Visual Anatomy & Physiology 3E By Martini – Test Bank

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Visual Anatomy & Physiology 3E By Martini – Test Bank

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 5   The Integumentary System

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except

  1. A) protection of underlying tissue.
  2. B) excretion of salts and wastes.
  3. C) maintenance of body temperature.
  4. D) synthesis of vitamin C.
  5. E) provision of sensation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) The two components of the integumentary system are the

  1. A) epidermis and dermis.
  2. B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
  3. C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
  4. D) integument and hypodermis.
  5. E) epidermis and superficial fascia.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except

  1. A) hair follicles.
  2. B) sebaceous glands.
  3. C) sweat glands.
  4. D) the epidermis.
  5. E) lamellar corpuscles.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

Figure 5-1

 

4) An intradermal injection is administered into which layer?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) below layer 5
  5. E) 5

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

5) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

6) Which tissue is located in the region labeled “2”?

  1. A) stratified squamous epithelium
  2. B) areolar connective tissue
  3. C) adipose tissue
  4. D) cartilage and blood
  5. E) reticular connective tissues

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

7) Which layer contains most of the accessory organs?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) below layer 5
  5. E) 5

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

8) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

9) The type of most cells that form the strata in the epidermis are

  1. A) adipocytes.
  2. B) keratinocytes.
  3. C) fibroblasts.
  4. D) melanocytes.
  5. E) dendritic cells.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

10) The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the

  1. A) stratum corneum.
  2. B) stratum lucidum.
  3. C) stratum basale.
  4. D) stratum granulosum.
  5. E) stratum spinosum.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

11) The tough “horny” superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the

  1. A) stratum corneum.
  2. B) stratum lucidum.
  3. C) stratum basale.
  4. D) stratum granulosum.
  5. E) stratum spinosum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

12) Insensible perspiration takes place in the

  1. A) stratum corneum.
  2. B) stratum lucidum.
  3. C) stratum basale.
  4. D) stratum granulosum.
  5. E) stratum spinosum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

13) The keratinocytes are tightly connected with each other by

  1. A) keratin.
  2. B) prekeratin.
  3. C) collagen fibers.
  4. D) elastic fibers.
  5. E) desmosomes.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

14) In which layer of skin are keratinocytes produced?

  1. A) dermis
  2. B) subcutaneous layer
  3. C) stratum spinosum
  4. D) stratum corneum
  5. E) stratum basale

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

15) The epidermis in the thin skin contains ________ layer(s) and in the thick skin contains ________ layers.

  1. A) 1; 2
  2. B) 2; 3
  3. C) 3; 4
  4. D) 4; 5
  5. E) 5; 6

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

16) All of the following are characteristics of the epidermis except that it

  1. A) is multilayered.
  2. B) is flexible.
  3. C) is self-repairing.
  4. D) serves as UV radiation protection.
  5. E) is vascularized.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

17) All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they

  1. A) extend into the dermis.
  2. B) contain increased numbers of free nerve endings.
  3. C) cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin.
  4. D) produce patterns that are determined genetically.
  5. E) interconnect with the dermal papillae.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

18) ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system.

  1. A) Dendritic cells
  2. B) Basal cells
  3. C) Merkel cells
  4. D) Squamous cells
  5. E) Melanocytes

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

19) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce

  1. A) melanin.
  2. B) keratin.
  3. C) carotene.
  4. D) perspiration.
  5. E) hemoglobin.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

20) All of the following are true of the pigment melanin except that it

  1. A) decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun.
  2. B) is usually some shade of brown or black.
  3. C) protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation.
  4. D) is released through melanosomes.
  5. E) is produced by cells called melanocytes.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

21) What is the survival rate of a localized malignant melanoma that is detected and removed in the early stages of the cancer?

  1. A) Above 95%
  2. B) 75%
  3. C) 60%
  4. D) 40%
  5. E) less than 20%

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

22) From what layer of skin are melanosomes released?

  1. A) stratum coneum
  2. B) stratum basale
  3. C) papillary layer of dermis
  4. D) reticular layer of dermis
  5. E) hypodermis

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

23) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight.

  1. A) sebum
  2. B) hemoglobin
  3. C) melanin
  4. D) carotene
  5. E) keratin

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

24) Cyanosis signifies that a patient has

  1. A) had too much sun.
  2. B) been kept out of the sun.
  3. C) an allergic reaction.
  4. D) oxygen-starved skin.
  5. E) been exposed to cyanide.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

25) ________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow.

  1. A) Melanin
  2. B) Chlorophyll
  3. C) Carotene
  4. D) Hemoglobin
  5. E) Bilirubin

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

26) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed

  1. A) cyanosis.
  2. B) basal cell carcinoma.
  3. C) malignant melanoma.
  4. D) metastasis.
  5. E) melanosome.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

27) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum

  1. A) corneum.
  2. B) lucidum.
  3. C) granulosum.
  4. D) spinosum.
  5. E) basale.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer.

  1. A) papillary
  2. B) reticular
  3. C) epidermal
  4. D) subcutaneous
  5. E) hypodermal

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

29) All of the following are true of the hypodermis except it

  1. A) contains many blood vessels.
  2. B) permits independent movement of deeper structures.
  3. C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue.
  4. D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.
  5. E) stores energy reserves.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

30) What is the most common type of cells in the subcutaneous layer?

  1. A) keratinocytes
  2. B) adipocytes
  3. C) melanocytes
  4. D) fibroblasts
  5. E) fibrocytes

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

31) Central adiposity is strongly associated with

  1. A) liver diseases.
  2. B) lung diseases.
  3. C) kidney disorders.
  4. D) cardiovascular disorders.
  5. E) reproductive illnesses.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

32) Skin wrinkle and sagging is caused by

  1. A) UV radiation.
  2. B) hormonal changes.
  3. C) aging.
  4. D) all of the choices.
  5. E) none of the choices.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

33) If the epidermis, dermis, and part of hypodermis are burned, it is classified as

  1. A) first degree.
  2. B) second degree.
  3. C) partial thickness.
  4. D) full thickness.
  5. E) none of the choices.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

34) All of the following can be used in the management of severe burn except

  1. A) antibiotics.
  2. B) fluid replacement.
  3. C) corticosteroids.
  4. D) skin graft.
  5. E) cell culture.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

35) All of the following are derived from epithelial columns except

  1. A) hair roots.
  2. B) hair follicles.
  3. C) nails.
  4. D) sebaceous glands.
  5. E) sweat glands.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

36) All of the following are functions of accessory structures of integument except

  1. A) thermoregulation.
  2. B) protection of skull.
  3. C) sensation of touch.
  4. D) production of skin pigments.
  5. E) excretion of sweat.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

37) ________ is a small connective tissue peg that contains nerve endings and blood vessels.

  1. A) Hair medulla
  2. B) Hair bulb
  3. C) Hair papilla
  4. D) Hair matrix
  5. E) Hair cuticle

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

38) When the arrector pili muscles contract,

  1. A) “goose bumps” are formed.
  2. B) hairs are shed.
  3. C) sweat is released from sweat glands.
  4. D) shivering occurs.
  5. E) the skin changes color.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

39) If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed,

  1. A) the hair produced by the follicle will change from terminal to vellus.
  2. B) the color of the hair will become lighter.
  3. C) the texture of the hair will become coarser.
  4. D) the follicle will lose its blood supply.
  5. E) hair production will not be affected.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

40) Each of the following statements concerning hair is true except

  1. A) the medulla is the soft core of the hair.
  2. B) the cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin.
  3. C) terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair.
  4. D) club hair is hair that has ceased growing.
  5. E) scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

41) All of the following are correct regarding hair growth cycle except that

  1. A) a hair in the scalp grows for 2 — 5 years.
  2. B) a healthy adult with full head of hair may lose up to 100 hairs each day.
  3. C) during the active phase, the hair grows continuously.
  4. D) club hair is shed during follicle reactivation.
  5. E) the hair becomes club hair during regression phase.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

42) ________ are fine hairs that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface.

  1. A) Vellus hairs
  2. B) Velvet hairs
  3. C) Follicular hairs
  4. D) Terminal hairs

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

43) ________ hairs are coarse pigmented hairs.

  1. A) Vellus
  2. B) Dense
  3. C) Follicular
  4. D) Terminal
  5. E) Keratinous

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

44) Dandruff is a disorder that results in dry skin flakes forming in the scalp. A common cause of dandruff could be

  1. A) inflammation around sebaceous glands.
  2. B) lack of lamellated corpuscles.
  3. C) overactive arrector pili muscles.
  4. D) inactive apocrine sweat glands.
  5. E) inactive merocrine sweat glands.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

45) From what structure does merocrine secretion occur?

