects the uterine cavity to the

  1. A) ovary.
  2. B) uterine tube.
  3. C) vagina.
  4. D) urethra.
  5. E) cervical canal.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

104) The ________ is the outer lining of the uterus.

  1. A) perimetrium
  2. B) myometrium
  3. C) germinal epithelium
  4. D) uterine lumen
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

105) The ________ is the inner lining of the uterus.

  1. A) perimetrium
  2. B) myometrium
  3. C) germinal epithelium
  4. D) uterine lumen
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

106) Which structure in the female reproductive system is not lined with cilia?

  1. A) uterine tube
  2. B) infundibulum
  3. C) ampulla
  4. D) isthmus
  5. E) broad ligament

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

107) The average length of the uterine cycle is

  1. A) 16 days.
  2. B) 19 days.
  3. C) 21 days.
  4. D) 28 days.
  5. E) 35 days.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

108) During the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle,

  1. A) the corpus luteum is forming.
  2. B) the functional zone of the endometrium is restored.
  3. C) the fertilized ovum implants.
  4. D) the uterine glands enlarge.
  5. E) menses occurs.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

109) Which of the following best matches the term endometrium?

  1. A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells
  2. B) supports the uterus anteriorly
  3. C) supports the uterus laterally
  4. D) consists of a basilar zone and a functional zone
  5. E) after ovulation, the ovum is captured by it

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

110) The onset of the first uterine cycle is called

  1. A) menarche.
  2. B) menstruation.
  3. C) menopause.
  4. D) menstrual cycle.
  5. E) menses.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

111) ________ is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the endometrium.

  1. A) Menarche
  2. B) Menstruation
  3. C) Perimenopause
  4. D) Menopause
  5. E) Ovulation

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

112) ________ arteries supply blood to the functional zone of the endometrium.

  1. A) Straight
  2. B) Arcuate
  3. C) Spiral
  4. D) Radial
  5. E) None of the answers is correct; the functional zone of the endometrium is not vascularized.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

113) All of the following are true of the vagina except that it

  1. A) serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids.
  2. B) receives the penis during coitus.
  3. C) holds spermatozoa prior to their passage to the uterus.
  4. D) forms the lower portion of the birth canal.
  5. E) loses a portion of its lining during menses.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

114) The vagina is

  1. A) lined by simple columnar epithelium rich in goblet cells.
  2. B) similar to the inner lining of the uterus.
  3. C) another term for the cervix.
  4. D) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the external genitalia.
  5. E) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the anus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

115) The vulva includes all of the following except the

  1. A) mons pubis.
  2. B) vagina.
  3. C) labia minora.
  4. D) clitoris.
  5. E) labia majora.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

116) The space bounded by the labia minora is the

  1. A) fornix.
  2. B) vestibule.
  3. C) hymen.
  4. D) clitoris.
  5. E) isthmus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

117) Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the

  1. A) fornices.
  2. B) ampullae.
  3. C) labia majora.
  4. D) mons pubis.
  5. E) vestibular arches.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

118) The clitoris

  1. A) is derived from the same embryonic structures as the scrotum in males.
  2. B) is encircled by the mons pubis.
  3. C) is topped by vestibular glands.
  4. D) contains erectile tissue comparable to the corpora cavernosa of the penis.
  5. E) is protected by the vesico-uterine pouch.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

119) The ________ is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix.

  1. A) rugae
  2. B) fornix
  3. C) dartos
  4. D) fundus
  5. E) external os

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

120) Another term for vulva is

  1. A) gonads.
  2. B) vagina.
  3. C) female external genitalia.
  4. D) accessory glands.
  5. E) labia.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

121) The shallow recess that surrounds the cervical protrusion into the vagina is called the

  1. A) vestibule.
  2. B) fornix.
  3. C) pudendum.
  4. D) hymen.
  5. E) prepuce.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

122) The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the

  1. A) zona reticularis.
  2. B) fornix.
  3. C) zona pellucida.
  4. D) peripapilla.
  5. E) areola.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

123) The production of milk is called

  1. A) letdown.
  2. B) lactation.
  3. C) menstruation.
  4. D) colostrum.
  5. E) secretion.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

124) ________ are the organs of milk production.