  1. A) ceruminous gland
  2. B) mammary gland
  3. C) apocrine sweat gland
  4. D) sebaceous gland
  5. E) eccrine sweat gland

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

46) The substance called sebum is commonly known as

  1. A) regular sweat.
  2. B) earwax.
  3. C) milk.
  4. D) skin oil.
  5. E) odiferous sweat.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

47) The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.

  1. A) ceruminous
  2. B) apocrine sweat
  3. C) merocrine sweat
  4. D) sebaceous
  5. E) axillary

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

48) Perspiration is produced by ________ glands.

  1. A) ceruminous
  2. B) apocrine sweat
  3. C) merocrine sweat
  4. D) sebaceous
  5. E) mammary

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

49) Milk is produced by ________ glands.

  1. A) sebaceous
  2. B) mammary
  3. C) merocrine sweat
  4. D) ceruminous
  5. E) eccrine sweat

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

50) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found

  1. A) in the axillae.
  2. B) on the chest.
  3. C) on the palms of the hands.
  4. D) on the upper back.
  5. E) surrounding the genitals.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

51) All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it

  1. A) is very watery.
  2. B) contains electrolytes and waste products.
  3. C) helps cool the body when it evaporates.
  4. D) helps prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin.
  5. E) produces the body odor characteristic of “sweating.”

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

52) ________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.

  1. A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine
  2. B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous
  3. C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
  4. D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous
  5. E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

53) Which of the following is a holocrine exocrine gland?

  1. A) sebaceous
  2. B) apocrine
  3. C) merocrine
  4. D) mammary
  5. E) ceruminous

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

54) Merocrine sweat glands

  1. A) are compound alveolar glands.
  2. B) produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor.
  3. C) secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.
  4. D) increase in number and activity with aging.
  5. E) primarily function in lubricating the hairs.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

55) The nail body covers the

  1. A) nail root.
  2. B) nail bed.
  3. C) lunula.
  4. D) free edge.
  5. E) hyponychium.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

56) Nail production occurs at the nail

  1. A) body.
  2. B) bed.
  3. C) root.
  4. D) cuticle.
  5. E) hyponychium.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

57) At the base of a nail, keratinized skin called the cuticle is also called the

  1. A) eponychium.
  2. B) lunula.
  3. C) hyponychium.
  4. D) cerumen.
  5. E) phalanx.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

58) The effects of aging on the skin include

  1. A) a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.
  2. B) increased production of vitamin D.
  3. C) thickening of the epidermis.
  4. D) an increased blood supply to the dermis.
  5. E) an increased number of sweat glands.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

59) Wrinkles in elderly individuals are the result of

  1. A) increased production of epidermis.
  2. B) loss of elastic filaments in the reticular layer of the dermis.
  3. C) increased keratinization of the epidermis.
  4. D) the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin.
  5. E) decreased thickness of the dermis.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

60) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?

  1. A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly.
  2. B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly.
  3. C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

61) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?

  1. A) increased activity by melanocytes
  2. B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells
  3. C) wrinkles
  4. D) chromosomal damage in basal cells or melanocytes
  5. E) hair growth

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

62) Vitamin ________ is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight.

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

63) Epidermal growth factor exerts all of the following effects on the epidermis except

  1. A) promoting cell division.
  2. B) stimulating keratin synthesis.
  3. C) accelerating tissue repair.
  4. D) speeding up glandular function.
  5. E) stimulating melanin production.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

64) Vitamin D3 formed within the skin has all of these effects on other organ systems except that it

  1. A) is essential for absorption of calcium and phosphorus by the digestive system.
  2. B) functions as a precursor for the hormone calcitriol in the endocrine system.
  3. C) is essential for bone maintenance.
  4. D) functions in the activation of plasma cells by the lymphatic system.
  5. E) is essential for bone growth.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

65) Rickets can be prevented by

  1. A) adequate sunlight.
  2. B) dietary intake of cholecalciferol.
  3. C) avoiding sunlight.
  4. D) adequate sunlight and dietary intake of cholecalciferol.
  5. E) dietary intake of cholecalciferol and avoiding sunlight.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

66) In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.

  1. A) granulation cells
  2. B) dendritic cells
  3. C) macrophages
  4. D) fibroblasts
  5. E) muscle cells

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

67) The repair of the epidermis after a wound begins as basal cells produce new

  1. A) elastic fibers.
  2. B) collagen fibers.
  3. C) reticular fibers.
  4. D) dense connective tissue.
  5. E) epidermal cells.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

68) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because

  1. A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels.
  2. B) stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury.
  3. C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis.
  4. D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together.
  5. E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

69) The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury.

 

  1. blood clot/scab formation
  2. cellular migration
  3. epidermis covers granulation tissue
  4. epidermis covers scar tissue

 

Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?

  1. A) 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. B) 4, 3, 2, 1
  3. C) 4, 3, 1, 2
  4. D) 3, 4, 1, 2
  5. E) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

70) Scar tissue is the result of

  1. A) large numbers of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area.
  2. B) increased numbers of epidermal layers in the area of the injury.
  3. C) a thickened stratum basale in the area of the injury.
  4. D) increased numbers of fibroblasts in the injured area.
  5. E) a lack of sebaceous glands in the injured area.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

71) Granulation tissue is composed of

  1. A) clotted blood.
  2. B) an extensive capillary network.
  3. C) fibroblasts.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called

  1. A) a scab.
  2. B) a keloid.
  3. C) granulation tissue.
  4. D) a clot.
  5. E) a lesion.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

73) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called

  1. A) a scab.
  2. B) a keloid.
  3. C) granulation tissue.
  4. D) a clot.
  5. E) a lesion.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

74) The combination of fibrin clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called

  1. A) a scab.
  2. B) a keloid.
  3. C) granulation tissue.
  4. D) a clot.
  5. E) a lesion.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

75) Identify the two major components of the cutaneous membrane. (Module 5.1A)

  1. A) dermis and epidermis
  2. B) dermis and subcutaneous layer
  3. C) epidermis and subcutaneous layer
  4. D) dermis and the cutaneous plexus
  5. E) epidermis and the cutaneous plexus

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

76) Compare thin skin with thick skin. (Module 5.2A)

  1. A) Thin skin has only 1 layer and is found on lips, eyelids, and other delicate structures. Thick skin has hundreds of layers and is found all over the body except where thin skin is found.
  2. B) Thin skin has only 1 layer and contains only the epidermis. Thick skin has 2 layers made up of the epidermis and dermis.
  3. C) Thin skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. Thick skin has 5 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
  4. D) Thin skin has 4 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Thick skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces.
  5. E) Thin skin contains the epidermis and dermis but not the subcutaneous layer. Thick skin contains the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layer.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

77) Identify the five layers of the epidermis (from superficial to deep). (Module 5.2B)

  1. A) stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum
  2. B) stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum
  3. C) stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucideum, stratum spinosum, stratum corneum
  4. D) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum
  5. E) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

78) Dandruff is caused by excessive shedding of cells from the outer layer of skin on the scalp. So, dandruff is composed of cells from which epidermal layer? (Module 5.2C)

  1. A) stratum basale
  2. B) stratum granulosum
  3. C) stratum lucidum
  4. D) stratum corneum
  5. E) stratum spinosum

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

79) A splinter that penetrates to the third layer of epidermis of the palm is lodged in which layer? (Module 5.2D)

  1. A) stratum basale
  2. B) stratum granulosum
  3. C) stratum lucidum
  4. D) stratum corneum
  5. E) stratum spinosum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

80) Name the two pigments contained in the epidermis. (Module 5.3A)

  1. A) carotene and melatonin
  2. B) creatinine and melatonin
  3. C) carotene and melanin
  4. D) keratin and melanin
  5. E) carnitine and melanoma

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

81) Why does exposure to sunlight or sunlamps darken skin? (Module 5.3B)

  1. A) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin.
  2. B) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melatonin.
  3. C) UV radiation stimulates keratinocytes to produce more carotene.
  4. D) UV radiation stimulates keratinocytes to produce more keratin.
  5. E) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin and keratinocytes to produce more keratin.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

82) Why is basal cell carcinoma considered less dangerous than malignant melanoma?

(Module 5.3D)

  1. A) Basal cell carcinoma affects the stratum basale only and will not spread to any other layer, whereas malignant melanoma affects the melanocytes which can be found throughout the epidermis.
  2. B) Basal cell carcinoma affect the cells of the stratum basale which cannot form tumors, whereas malignant melanoma affects the melanocytes which form cancerous tumors.
  3. C) Basal cell carcinoma only occurs in the elderly, whereas malignant melanoma occurs in children and young adults.
  4. D) Basal cell carcinoma only occurs on the face, whereas malignant melanoma can occur anywhere on the body.
  5. E) Basal cell carcinomas rarely become malignant and metastasize, whereas malignant melanoma cells quickly spread throughout the lymphatic system to other organs.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

83) Explain why a healthy 6-month-old might have yellow-orange skin. (Module 5.3E)

  1. A) The skin of infants is very thin making it appear yellow-orange.
  2. B) Breastmilk causes the skin to look yellow-orange.
  3. C) The child may have been outside when it was cold causing vasoconstriction which reduces the pink coloration and makes skin look more yellow-orange.
  4. D) The child may have eaten foods with a high amount of carotene causing the pigment to accumulate in the skin making it look yellow-orange.
  5. E) The child may be developing adipose tissue which has a yellowish tint.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

84) Describe the layers of the dermis. (Module 5.4A)

  1. A) The superficial papillary layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. The deep reticular layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers.
  2. B) The superficial reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. The deep papillary layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers.
  3. C) The superficial papillary layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. The deep reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons.
  4. D) The superficial reticular layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. The deep papillary layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons.
  5. E) The superficial papillary layer contains stratified squamous epithelial tissue. The deep reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

85) Predict the degree of scarring after the healing of a horizontal cut on the forehead just above the eyebrow. (Module 5.4B)

  1. A) The scarring will be minimal because the cut follows the same direction as the tension lines.
  2. B) The scarring will be minimal because the cut is at a right angle to the direction of the tension lines.
  3. C) The scarring will be significant because the cut follows the same direction as the tension lines.
  4. D) The scarring will be significant because the cut is at a right angle to the direction of the tension lines.
  5. E) The scarring will be minimal because no tension lines run through that area of the body.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

86) Distinguish among a first-degree, second-degree, and third-degree burn. (Module 5.5A)

  1. A) A first-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A second-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A third-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer.
  2. B) A first-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A second-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A third-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer.
  3. C) A first-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A second-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A third-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin.
  4. D) A first-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A second-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A third-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis.
  5. E) A first-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A second-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A third-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

87) Which type of burn usually requires skin grafting? Why? (Module 5.5B)

  1. A) First-degree burns because the epidermis is damaged.
  2. B) First-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.
  3. C) Second-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.
  4. D) Third-degree burns because the epidermis is damaged.
  5. E) Third-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

88) A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with third-degree burns on her entire right leg, entire right arm, and the back of her trunk. Estimate the percentage of her body surface area affected by these burns. (Module 5.5D)

  1. A) 9%
  2. B) 18%
  3. C) 36%
  4. D) 45%
  5. E) 91%

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

89) What are epidermal derivatives? (Module 5.6A)

  1. A) Epidermal derivatives are pigment molecules produced by the epidermis, including carotene and melanin.
  2. B) Epidermal derivatives are the different cell types found in the epidermis, including epithelial cells and melanocytes.
  3. C) Epidermal derivatives are chemicals produced by the epidermis, such as heparin and prostaglandins.
  4. D) Epidermal derivatives are secretions produced by the epidermis, including sweat and sebum.
  5. E) Epidermal derivatives are accessory structures that originate from the epidermis during embryonic development, including hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands, and nails.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

90) Which exocrine glands are in the integument? (Module 5.6B)

  1. A) Sweat glands and salivary glands
  2. B) Mammary glands and salivary glands
  3. C) Sweat glands and sebaceous glands
  4. D) Mucous glands and sebaceous glands
  5. E) Mucous glands and sweat glands

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) Describe a typical strand of hair. (Module 5.7A)

  1. A) A keratinous strand produced by basal cells within a hair follicle.
  2. B) A small connective tissue peg filled with blood vessels and nerves.
  3. C) A bundle of smooth muscles attached to a hair follicle.
  4. D) A layer of epithelial cells surrounding a deep layer of connective tissue.
  5. E) Many layers of dead, tightly compressed cells packed with keratin.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

92) What happens when an arrector pili muscle contracts? (Module 5.7B)

  1. A) The hair falls out of the hair bulb.
  2. B) The hair grows approximately 0.33mm.
  3. C) The sebaceous gland secretes oil onto the surface of the hair.
  4. D) The sweat gland secretes sweat out of the pores next to the hair.
  5. E) The hair follicle becomes erect, producing “goose bumps.”

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

93) Identify and describe the general functions of the exocrine glands found in the skin.

(Module 5.8A)

  1. A) Sweat glands and salivary glands; the glands help with thermoregulation and dissolve particles on the skin.
  2. B) Mammary glands and salivary glands; the glands help with reducing bacterial colonization and dissolve particles on the skin.
  3. C) Sweat glands and sebaceous glands; the glands help with thermoregulation, excrete wastes, and lubricate hairs and the epidermis.
  4. D) Mucous glands and sebaceous glands; the glands help lubricate hairs and epidermis and provide waterproofing.
  5. E) Mucous glands and sweat glands; the glands excrete wastes and provide waterproofing.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

94) Describe the secretory method and functions of sebum. (Module 5.8B)

  1. A) merocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth
  2. B) holocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth
  3. C) apocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth
  4. D) merocrine; sebum is important in thermoregulation and excretion of wastes
  5. E) endocrine; sebum is important in thermoregulation and excretion of wastes

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

95) Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland? (Module 5.8C)

  1. A) apocrine sweat glands
  2. B) eccrine sweat glands
  3. C) merocrine sweat glands
  4. D) sebaceous glands
  5. E) mucous glands

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

96) Name the type of cell that assists the discharge of merocrine secretions, and list the glands in which such cells are present. (Module 5.8D)

  1. A) arrector pili cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands
  2. B) arrector pili cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands
  3. C) myoepithelial cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands
  4. D) myoepithelial cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands
  5. E) goblet cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

97) Where does nail production occur? (Module 5.9A)

  1. A) At the lunula
  2. B) At the cuticle
  3. C) At the eponychium
  4. D) At the hyponychium
  5. E) At the nail root

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

98) Define hyponychium. (Module 5.9B)

  1. A) A portion of the stratum corneum of the nail root that extends over the exposed nail.
  2. B) The thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of the nail.
  3. C) An epidermal fold not visible from the surface where nail production occurs.
  4. D) An area of epidermis that is covered by the nail.
  5. E) The visible portion of the nail.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

99) Why does the free edge of a nail appear white? (Module 5.9C)

  1. A) The melanocytes are no longer living in the nail.
  2. B) The keratinocytes have been damaged as the nail grew out.
  3. C) There are no underlying blood vessels.
  4. D) The epidermis is dividing faster there than at the root.
  5. E) The nail is dryer and more brittle there than at the root.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  5.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

100) Why does hair turn white or gray with age? (Module 5.10A)

  1. A) The hair is no longer producing carotene.
  2. B) The keratinocytes have been damaged.
  3. C) Sebaceous gland activity increases, making the hair well lubricated during growth and turning it white or gray.
  4. D) The epidermis is dividing faster, making the hair white or gray.
  5. E) The melanocyte activity declines, making the hair white or gray.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

101) List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument.

(Module 5.11A)

  1. A) growth hormone, mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and melatonin
  2. B) ADH, oxytocin, and prolactin
  3. C) aldosterone, atrial natriuretic peptide, insulin, and glucagon
  4. D) growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones
  5. E) sex hormones, mineralocorticoids, gonadocorticoids, and calcitonin

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

102) Identify the first stage in skin repair. (Module 5.12A)

  1. A) inflammation
  2. B) migration
  3. C) proliferation
  4. D) scarring
  5. E) keloid formation

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

103) Describe granulation tissue. (Module 5.12B)

  1. A) Granulation tissue is newly formed epithelial tissue.
  2. B) Granulation tissue is a combination of blood clots, fibroblasts, and capillaries in healing tissue.
  3. C) Granulation tissue is all three layers of the integument forming, subcutaneous, dermis, and epidermis.
  4. D) Granulation tissue is a raised, thickened mass of scar tissue.
  5. E) Granulation tissue is thick, non-elastic tissue dominated by collagen fibers.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

Essay Questions

 

104) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs?

Answer:  The subcutaneous layer has a limited capillary supply and contains no vital organs; thus, the potential for tissue damage is reduced.

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

105) Explain why the rate of dehydration is greater when a person is immersed in seawater than when in fresh water.

Answer:  Salty ocean water is very hypertonic compared to bodily fluids, while fresh lake water is very hypotonic. Hence, in the sea, due to osmosis water will leave the body, accelerating the rate of dehydration. In fresh water, water will be gained.