  1. A) Cowper’s gland
  2. B) Lactiferous ducts
  3. C) Mammary glands
  4. D) The pudenda
  5. E) Bartholin’s glands

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

125) The glandular tissue of the breast consists of separate lobes, each containing several secretory

  1. A) sinuses.
  2. B) lobules.
  3. C) alveoli.
  4. D) areolae.
  5. E) papillae.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

126) Which of the following is not true of the suspensory ligaments of the breasts?

  1. A) They separate the lobes of the breast.
  2. B) They support the breast tissue.
  3. C) They are composed of fibrous tissue.
  4. D) They extend from the muscular wall out to the nipple.
  5. E) They carry milk to the nipple.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering/Understanding

127) The breasts are attached to the chest superficial to the ________ muscle.

  1. A) serratus anterior
  2. B) trapezius
  3. C) subclavius
  4. D) pectoralis major
  5. E) rectus abdominis

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

128) During menses,

  1. A) progesterone levels are high.
  2. B) a new uterine lining is formed.
  3. C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium.
  4. D) the old functional layer is sloughed off.
  5. E) the corpus luteum is most active.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

129) The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is

  1. A) menses.
  2. B) the proliferative phase.
  3. C) the secretory phase.
  4. D) the follicular phase.
  5. E) the luteal phase.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

130) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is

  1. A) LH.
  2. B) FSH.
  3. C) progesterone.
  4. D) luteosterone.
  5. E) estrogen.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

131) Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the levels of

  1. A) FSH.
  2. B) LH.
  3. C) relaxin.
  4. D) progesterone.
  5. E) inhibin.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

132) The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers

  1. A) follicle maturation.
  2. B) menstruation.
  3. C) ovulation.
  4. D) menopause.
  5. E) atresia.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

133) A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for

  1. A) follicle maturation.
  2. B) menstruation.
  3. C) ovulation.
  4. D) menopause.
  5. E) atresia.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

134) Which of the following is not a function of the ovaries?

  1. A) secretion of hormones
  2. B) production of oocytes
  3. C) formation of immature gametes
  4. D) secretion of inhibin
  5. E) responding directly to GnRH

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

135) A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge in

  1. A) follicle-stimulating hormone.
  2. B) luteinizing hormone.
  3. C) estrogen.
  4. D) progesterone.
  5. E) oxytocin.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

136) After ovulation, the ovary secretes

  1. A) luteinizing hormone.
  2. B) estrogen.
  3. C) progesterone.
  4. D) FSH.
  5. E) both estrogen and progesterone.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

137) A sample of a woman’s blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle.

  1. A) the proliferative phase
  2. B) menses
  3. C) the secretory phase
  4. D) menarche
  5. E) menopause

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

138) On which of the following days would the level of LH be highest in a female?

  1. A) the day before ovulation
  2. B) the first day of menses
  3. C) 3 days before ovulation
  4. D) 3 days after ovulation
  5. E) the day of ovulation

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

139) Which of the following statements about the uterine cycle is false?

  1. A) The first occurrence is termed menarche.
  2. B) It is ultimately controlled by GnRH.
  3. C) It continues during pregnancy.
  4. D) It often involves painful myometrial contraction.
  5. E) It is divided into three phases.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

140) Which of the following interactions is incorrect regarding the reproductive system?

  1. A) The endocrine system provides hormones that regulate the gonads.
  2. B) The male urethra is a structure shared by the urinary and reproductive systems.
  3. C) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are both involved in erection and ejaculation.
  4. D) The gonads produce hormones that influence muscular development.
  5. E) A vasectomy is an effective way of preventing ovulation.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

141) Secondary sexual characteristics

  1. A) may develop in response to testosterone.
  2. B) may develop in response to estrogen.
  3. C) are usually apparent at birth.
  4. D) may develop in response to testosterone or estrogen.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.15, 26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

142) Follicle-stimulating hormone

  1. A) stimulates the thyroid follicles.
  2. B) stimulates spermatogenesis.
  3. C) stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.
  4. D) is important only in females.
  5. E) stimulates spermatogenesis and stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.15, 26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

143) In a(n) ________, each ductus deferens is cut, and either a segment is removed and the ends tied (or cauterized) or silicone plugs are inserted.