Learning Outcome:  5.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

 

106) A new mother notices that her 6-month-old infant has a yellow-orange complexion. Fearful that the child may have jaundice, she takes him to her pediatrician. After examining the child and learning about the infant’s diet, the pediatrician declares him perfectly healthy and advises the mother to watch the child’s diet. What is likely the cause for the change in skin color?

Answer:  The infant probably has a fondness for vegetables that are high in carotene, such as sweet potatoes, squash, and carrots. It is not uncommon for parents to feed babies what they will eat best. If the child consumes large amounts of carotene, the yellow-orange pigment will be stored in the skin, producing a yellow-orange skin color.

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

107) Many medications can be administered transdermally by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why?

Answer:  Thick skin slows the rate of diffusion of the medication and thus decreases its effectiveness. In addition, excessive sweat formed on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet would make the patch fall off more readily.

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

108) In a condition known as sunstroke, the victim appears flushed, the skin is warm and dry, and the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain these observations based on what you know concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation.

Answer:  When the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the skin. The red cells in the blood give the skin a redder-than-usual color and account for the victim’s flushed appearance. The skin is dry because the sweat glands are not producing sweat (avoids further dehydration). Without evaporation cooling, not enough heat is dissipated from the skin, the skin is warm, and the body temperature rises. This situation represents positive feedback operating in a disease state.

Learning Outcome:  5.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

109) Vanessa’s 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on balmy spring days. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible cause for her feeling cold?

Answer:  Most elderly people have poor blood flow to the skin. Thus, their skin becomes cold. This triggers thermal receptors in the skin to signal cold skin. The brain interprets this as a cold body temperature.

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

110) Provide one beneficial effect of exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation.

Answer:  It stimulates synthesis of vitamin D3.

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

111) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?

Answer:  Scabs temporarily restore epidermal integrity, restricting further entry of microorganisms. They also prevent the loss of fluids, maintaining internal fluid balance, and protect the delicate granulation tissue during tissue recovery.

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

112) What are the stages of skin regeneration after injury?

Answer:  Inflammation, migration, proliferation, and scarring

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

113) Identify the major functions of the integumentary system. (Module 5.1B)

Answer:  The major functions of the integumentary system are to protect underlying tissues and organs, excrete wastes by integumentary glands, maintain body temperature, produce melanin and keratin, synthesize vitamin D3, store lipids, and detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature.

Learning Outcome:  5.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

114) Why does the skin of a light-skinned person appear red during exercise in hot weather? (Module 5.3C)

Answer:  When the skin gets warm, arriving oxygenated blood is diverted to the superficial dermis (papillary layer) to eliminate heat. The oxygenated blood imparts a reddish coloration to the light skin.

Learning Outcome:  5.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

115) Describe the three types of skin grafts. Which one is best? Why? (Module 5.5C)

Answer:  In an autograft, the patient’s undamaged skin is used as a graft source. An allograft uses skin from a donor, and a xenograft uses skin from an animal, such as a pig. Autografts are the best because they are not rejected by the patient’s immune system.

Learning Outcome:  5.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

116) Describe the four phases of the hair growth cycle. (Module 5.7C)

Answer:  Hair follicles transition between (1) an active phase of continuous hair growth; (2) regression; (3) a resting phase, when the hair becomes a club hair; and (4) reactivation of hair growth and shedding of club hair.

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

117) Why is pulling a hair painful, yet cutting a hair is not? (Module 5.7D)

Answer:  Pulling a hair is painful because its root is attached deep within the hair follicle, the base of which is surrounded by a root hair plexus consisting of sensory nerves. Cutting a hair is painless because a hair shaft contains no sensory nerves.

Learning Outcome:  5.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

118) Why do people tolerate summer heat less well and become more susceptible to heat-related illness when they become older? (Module 5.10B)

Answer:  As a person ages, the blood supply to the dermis decreases, and eccrine sweat glands become less active. Both changes make it more difficult for older people to cool themselves in hot weather.

Learning Outcome:  5.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

119) Explain the relationship between sunlight exposure and vitamin D3. (Module 5.11B)

Answer:  In the presence of UV radiation in sunlight, epidermal cells in the stratum spinosum and stratum basale convert a cholesterol-related steroid into cholecalciferol, also known as vitamin D3.

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

120) In some cultures, females must be covered from head to toe when they go outdoors. Explain why these women are at increased risk of developing bone problems later in life. (Module 5.11C)

Answer:  The hormone cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) is needed to form strong bones and teeth. When the body surface is covered, UV radiation cannot reach the skin to stimulate cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) production, so bones can become fragile.

Learning Outcome:  5.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

121) Why can skin regenerate effectively even after considerable damage? (Module 5.12C)

Answer:  Skin can regenerate effectively even after undergoing considerable damage because stem cells persist in both the epithelial and connective tissue components of skin. In response to injury, cells of the stratum basale replace epithelial cells, and mesenchymal cells replace lost dermal cells.

Learning Outcome:  5.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 13   The Brain, Cranial Nerves, and Sensory and Motor Pathways

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Which of the following is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?

  1. A) cerebrum
  2. B) diencephalon
  3. C) prosencephalon
  4. D) midbrain
  5. E) pons

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brainstem?

  1. A) medulla oblongata
  2. B) pons
  3. C) midbrain
  4. D) diencephalon
  5. E) cerebellum

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) Which of the following is improperly paired?

  1. A) telencephalon — will form the cerebrum
  2. B) diencephalon — becomes the ventricle
  3. C) mesencephalon — also called the midbrain
  4. D) metencephalon — will form the cerebellum and pons
  5. E) myelencephalon — will form the medullar oblongata

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

4) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body’s neural tissue.

  1. A) 15 percent
  2. B) 25 percent
  3. C) 68 percent
  4. D) 97 percent
  5. E) 100 percent

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

5) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains.

  1. A) larger
  2. B) smaller
  3. C) the same size
  4. D) very smooth
  5. E) more convoluted

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

6) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?

  1. A) telencephalon
  2. B) diencephalon
  3. C) midbrain
  4. D) metencephalon
  5. E) myelencephalon

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

7) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the

  1. A) hypothalamus.
  2. B) thalamus.
  3. C) brainstem.
  4. D) midbrain.
  5. E) myelencephalon.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

8) ________ are chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid.

  1. A) Lobes
  2. B) Ventricles
  3. C) Nuclei
  4. D) Fissures
  5. E) Gyri

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

9) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the

  1. A) medulla oblongata.
  2. B) pons.
  3. C) midbrain.
  4. D) thalamus.
  5. E) cerebellum.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

10) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brainstem are located in the

  1. A) medulla oblongata.
  2. B) pons.
  3. C) midbrain.
  4. D) diencephalon.
  5. E) thalamus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

11) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the

  1. A) medulla oblongata.
  2. B) pons.
  3. C) midbrain.
  4. D) diencephalon.
  5. E) cerebellum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

12) Which of the following is improperly paired?

  1. A) falx cerebri — a fold of dura mater between the cerebral hemispheres
  2. B) septum pellucidum — a thin partition that separates the two lateral ventricles
  3. C) corpus callosum — thick tract of gray matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres
  4. D) interventricular foramen – the opening between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle
  5. E) cerebral aqueduct — slender canal that connects the third and fourth ventricle

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

13) Each lateral ventricle communicates with the third ventricle through a(n)

  1. A) septum pellucidum.
  2. B) cerebral aqueduct.
  3. C) aqueduct of midbrain.
  4. D) interventricular foramen.
  5. E) medulla oblongata.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

14) The third and fourth ventricles are linked by a slender canal designated as the

  1. A) central canal.
  2. B) tentorium cerebelli.
  3. C) cerebral aqueduct.
  4. D) interventricular foramina.
  5. E) septum pellucidum.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

15) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the

  1. A) first.
  2. B) second.
  3. C) third.
  4. D) fourth.
  5. E) lateral.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

16) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the

  1. A) tentorium cerebelli.
  2. B) falx cerebelli.
  3. C) lateral aperture.
  4. D) falx cerebri.
  5. E) arachnoid granulations.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

17) The cells that cover the outer surfaces of CNS capillaries cells are the

  1. A) microglia.
  2. B) astrocytes.
  3. C) monocytes.
  4. D) leukocytes.
  5. E) lymphocytes.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

18) The dural sinuses are located in the

  1. A) paranasal cavity.
  2. B) arachnoid mater.
  3. C) pia mater.
  4. D) dural folds.
  5. E) tentorium cerebelli.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

19) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain?

  1. A) pia mater
  2. B) arachnoid mater
  3. C) dura mater
  4. D) falx cerebelli
  5. E) choroid plexus

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

20) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the

  1. A) dural sinus.
  2. B) falx cerebri.
  3. C) tentorium cerebelli.
  4. D) falx cerebelli.
  5. E) choroid plexus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

21) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows?

  1. A) subdural space
  2. B) dural sinus
  3. C) falx cerebri
  4. D) subarachnoid space
  5. E) pia mater

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

22) Cerebrospinal fluid

  1. A) is secreted by ependymal cells.
  2. B) is formed by a passive process.
  3. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.
  4. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma.
  5. E) is formed by a passive process and has almost the same composition as blood plasma.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

23) Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the

  1. A) third ventricle.
  2. B) arterial circulation.
  3. C) venous circulation.
  4. D) fourth ventricle.
  5. E) central canal.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

24) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the subarachnoid space through the

  1. A) interventricular foramina.
  2. B) cerebral aqueduct.
  3. C) dural sinus.
  4. D) lateral and median apertures.
  5. E) falx cerebri.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

25) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the

  1. A) jugular veins.
  2. B) dural drain.
  3. C) superior sagittal sinus.
  4. D) tentorium cerebelli.
  5. E) frontal sinus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

26) The neural tissue is isolated from the general circulation by the

  1. A) dura mater.
  2. B) choroid plexuses.
  3. C) arachnoid granulations.
  4. D) meninges.
  5. E) blood-brain barrier.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

27) Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.

  1. A) astrocyte
  2. B) ependymal
  3. C) neuron
  4. D) microglia
  5. E) oligodendrocyte

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) The choroid plexuses produces CSF at a rate of about

  1. A) 500 mL/day.
  2. B) 250 mL/day.
  3. C) 50 mL/day.
  4. D) 1000 mL/day.
  5. E) 150 mL/day.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

29) The layer of the meninges that closely follows every gyrus and sulcus is the

  1. A) pia mater.
  2. B) dura mater.
  3. C) arachnoid mater.
  4. D) subarachnoid space.
  5. E) subarachnoid mater.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

30) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

  1. A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
  2. B) provides buoyant support for the brain
  3. C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients
  4. D) provides ATP for impulse transmission
  5. E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

31) Which of these is mismatched with its location?

  1. A) falx cerebri; between cerebral hemispheres
  2. B) tentorium cerebelli; between cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum
  3. C) falx cerebelli; between cerebellar hemispheres
  4. D) superior sagittal sinus; runs along superior edge of the corpus callosum
  5. E) dural venous sinuses; large collecting veins located within the dural folds

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

32) All of the following help(s) to directly protect the brain except

  1. A) the blood-brain barrier.
  2. B) the bones of the skull.
  3. C) the cranial meninges.
  4. D) the CSF.
  5. E) the neural tubes.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

33) As CSF circulates, ________ between it and the interstitial fluid of the CNS is unrestricted between and across the ependymal cells.

  1. A) osmosis
  2. B) perfusion
  3. C) diffusion
  4. D) convection
  5. E) conduction

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

Figure 13-1

 

34) What is produced by the structure labeled “2”?

  1. A) cerebrospinal fluid
  2. B) neurotransmitters
  3. C) white matter
  4. D) hormones
  5. E) blood

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

35) Identify the structure labeled “3.”

  1. A) arbor vitae
  2. B) corpora quadrigemina
  3. C) cerebral aqueduct
  4. D) pons
  5. E) diencephalon

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

36) Identify the structure labeled “10.”

  1. A) arbor vitae
  2. B) central canal
  3. C) corpus callosum
  4. D) pons
  5. E) diencephalon

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

37) Identify the structure labeled “8.”

  1. A) pia mater
  2. B) dura mater
  3. C) corpus callosum
  4. D) ventricles
  5. E) arachnoid granulation

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

38) Identify the structure labeled “7.”

  1. A) dura mater
  2. B) lateral ventricle
  3. C) fourth ventricle
  4. D) subarachnoid space
  5. E) filum terminale

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

39) All of the following are properly paired except

  1. A) reticular formation – located in the medulla oblongata.
  2. B) gracile nucleus – relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus.
  3. C) ascending tracts – carry motor information to the thalamus.
  4. D) cuneate nucleus – relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus.
  5. E) inferior olivary complex – relays information from the red nucleus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

40) The cardiovascular reflexes are based in the

  1. A) cerebrum.
  2. B) midbrain.
  3. C) cerebellum.
  4. D) medulla oblongata.
  5. E) spinal cord.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

41) The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the

  1. A) reticular formation of the pons.
  2. B) left cerebral hemisphere.
  3. C) reflex centers of the medulla oblongata.
  4. D) arbor vitae of the cerebellum.
  5. E) substantia nigra of the midbrain.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

42) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the

  1. A) cerebrum.
  2. B) cerebellum.
  3. C) diencephalon.
  4. D) medulla oblongata.
  5. E) heart.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

43) ________ is the term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated.

  1. A) Ascending
  2. B) Descending
  3. C) Decussation
  4. D) Relaying
  5. E) Coordinating

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

44) Which of the following is not found in the medulla oblongata?

  1. A) reticular formation.
  2. B) respiratory rhythmicity centers.
  3. C) solitary nucleus.
  4. D) nuclei for CN V, VI, and VII.
  5. E) olivary nucleus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

45) The pons contains all of the following structures except the

  1. A) sensory and motor nuclei for cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII.
  2. B) nuclei concerned with the control of respiration.
  3. C) tracts that link the cerebellum with the brainstem.
  4. D) transverse fibers that link the pons with the cerebellum.
  5. E) pyramids that contain motor tracts originating in the cerebral cortex.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

46) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the

  1. A) cortex.
  2. B) medulla.
  3. C) fourth ventricle.
  4. D) vermis.
  5. E) arbor vitae.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

47) The shallow folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called

  1. A) folia.
  2. B) fissures.
  3. C) gyri.
  4. D) sulci.
  5. E) arbor vitae.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

48) A cortex is found on the surface of both the

  1. A) cerebral hemispheres and pons.
  2. B) pons and cerebellum.
  3. C) cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
  4. D) cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres.
  5. E) pons and medullar oblongata.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

49) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the

  1. A) cerebrum.
  2. B) midbrain.
  3. C) cerebellum.
  4. D) pons.
  5. E) medulla oblongata.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

50) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except

  1. A) tactile sensations.
  2. B) visual information.
  3. C) equilibrium-related sensations.
  4. D) gustatory information.
  5. E) proprioceptor information.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

51) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a worm-shaped band of cortex called the

  1. A) cerebellar peduncles.
  2. B) arbor vitae.
  3. C) folia.
  4. D) vermis.
  5. E) pyramid.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

52) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the

  1. A) cerebellar peduncles.
  2. B) arbor vitae.
  3. C) folia.
  4. D) vermis.
  5. E) pyramid.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

53) The tract that links the cerebellum with the pons is the

  1. A) superior cerebellar peduncle.
  2. B) inferior cerebellar peduncle.
  3. C) middle cerebellar peduncle.
  4. D) longitudinal fibers.
  5. E) obverse fibers.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

54) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the

  1. A) pons.
  2. B) medulla.
  3. C) cerebral cortex.
  4. D) cerebellar cortex.
  5. E) arbor vitae.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

55) The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the

  1. A) substantia nigra.
  2. B) red nuclei.
  3. C) cerebral peduncles.
  4. D) superior colliculi.
  5. E) inferior colliculi.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

56) The regions of the midbrain that issue subconscious motor commands that affect upper limb position and background muscle tone are the

  1. A) tecta.
  2. B) red nuclei.
  3. C) cerebral peduncles.
  4. D) superior colliculi.
  5. E) inferior colliculi.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

57) Descending nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the midbrain are the

  1. A) tegmenta.
  2. B) corpora quadrigemina.
  3. C) cerebral peduncles.
  4. D) superior colliculi.
  5. E) inferior colliculi.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

58) Stimulation of the reticular formation results in

  1. A) increased consciousness.
  2. B) sleep.
  3. C) coma.
  4. D) decreased cerebral function.
  5. E) All of the above.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

59) The tectum of the midbrain contains the

  1. A) substantia nigra.
  2. B) red nuclei.
  3. C) superior and inferior colliculi.
  4. D) cerebral peduncles.
  5. E) basal ganglia.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

60) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the midbrain. Which nuclei accomplish this?

  1. A) substantia nigra
  2. B) red nuclei
  3. C) tectum
  4. D) superior colliculi
  5. E) inferior colliculi

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

61) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the

  1. A) nucleus gracilis.
  2. B) nucleus cuneatus.
  3. C) motor cortex.
  4. D) substantia nigra.
  5. E) red nucleus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

62) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with

  1. A) control of muscle tone.
  2. B) regulation of body temperature.
  3. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
  4. D) subconscious control of skeletal muscles of the upper limbs.
  5. E) control of breathing.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

63) Damage to the superior colliculi would interfere with the reflex ability to

  1. A) express rage.
  2. B) voluntarily move the arm.
  3. C) react to a bright light.
  4. D) react to loud noises.
  5. E) maintain proper posture.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

64) The midbrain contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention.