  1. A) prostatectomy
  2. B) tubal ligation
  3. C) vasectomy
  4. D) hysterectomy
  5. E) ovariectomy

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

144) Which of the following is a barrier method of birth control?

  1. A) rhythm method
  2. B) diaphragm
  3. C) hormonal post-coital contraception
  4. D) oral contraceptives
  5. E) tubal ligation

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

145) “Natural family planning” is an alternative term for which form of birth control?

  1. A) the rhythm method
  2. B) an intrauterine device
  3. C) hormonal post-coital contraception
  4. D) oral contraceptives
  5. E) vasectomy

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

146) The ________ method of birth control involves taking either combination estrogen/progesterone birth control pills or progesterone-only pills in two large doses 12 hours apart within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse.

  1. A) oral contraceptive
  2. B) progesterone-only
  3. C) intrauterine device
  4. D) rhythm method
  5. E) hormonal post-coital contraception

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

147) Enlargement of the prostate gland, or ________, typically occurs spontaneously in men over age 50.

  1. A) fibrocystic disease
  2. B) prostate cancer
  3. C) testicular cancer
  4. D) carcinoma
  5. E) benign prostatic hypertrophy

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

148) The pathogen responsible for nearly 75% of cervical cancers is

  1. A) Borrelia burgdorferi.
  2. B) Human immunodeficiency virus.
  3. C)
  4. D) Human papillomavirus.
  5. E) Herpes simplex.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

149) What are the functions of the gonads? (Module 26.1A)

  1. A) produce and store gametes
  2. B) secrete digestive enzymes
  3. C) regulate body temperature
  4. D) activate the parasympathetic nervous system
  5. E) control acid-base regulation

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

150) Name the structures of the male external genitalia. (Module 26.1B)

  1. A) penis, testis, and urethra
  2. B) prostate gland, epididymis, and testis
  3. C) penis, urethra, and scrotum
  4. D) prostate gland, seminal gland, and bulbo-urethral gland
  5. E) penis, testis, and scrotum

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

151) Name the structures of the male internal genitalia. (Module 26.1C)

  1. A) penis, urethra, scrotum, prostate gland, and seminal gland
  2. B) testis, scrotum, epididymis, bulbo-urethral gland, penis, seminal gland
  3. C) urethra, penis, testis, ductus deferens, seminal gland, bulbo-urethral gland
  4. D) ductus deferens, seminal gland, prostate, bulbo-urethral gland, epididymis, testis
  5. E) testis, epididymis, prostate, scrotum, urethra

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

152) Identify the complex network of channels that is connected to the seminiferous tubules. (Module 26.2A)

  1. A) raphe of scrotum
  2. B) rete testis
  3. C) straight tubule
  4. D) ductus deferens
  5. E) epididymis

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

153) On a warm day, would the cremaster muscle be contracted or relaxed? Why?

(Module 26.2B)

  1. A) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the scrotum would be pulled close to the body.
  2. B) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the scrotum could descend away from the body.
  3. C) The cremaster muscle would be relaxed so the scrotum would be pulled close to the body.
  4. D) The cremaster muscle would be relaxed so the scrotum could descend away from the body.
  5. E) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the testes can descend into the scrotal cavities.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

154) Define spermatogenesis. (Module 26.3A)

  1. A) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using spermiogenesis.
  2. B) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis.
  3. C) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using meiosis.
  4. D) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis and meiosis.
  5. E) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis, meiosis, and spermiogenesis.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

155) How many sperm will eventually be produced from each primary spermatocyte?