  1. A) cardiovascular control center
  2. B) reticular activating system
  3. C) respiratory rhythmicity center
  4. D) tectum
  5. E) tegmentum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

65) The superior colliculi receive visual input from the lateral geniculate nuclei via the

  1. A) substantia nigra.
  2. B) red nuclei.
  3. C) cerebral peduncles.
  4. D) optic tract.
  5. E) inferior colliculi.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

66) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.

  1. A) thalamus
  2. B) infundibulum
  3. C) brain stem
  4. D) mammillary body
  5. E) anterior commissure

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

67) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems.

  1. A) cerebellum
  2. B) medulla oblongata
  3. C) cerebrum
  4. D) pons
  5. E) hypothalamus

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

68) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex.

  1. A) cerebrum
  2. B) thalamus
  3. C) pons
  4. D) medulla oblongata
  5. E) cerebellum

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

69) Which of the following is a property of the mammillary bodies?

  1. A) controls feeding reflexes like swallowing and licking
  2. B) responsible for auditory reflexes
  3. C) located posterior to the pons
  4. D) connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland
  5. E) secretes melatonin

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

70) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus?

  1. A) secretes cerebrospinal fluid
  2. B) secretes melatonin
  3. C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
  4. D) stores memories
  5. E) regulates food intake

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

71) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus

  1. A) are part of the limbic system.
  2. B) secrete pituitary hormones.
  3. C) secrete melatonin.
  4. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
  5. E) control feeding reflexes like licking and swallowing.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) The medial nuclei of the thalamus

  1. A) are part of the limbic system.
  2. B) integrate sensory information for relay to the frontal lobes.
  3. C) produce the hormone oxytocin.
  4. D) process visual information.
  5. E) receive sensory information from the cerebellum.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

73) The ventral nuclei of the thalamus perform all of the following functions except

  1. A) relaying input from basal ganglia to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
  2. B) relaying input from cerebellum to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
  3. C) relaying general sensory input to the primary sensory cortex.
  4. D) projecting visual and auditory information to the visual and auditory cortices.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

74) The posterior nuclei of the thalamus include all of the following areas except

  1. A) pulvinar.
  2. B) lateral geniculate.
  3. C) medial geniculate.
  4. D) mammillary bodies.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

75) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the

  1. A) pulvinar nuclei.
  2. B) lateral geniculate nuclei.
  3. C) medial geniculate nuclei.
  4. D) preoptic area.
  5. E) suprachiasmatic nuclei.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

76) The ________ relay(s) auditory information to the auditory cortex.

  1. A) pulvinar nuclei
  2. B) lateral geniculate nuclei
  3. C) medial geniculate nuclei
  4. D) preoptic area
  5. E) suprachiasmatic nuclei

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

77) Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. A) pulvinar nuclei — integrates sensory information for projection to the association areas of the cerebral cortex
  2. B) lateral geniculate nuclei — projects visual information to primary visual cortex
  3. C) medial geniculate nuclei — projects auditory information to primary auditory cortex
  4. D) preoptic area — regulates body temperature
  5. E) suprachiasmatic nuclei — secretes ADH

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

78) All of the following are a function of the hypothalamus except

  1. A) coordinating day-night cycles of activity/inactivity.
  2. B) controlling autonomic centers.
  3. C) regulating body temperature.
  4. D) secreting hormones.
  5. E) projecting visual information to the visual cortex.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

79) Which of the following hypothalamic functions is incorrect?

  1. A) regulate lactation — preoptic region
  2. B) secrete oxytocin — paraventricular nucleus
  3. C) control feeding reflexes — mammillary bodies
  4. D) control heart rate and blood pressure — autonomic centers
  5. E) secrete antidiuretic hormone — supra-optic nucleus

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

80) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?

  1. A) an intense thirst
  2. B) an uncontrolled sex drive
  3. C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature
  4. D) an insatiable appetite
  5. E) production of a large volume of urine

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

81) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located?

  1. A) prefrontal cortex
  2. B) postcentral gyrus
  3. C) basal nuclei
  4. D) hypothalamus
  5. E) reticular formation

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

82) Which of the following is not a component of the limbic system?

  1. A) amygdaloid body
  2. B) cingulate gyrus
  3. C) globus pallidus
  4. D) hippocampus
  5. E) fornix

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

83) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?

  1. A) contains cerebral and diencephalic components
  2. B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather
  3. C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon
  4. D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brainstem
  5. E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

84) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.

  1. A) amygdaloid body
  2. B) cingulate gyrus
  3. C) mammillary bodies
  4. D) hippocampus
  5. E) fornix

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

85) A tract of white matter found in the limbic system that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the

  1. A) amygdaloid body.
  2. B) cingulate gyrus.
  3. C) mammillary bodies.
  4. D) hippocampus.
  5. E) fornix.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

86) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged?

  1. A) the prefrontal lobe
  2. B) the general interpretive area
  3. C) the limbic system
  4. D) the thalamus
  5. E) the putamen

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

87) Which of the following is not one of the basal nuclei?

  1. A) caudate nucleus
  2. B) globus pallidus
  3. C) putamen
  4. D) hippocampus
  5. E) lentiform nucleus

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

88) The ________ is located at the tip of the tail of the caudate nucleus.

  1. A) amygdaloid body
  2. B) thalamus
  3. C) lentiform nucleus
  4. D) globus pallidus
  5. E) putamen

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

89) The putamen and globus pallidus are considered subdivisions of the

  1. A) caudate nucleus.
  2. B) claustrum.
  3. C) lentiform nucleus.
  4. D) corpus striatum.
  5. E) limbic system.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

90) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the

  1. A) anterior commissures.
  2. B) basal nuclei.
  3. C) motor association areas.
  4. D) visual cortex.
  5. E) auditory cortex.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) The basal nuclei

  1. A) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity.
  2. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
  3. C) coordinate sensory information.
  4. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
  5. E) control respiration and blood pressure.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

92) The basal nuclei

  1. A) initiate conscious motor activity.
  2. B) activate spinal reflexes.
  3. C) adjust and refine learned motor activities.
  4. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons.
  5. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensory input.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

93) Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to

  1. A) increased muscle tone.
  2. B) loss of consciousness.
  3. C) inability to sense pain.
  4. D) sexual arousal.
  5. E) involuntary speech production.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

94) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are

  1. A) fissures.
  2. B) sinuses.
  3. C) lobes.
  4. D) sulci.
  5. E) gyri.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

95) The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the

  1. A) parietal lobe.
  2. B) temporal lobe.
  3. C) frontal lobe.
  4. D) occipital lobe.
  5. E) insula.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

96) The superior border of the temporal lobe is marked by the

  1. A) insula.
  2. B) longitudinal fissure.
  3. C) central sulcus.
  4. D) lateral sulcus.
  5. E) parieto-occipital sulcus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

97) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is the

  1. A) parietal lobe.
  2. B) temporal lobe.
  3. C) frontal lobe.
  4. D) occipital lobe.
  5. E) parietal lobe and the frontal lobe.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

98) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the

  1. A) parietal lobe.
  2. B) temporal lobe.
  3. C) frontal lobe.
  4. D) occipital lobe.
  5. E) insula.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

99) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the

  1. A) insula.
  2. B) precentral gyrus.
  3. C) postcentral gyrus.
  4. D) arcuate gyrus.
  5. E) corpus callosum.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

100) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.

  1. A) primary sensory
  2. B) primary motor
  3. C) visual
  4. D) olfactory
  5. E) auditory

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

101) The visual cortex is located in the

  1. A) frontal lobe.
  2. B) parietal lobe.
  3. C) temporal lobe.
  4. D) occipital lobe.
  5. E) insula.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

102) The auditory cortex is located in the

  1. A) frontal lobe.
  2. B) parietal lobe.
  3. C) temporal lobe.
  4. D) occipital lobe.
  5. E) insula.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

103) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas.

  1. A) commissural
  2. B) sensory
  3. C) association
  4. D) somesthetic
  5. E) processing

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

104) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the

  1. A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
  2. B) occipital association cortex.
  3. C) reticular formation.
  4. D) temporal lobe.
  5. E) cerebral ganglia.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

105) The sense of taste projects to the gustatory cortex located in the

  1. A) insula.
  2. B) temporal lobe.
  3. C) frontal lobe.
  4. D) prefrontal cortex.
  5. E) occipital lobe.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

106) Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include all of the following except

  1. A) speech.
  2. B) writing.
  3. C) mathematical computation.
  4. D) understanding spatial relationships.
  5. E) vision.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

107) The highest levels of information processing occur in the

  1. A) cerebrum.
  2. B) diencephalon.
  3. C) cerebellum.
  4. D) medulla oblongata.
  5. E) corpus callosum.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

108) Damage to the somatic motor association area of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to

  1. A) understand written words.
  2. B) understand spoken words.
  3. C) understand visual images.
  4. D) play the piano.
  5. E) sense the texture of velvet.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

109) The general interpretive area

  1. A) is the speech center of the brain.
  2. B) is responsible for predicting future consequences.
  3. C) is the site of long-term memory storage.
  4. D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard.
  5. E) may be damaged by even a small stroke.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

110) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to

  1. A) the prefrontal cortex.
  2. B) the general interpretive area.
  3. C) Broca’s area.
  4. D) Wernicke’s area.
  5. E) the temporal lobe.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

111) A person with a damaged visual association area may be

  1. A) unable to see rows of letters.
  2. B) declared legally blind.
  3. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
  4. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.
  5. E) unable to understand spoken words.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

112) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech.

  1. A) Frontal
  2. B) Integrative
  3. C) Communication
  4. D) Terminal
  5. E) Vocal

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

113) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become

  1. A) more complex.
  2. B) simpler.
  3. C) better understood.
  4. D) less crucial to visceral functions.
  5. E) both more complex and less crucial to visceral functions.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

114) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.

  1. A) right frontal
  2. B) left frontal
  3. C) right temporal
  4. D) left temporal
  5. E) occipital

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

115) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his

  1. A) vestibulocochlear nerve.
  2. B) Wernicke’s area.
  3. C) speech center.
  4. D) prefrontal lobe.
  5. E) temporal lobe.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

116) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to

  1. A) speak.
  2. B) move her left arm.
  3. C) analyze by touch an object in her right hand.
  4. D) recognize written words.
  5. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

117) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the

  1. A) prefrontal cortex.
  2. B) postcentral gyrus.
  3. C) Wernicke’s area.
  4. D) Broca’s area.
  5. E) visual cortex.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

118) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in the

  1. A) left cerebellar hemisphere.
  2. B) left cerebral hemisphere.
  3. C) right cerebellar hemisphere.
  4. D) right cerebral hemisphere.
  5. E) thalamus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

119) The area of the brain that performs spatial visualization and analyzing is the

  1. A) left cerebellar hemisphere.
  2. B) left cerebral hemisphere.
  3. C) right cerebellar hemisphere.
  4. D) right cerebral hemisphere.
  5. E) thalamus.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

120) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called

  1. A) lobes.
  2. B) cortices.
  3. C) hemispheres.
  4. D) association areas.
  5. E) primary motor areas.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

121) If the corpus callosum is surgically cut, which of the following is not true?

  1. A) The two cerebral hemispheres operate independently.
  2. B) Objects viewed by the left eye can be verbally identified.
  3. C) Objects touched by the left hand could be recognized but not verbally identified.
  4. D) Conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side.
  5. E) Faces seen by the left eye cannot be identified.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

122) The ________ connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same hemisphere.

  1. A) arcuate fibers
  2. B) longitudinal fasciculi
  3. C) commissural fibers
  4. D) fibers of the corpus callosum
  5. E) fibers of the anterior commissure

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

123) The corpus callosum is composed of

  1. A) arcuate fibers.
  2. B) longitudinal fasciculi.
  3. C) association fibers.
  4. D) commissural fibers.
  5. E) projection fibers.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

124) White matter fibers that pass from one gyrus to the adjacent gyrus are called

  1. A) arcuate fibers.
  2. B) longitudinal fasciculi.
  3. C) association fibers.
  4. D) commissural fibers.
  5. E) projection fibers.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

125) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

  1. A) longitudinal fissure.
  2. B) central sulcus.
  3. C) transverse fissure.
  4. D) parieto-occipital sulcus.
  5. E) postcentral sulcus.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

126) The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of

  1. A) arcuate fibers.
  2. B) longitudinal fasciculi.
  3. C) association fibers.
  4. D) commissural fibers.
  5. E) projection fibers.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

127) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain’s electrical activity over a period of time.

  1. A) electrocardiogram
  2. B) electroencephalogram
  3. C) X-ray
  4. D) MRI
  5. E) CT scan

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

128) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior.

  1. A) Dyslexia
  2. B) Apraxia
  3. C) Aphasia
  4. D) Parkinson’s disease
  5. E) A seizure

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

129) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 12
  4. D) 22
  5. E) 31

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

130) The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are

  1. A) I, II, and III.
  2. B) III, IV, and VI.
  3. C) II, III, and IV.
  4. D) II and VI.
  5. E) III and V.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

131) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the

  1. A) abducens.
  2. B) facial.
  3. C) vagus.
  4. D) trigeminal.
  5. E) glossopharyngeal.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

132) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve.

  1. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal
  2. B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal
  3. C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal
  4. D) glossopharyngeal
  5. E) hypoglossal

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

133) Gustatory information reaches the brain by way of cranial nerve

  1. A) I.
  2. B) II.
  3. C) X.
  4. D) IV.
  5. E) IX.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

134) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)?

  1. A) vagus
  2. B) facial
  3. C) glossopharyngeal
  4. D) trochlear
  5. E) vagus and glossopharyngeal

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

135) The Roman numeral V indicates the ________ nerve.

  1. A) trigeminal
  2. B) trochlear
  3. C) abduces
  4. D) oculomotor
  5. E) vestibulocochlear

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

136) The Roman numeral VIII indicates the ________ nerve.

  1. A) trigeminal
  2. B) trochlear
  3. C) abducens
  4. D) oculomotor
  5. E) vestibulocochlear

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

137) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the

  1. A) medulla.
  2. B) thalamus.
  3. C) cerebral cortex.
  4. D) olfactory bulb.
  5. E) olfactory tract.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

Figure 13-2

 

138) What is the function of the structure labeled “7”?

  1. A) vision
  2. B) olfaction
  3. C) taste
  4. D) auditory
  5. E) eye movement

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

139) What is the function of the nerve labeled “10”?

  1. A) vision
  2. B) olfaction
  3. C) taste
  4. D) auditory
  5. E) eye movement

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

140) Identify the nerve labeled “11.”

  1. A) oculomotor
  2. B) trigeminal
  3. C) trochlear
  4. D) abducens
  5. E) optic

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

141) What is the function of the nerve labeled “5”?

  1. A) movement of the tongue
  2. B) facial expression
  3. C) vision
  4. D) taste
  5. E) visceral sensation and motor control

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

142) What is the function of the nerve labeled “4”?

  1. A) vision
  2. B) olfaction
  3. C) taste
  4. D) hearing and balance
  5. E) eye movement

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

143) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.

  1. A) optic
  2. B) oculomotor
  3. C) trochlear
  4. D) olfactory
  5. E) abducens

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

144) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?

  1. A) glossopharyngeal
  2. B) hypoglossal
  3. C) vagus
  4. D) spinal accessory
  5. E) trigeminal

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

145) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve?

  1. A) loss of the sense of taste
  2. B) tooth pain
  3. C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
  4. D) lack of facial expression
  5. E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

146) Damage to the ________ nerve would result in near paralysis of the eye.

  1. A) optic
  2. B) oculomotor
  3. C) trochlear
  4. D) olfactory
  5. E) abducens

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

147) Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it “wanders,” that is, innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen?

  1. A) VIII
  2. B) IX
  3. C) X
  4. D) XI
  5. E) XII

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

148) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb?

  1. A) trochlear
  2. B) trigeminal
  3. C) facial
  4. D) glossopharyngeal
  5. E) hypoglossal

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

149) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to

  1. A) smell his food.
  2. B) smile.
  3. C) blink his eyes.
  4. D) nod his head.
  5. E) see.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

150) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following except

  1. A) temperature.
  2. B) taste.
  3. C) touch.
  4. D) vibration.
  5. E) pain.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

151) Which of the following is not one of the special senses?

  1. A) hearing
  2. B) smell
  3. C) taste
  4. D) balance
  5. E) touch

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

152) The general senses

  1. A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.
  2. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs.
  3. C) are localized to specific areas of the body.
  4. D) cannot generate action potentials.
  5. E) are limited to the skin.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

153) As the size of the receptor field gets smaller, the ability to localize a specific stimulus

  1. A) improves.
  2. B) diminishes.
  3. C) is not affected.
  4. D) cannot be determined.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

154) Sensory pathways can receive information by all of the following except

  1. A) a stimulus altering the permeability of a receptor membrane.
  2. B) a change in the flow of ions across the sensory membrane.
  3. C) a projection over a labeled line.
  4. D) conversion of a stimulus to a change in membrane potential.
  5. E) voluntary response.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

155) The information that is passed from a sensory receptor to the central nervous system is called a

  1. A) depolarization of a receptor.
  2. B) perception
  3. C) transducer.
  4. D) motor pathway.
  5. E) sensation.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

156) The ________ is the area monitored by a single receptor cell.