(Module 26.3B)

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 6

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

156) List the structures of a sperm. (Module 26.3C)

  1. A) acrosome, head, neck, middle piece, and tail
  2. B) head, neck, and tail
  3. C) acrosome, spermatid, and spermiogenic head
  4. D) nucleus, lysosomes, peroxisomes, and Golgi apparatus
  5. E) acrosome, head, cilia, and flagella

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

157) What is the function of interstitial endocrine cells? (Module 26.4A)

  1. A) Interstitial endocrine cells undergo meiosis to become sperm.
  2. B) Interstitial endocrine cells secrete inhibin.
  3. C) Interstitial endocrine cells produce androgens, such as testosterone.
  4. D) Interstitial endocrine cells produce seminal fluid.
  5. E) Interstitial endocrine cells form the blood testis barrier.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

158) Describe the process of spermiation. (Module 26.4B)

  1. A) During spermiation, a primary spermatocyte becomes a secondary spermatocyte.
  2. B) During spermiation, a secondary spermatocyte becomes a spermatid.
  3. C) During spermiation, a spermatid becomes a sperm.
  4. D) During spermiation, a sperm loses its tail.
  5. E) During spermiation, a sperm loses its attachment to the nurse cell and enters the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

159) What is the role of nurse cells? (Module 26.4C)

  1. A) Nurse cells produce testosterone.
  2. B) Nurse cells undergo spermatogenesis to become mature sperm.
  3. C) Nurse cells secrete androgens.
  4. D) Nurse cells create a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis and form the blood testis barrier that isolates sperm from the blood.
  5. E) Nurse cells undergo synapsis to create secondary spermatocytes.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

160) What is the function of the ductus deferens? (Module 26.5A)

  1. A) stores sperm and transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct
  2. B) produces sperm and secretes testosterone
  3. C) secretes the majority of semen
  4. D) produces alkaline, mucus secretions
  5. E) carry fluid from the seminal gland and ampulla to the urethra

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

161) What are the functions of the bulbo-urethral glands? (Module 26.5B)

  1. A) Bulbo-urethral glands produce about 60 percent of the volume of semen.
  2. B) Bulbo-urethral glands produce the antibiotic protein, seminalplasmin.
  3. C) Bulbo-urethral glands produce testosterone.
  4. D) Bulbo-urethral glands produce inhibin.
  5. E) Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

162) Trace the ductal pathway from the epididymis to the urethra. (Module 26.5C)

  1. A) epididymis, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
  2. B) epididymis, seminal gland, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
  3. C) epididymis, prostate gland, ejaculatory duct, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, urethra
  4. D) epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, urethra
  5. E) epididymis, ejaculatory duct, prostate gland, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, seminal glands, urethra

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

163) Name the three columns of erectile tissue in the penis. (Module 26.6A)

  1. A) corpus vaginalis and the paired corpora albuginea
  2. B) ischiocavernosus and the paired bulbospongiosus
  3. C) corpus spongiosum and the paired corpora cavernosa
  4. D) ischial ramus and the paired crura of the penis
  5. E) root of the penis, prepuce, and the glans penis

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

164) An inability to contract the ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus would interfere with which phase of the male sexual response? (Module 26.6B)

  1. A) arousal
  2. B) emission
  3. C) ejaculation
  4. D) erection
  5. E) impotence

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

165) Identify the sources of hormones that control male sexual and reproductive functions. (Module 26.7B)

  1. A) adrenal gland and the testes
  2. B) adrenal gland, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the testes
  3. C) testes, seminal glands, prostate, and bulbo-urethral glands
  4. D) hypothalamus, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the testes
  5. E) hypothalamus, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

166) What effect would low FSH levels have on sperm production? (Module 26.7C)

  1. A) Low FSH levels would decrease the level of testosterone which increases sperm production.
  2. B) Low FSH levels would decrease the level of testosterone which decreases sperm production.
  3. C) Low FSH levels would increase the level of testosterone which increases sperm production.
  4. D) Low FSH levels would increase the level of testosterone which decreases sperm production.
  5. E) Low FSH levels would increase the level of inhibin which increases sperm production.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

167) Name the structures of the external genitalia. (Module 26.8B)

  1. A) cervix and vagina
  2. B) urethra, clitoris, and vagina
  3. C) mons pubis, clitoris, and labia
  4. D) urethra, vagina, mammary glands
  5. E) ovary, uterine tube, uterus, and vagina

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

168) Where does fertilization normally occur? (Module 26.8C)

  1. A) vagina
  2. B) ovary
  3. C) uterus
  4. D) labia
  5. E) uterine tube

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

169) Distinguish between the vesico-uterine and recto-uterine pouches. (Module 26.9A)

  1. A) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the right lateral wall of the pelvis and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the left lateral wall of the pelvis.
  2. B) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the left lateral wall of the pelvis and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the right lateral wall of the pelvis.
  3. C) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the anterior surface of the colon.
  4. D) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the anterior surface of the colon and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder.
  5. E) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the inferior surface of the stomach and liver and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the pelvic floor.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

170) What roles do the ovaries perform? (Module 26.9B)

  1. A) produce oocytes and provide the site for fetal development
  2. B) produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin
  3. C) secrete female and male sex hormones and secrete catecholamines
  4. D) produce oocytes, anchor and support the uterus structurally, and act as the site for fertilization
  5. E) secrete FSH and LH to control female reproductive cycles

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

171) Name the structures enclosed by the broad ligament, and describe the function of the mesovarium. (Module 26.9C)

  1. A) ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the uterus
  2. B) uterine tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the vagina
  3. C) ovaries uterine tubes, and cervix; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the cervix
  4. D) ovaries uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the vagina
  5. E) ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes each ovary

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

172) Define oocyte. (Module 26.10A)

  1. A) Oocyte is an immature female gamete.
  2. B) Oocyte is a mature female gamete.
  3. C) Oocyte is the nest a gamete develops in.
  4. D) Oocyte is the stage of a female gamete during ovulation.
  5. E) Oocyte is the empty follicle after ovulation.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

173) How do recently released secondary oocytes reach the uterine tube? (Module 26.11A)

  1. A) vesicular exocytosis
  2. B) vesicular endocytosis
  3. C) axonal transport
  4. D) smooth muscle contractions
  5. E) ciliary fluid currents

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

174) Describe the three layers of the uterine wall. (Module 26.11B)

  1. A) The endometrium is the outer, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the inner, incomplete serosal layer.
  2. B) The endometrium is the outer, muscular layer; the myometrium is the middle, incomplete serosal layer; the perimetrium is the inner, glandular layer.
  3. C) The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.
  4. D) The endometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the myometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer.
  5. E) The endometrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer; the myometrium is the inner, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the middle, glandular layer.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

175) Name the regions of the uterus. (Module 26.11C)

  1. A) cardia, fundus, and body
  2. B) fundus, body, and vagina
  3. C) uterine tube, body, and cervix
  4. D) fundus, body, and cervix
  5. E) head, body, and neck

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

176) Name the layers of the endometrium. (Module 26.12A)

  1. A) deeper basal layer and superficial functional layer
  2. B) deeper functional layer and superficial basal layer
  3. C) deeper smooth muscle layer and superficial epithelial layer
  4. D) deeper epithelial layer and superficial smooth muscle layer
  5. E) deeper myometrium layer and superficial perimetrium layer

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

177) How long does each menstruation typically last? (Module 26.12B)

  1. A) 1-2 days
  2. B) 3-5 days
  3. C) 1-7 days
  4. D) 7-10 days
  5. E) 14 days

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

178) Identify the functions of the vagina. (Module 26.13B)

  1. A) produce mucus, protect the uterus from pathogens, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation
  2. B) produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, and secrete inhibin
  3. C) primary site of fertilization, site of fetal development, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation
  4. D) passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and forms the inferior portion of the birth canal
  5. E) passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and is the site of fetal development

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

179) Cite the similarities that exist between certain structures in the reproductive systems of females and males. (Module 26.13C)

  1. A) The prostate gland in males is similar to the uterus in females and the both the male penis and female vagina contain erectile tissue.
  2. B) The ductus deferens in males is similar to the vagina in females and both males and females have folds of tissue called hymen.
  3. C) The scrotum in males is similar to the mons pubis in females and the urethra of both males and females travels through the reproductive structures.
  4. D) The seminal glands in males are similar to the greater vestibular glands in females and both males and females produce gametes outside of the body.
  5. E) The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

180) Define lactation. (Module 26.14A)

  1. A) Lactation is the secretion of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland.
  2. B) Lactation is the secretion of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland.
  3. C) Lactation is the production of milk by the mammary glands.
  4. D) Lactation is the act of breastfeeding an infant.
  5. E) Lactation is the development of the breasts at puberty.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

181) Explain whether the blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would or would not interfere with the delivery of milk to the nipple. (Module 26.14B)

  1. A) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because each gland has only one lactiferous sinus.
  2. B) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because although each gland has several lactiferous sinuses, only one can be active at a time.
  3. C) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would not interfere with the delivery of milk because milk doesn’t travel through the lactiferous sinuses to exit the nipple.
  4. D) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would not interfere with the delivery of milk because each gland has several lactiferous sinuses.
  5. E) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because the lactiferous sinus is where the milk is produced.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

182) Trace the route of milk from its site of production to the body surface. (Module 26.14C)

  1. A) secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple
  2. B) secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous duct, lactiferous sinus, surface of the nipple
  3. C) surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct
  4. D) ducts within a lobule, secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, surface of the nipple
  5. E) lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

183) What ovarian cycle changes would result if the LH surge did not occur? (Module 26.15A)

  1. A) If the LH surge did not occur, follicles would not develop, estrogen levels would increase, and the oocyte would not develop.
  2. B) If the LH surge did not occur, oocyte and follicular development would be faster and estrogen and progesterone levels would be higher.
  3. C) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation would not occur, and the corpus luteum would not form.
  4. D) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation would occur around day 7, and the corpus albicans would not form.
  5. E) If the LH surge did not occur, the menstrual phase would continue past day 7, inhibin secretion would not occur, and estrogen secretion would not occur.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

184) What uterine cycle event occurs when estrogen and progesterone decrease?

(Module 26.15B)

  1. A) ovulation
  2. B) ovarian follicle development
  3. C) repair and regeneration of the functional layer
  4. D) secretion by uterine glands
  5. E) destruction of the functional layer and menstruation

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

185) Which birth control method provides some protection against sexually transmitted diseases? (Module 26.16A)

  1. A) birth control pills
  2. B) diaphragm with spermicide
  3. C) condoms
  4. D) intrauterine device
  5. E) surgical sterilization

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

186) The use of which birth control method often results in the cessation of the uterine cycle? (Module 26.16B)

  1. A) condoms
  2. B) intrauterine device
  3. C) diaphragm with spermicide
  4. D) progesterone-only shots
  5. E) the rhythm method

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

187) Define vasectomy. (Module 26.16C)

  1. A) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of females by blocking the uterine tubes.
  2. B) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of females by removal of the uterus.
  3. C) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by the removal of the testes.
  4. D) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by the removal of the prostate gland.
  5. E) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by cutting the ductus deferens.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  26.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

188) Compare benign prostatic hypertrophy with prostate cancer. (Module 26.17A)

  1. A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects the seminal glands in addition to the prostate whereas prostate cancer just affects the prostate gland.
  2. B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects young men whereas prostate cancer affects older men.
  3. C) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects older men whereas prostate cancer affects young men.
  4. D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy is an enlargement of the prostate whereas prostate cancer is a malignancy.
  5. E) Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a malignancy whereas prostate cancer is a shrinkage of the prostate gland.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  26.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

189) Which pathogen is associated with most cases of cervical cancer? (Module 26.17B)

  1. A) human immunodeficiency virus
  2. B) human papillomavirus
  3. C) Chlamydia
  4. D) Syphilis
  5. E) rhinovirus

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  26.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

Essay Questions

 

190) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?

Answer:  In males, the gonads (testes) secrete androgens and produce hundreds of millions of gametes (sperm) each day. The sperm are mixed with secretions, forming semen, and are expelled from the body during ejaculation into the female. In females, the gonads (ovaries) secrete estrogen and progesterone and release a single ovum (gamete) every month. The vagina receives the penis during sexual intercourse and the ejaculate is deposited near the external os of the uterus. If the ovum is fertilized and implants in the endometrium, the female’s body nourishes the development of the embryo and fetus until birth.

Learning Outcome:  26.3, 26.4, 26.5, 26.6, 26.10, 26.13, 26.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

191) How does mitosis differ from meiosis?

Answer:  All body cells that divide, except those destined to be gametes, use mitosis to replicate the set of chromosomes and pass a complete diploid set of chromosomes (23 pairs, total of 46 for humans) to each daughter cell. In meiosis, each daughter cell receives half that many chromosomes, only one from each pair (23 chromosomes), the haploid complement. Meiosis occurs in two stages, meiosis I and meiosis II, whereas mitosis occurs in a single stage. In meiosis I, the homologous pairs stick to each other in synapsis, giving the process of gene exchange to scramble the genome as a tetrad. In meiosis II, each dyad is separated, leading to another pair of daughter cells with a haploid number of chromosomes.

Learning Outcome:  26.3, 26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

192) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells. What signs of the disease would you expect?

Answer:  Granulosa cells produce estrogen, so a tumor involving these cells would lead to highly elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen would set in motion the development of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast enlargement, deposition of fat in characteristic places, development of axillary and pubic hair and apocrine sweat glands, along with accelerated skeletal growth.

Learning Outcome:  26.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

193) Identify important regulatory hormones that establish and maintain male sexual function. (Module 26.7A)

Answer:  Important regulatory hormones that establish and maintain male sexual function are follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Testosterone is the most important androgen, although some tissues, such as the external genitalia and prostate, are more responsive or sensitive to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

Learning Outcome:  26.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

194) Identify the main organs of the female reproductive system. (Module 26.8A)

Answer:  The main organs of the female reproductive system are the external genitalia (vulva and urethra) and the internal genitalia (ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina).

Learning Outcome:  26.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

195) List the important events in follicle development. (Module 26.10B)

Answer:  Follicle development may take a year to complete. Important events include (1) formation of primary ovarian follicles from primordial ovarian follicles in an egg nest, (2) formation of secondary ovarian follicles, and (3) formation of tertiary ovarian follicles. During the monthly ovarian cycle one tertiary ovarian follicle matures, releases a secondary oocyte at ovulation, and forms a corpus luteum, which will degenerate into a corpus albicans if fertilization doesn’t occur.

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

196) What are the main differences in gamete production between males and females?

(Module 26.10C)

Answer:  Males produce gametes from puberty until death; females produce gametes from puberty until menopause. Males produce many gametes at a time; females typically produce one or two per 28-day ovarian cycle. Males release mature gametes that have completed meiosis; females release secondary oocytes suspended in metaphase of meiosis II.

Learning Outcome:  26.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

197) Describe the phases of the uterine cycle. (Module 26.12C)

Answer:  The uterine cycle begins with the menstrual phase, an interval marked by the destruction of the functional layer and menstruation (menses). After menstruation, the proliferative phase begins, during which the functional layer undergoes repair and thickens. Following the proliferative phase is the secretory phase, during which uterine (endometrial) glands enlarge.

Learning Outcome:  26.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

198) Describe the anatomy of the vagina. (Module 26.13A)

Answer:  The vagina is a muscular tube extending between the uterus and external genitalia; its lining forms folds called rugae. The proximal portion of the vagina is marked by the cervix, which dips into the vaginal canal, and the shallow recess known as the vaginal fornix. The hymen, a thin epithelial fold, partially blocks the entrance to the vagina until physical distortion ruptures it.

Learning Outcome:  26.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

199) Define sexually transmitted disease. (Module 26.17C)

Answer:  Sexually transmitted diseases are infections that are transferred from person to person primarily or exclusively by sexual contact or intercourse.

Learning Outcome:  26.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

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