  1. A) stimulus
  2. B) sensation
  3. C) perception
  4. D) labeled line
  5. E) receptive field

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

157) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a

  1. A) receptor.
  2. B) receptive field.
  3. C) labeled line.
  4. D) sensation.
  5. E) transduction.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

158) ________ is a conscious awareness of a sensation.

  1. A) Association
  2. B) Perception
  3. C) Integration
  4. D) Reception
  5. E) Stimulation

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

159) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as

  1. A) a labeled line.
  2. B) perception.
  3. C) an action potential.
  4. D) transduction.
  5. E) stimulation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

160) The CNS interprets the ________ of stimulus entirely on the basis of the labeled line over which it arrives.

  1. A) duration
  2. B) intensity
  3. C) location
  4. D) type
  5. E) adaptation

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

161) Only about ________ percent of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex and our awareness.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 10
  3. C) 25
  4. D) 50
  5. E) 95

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

162) In order for a sensation to become a perception,

  1. A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex.
  2. B) the individual must vocalize about it.
  3. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers.
  4. D) the other senses must be silent.
  5. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

163) A labeled line is a(n)

  1. A) translation of complex sensory information.
  2. B) link between a receptor and the CNS processing center.
  3. C) reduction in sensitivity.
  4. D) stimulation that produces action potentials.
  5. E) adjustment for sensitivity adaptation.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

164) Our perception of our environment is imperfect for all of the following reasons except that

  1. A) humans lack receptors for every possible stimulus.
  2. B) receptors respond by producing action potentials.
  3. C) not all sensations lead to a perception.
  4. D) abnormal receptor function can produce sensations that have no basis in fact.
  5. E) our receptors have limited sensitivity.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

165) All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except

  1. A) the structure of the receptor cell.
  2. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane.
  3. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor.
  4. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli.
  5. E) density of the receptors.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

166) Central adaptation refers to

  1. A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated.
  2. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors.
  3. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.
  4. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus.
  5. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

167) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors.

  1. A) phasic
  2. B) tonic

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

168) Sensory neurons that are normally inactive but can become active for a short time are called ________.

  1. A) phasic receptors
  2. B) tonic receptors
  3. C) myelinated
  4. D) proprioceptors
  5. E) nociceptors

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

169) ________ is a reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.

  1. A) Sensation
  2. B) Reception
  3. C) Adaptation
  4. D) Transduction
  5. E) Integration

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

170) Which of the following is sometimes called “prickling pain”?

  1. A) mechanical damage
  2. B) chemicals
  3. C) extremes of temperature
  4. D) fast pain
  5. E) both chemicals and fast pain

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

171) A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a

  1. A) tactile receptor.
  2. B) chemoreceptor.
  3. C) nociceptor.
  4. D) thermoreceptor.
  5. E) light receptor.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

172) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called

  1. A) nociceptors.
  2. B) chemoreceptors.
  3. C) baroreceptors.
  4. D) proprioceptors.
  5. E) thermoreceptors.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

173) Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called

  1. A) nociceptors.
  2. B) baroreceptors.
  3. C) chemoreceptors.
  4. D) proprioceptors.
  5. E) thermoreceptors.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

174) A receptor that responds to chemicals dissolved in solution is a

  1. A) tactile receptor.
  2. B) chemoreceptor.
  3. C) nociceptor.
  4. D) thermoreceptor.
  5. E) light receptor.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

175) Which receptor(s) always send(s) a signal, but the rate of action potentials changes as a result of stimulation?

  1. A) phasic
  2. B) tonic
  3. C) both phasic and tonic

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

176) ________ receptors are ________ times more numerous than ________ receptors.

  1. A) Warm; three or four; cold
  2. B) Thermoreceptors; three or four; cold
  3. C) Cold; three or four; warm
  4. D) Thermoreceptors; three or four; temperature
  5. E) Cold; ten; warm

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

177) Examples of sensory modalities include all of the following except

  1. A) touch.
  2. B) warmth.
  3. C) smell.
  4. D) vibration.
  5. E) creativity.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

178) Which of the following is not a property of thermoreceptors?

  1. A) They are free nerve endings.
  2. B) Warm receptors outnumber cold receptors.
  3. C) They are found in skeletal muscle.
  4. D) They are found in the hypothalamus.
  5. E) Cold receptors outnumber warm receptors.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

179) Mechanoreceptors might detect all of the following sensations except

  1. A) pressure.
  2. B) touch.
  3. C) vibration.
  4. D) muscle length.
  5. E) muscle pain.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

180) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense.

  1. A) smell
  2. B) sight
  3. C) balance
  4. D) cold
  5. E) hearing

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

181) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to

  1. A) receptor specificity.
  2. B) accessory cells.
  3. C) the fact that they are interoceptors.
  4. D) receptor potentials.
  5. E) both accessory cells and the fact that they are interoceptors.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

182) Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________.

  1. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
  2. B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
  3. C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
  4. D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
  5. E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

183) Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS.

  1. A) decreases
  2. B) increases
  3. C) stabilizes
  4. D) neutralizes

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

184) Tickle is to ________ as ache is to ________.

  1. A) pressure; heat
  2. B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
  3. C) touch; pain
  4. D) stretch; temperature
  5. E) thermoreceptors; nociceptors

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

185) ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.

  1. A) Chemoreceptors
  2. B) Nociceptors
  3. C) Baroreceptors
  4. D) Proprioceptors
  5. E) Photoreceptors

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

186) All of the following are true of a prickling pain sensation except that they

  1. A) are carried by type A fibers.
  2. B) reach the CNS quickly.
  3. C) cannot be localized to a small area.
  4. D) receive conscious attention.
  5. E) often trigger somatic reflexes.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

187) Sensations of burning or aching pain

  1. A) are carried by type A fibers.
  2. B) reach the CNS quickly.
  3. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus.
  4. D) are well localized.
  5. E) are fast adapting.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

188) Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________.

  1. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
  2. B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
  3. C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
  4. D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
  5. E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  13.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini)

Chapter 27   Development and Inheritance

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The gradual modification of anatomical structures during the period from conception to maturity is

  1. A) development.
  2. B) differentiation.
  3. C) embryogenesis.
  4. D) capacitation.
  5. E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

2) Each of the following statements concerning development is true except

  1. A) embryonic development includes the events that occur in the first 2 months.
  2. B) fetal development occurs from the 9th week until birth.
  3. C) the first trimester is when the fetus first looks distinctively human.
  4. D) postnatal development begins at birth.
  5. E) organ development is complete by the end of the 6th month.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

3) ________ is the time spent in growing within the uterus.

  1. A) Gastrulation
  2. B) Gestation
  3. C) Development
  4. D) Pregnancy
  5. E) Embryonization

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

4) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed

  1. A) within a few seconds.
  2. B) within the hour.
  3. C) about 6 hours later.
  4. D) in 12 hours.
  5. E) more than a day later.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

5) During amphimixis,

  1. A) sperm become capacitated.
  2. B) the zygote is formed with 46 chromosomes.
  3. C) the male and female pronuclei fuse.
  4. D) meiosis occurs.
  5. E) gametes are formed.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

6) Which of the following is not part of fertilization?

  1. A) release of acrosomal enzymes
  2. B) oocyte activation
  3. C) completion of meiosis II
  4. D) amphimixis
  5. E) completion of meiosis I

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

7) The individual cells produced by cleavage are called

  1. A) embryos.
  2. B) blastomeres.
  3. C) blastocytes.
  4. D) blastocysts.
  5. E) zygotes.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

8) Contact of a sperm with the oocyte membrane does not cause

  1. A) oocyte activation.
  2. B) completion of the second meiosis.
  3. C) formation of the second polar body.
  4. D) membrane fusion.
  5. E) a decrease in calcium released from the oocyte.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

9) Fertilization is complete when which of the follow occurs?

  1. A) oocyte activation
  2. B) pronucleus formation
  3. C) spindle formation
  4. D) amphimixis and cleavage
  5. E) formation of blastomeres

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

10) Completion of cytokinesis does not lead to

  1. A) production of two blastomeres.
  2. B) division of the cytoplasm into two portions.
  3. C) initiation of interphase.
  4. D) completion of cleavage.
  5. E) formation of a polar body.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

11) The almost identical cells produced by cleavage divisions are called

  1. A) morulas.
  2. B) blastomeres.
  3. C) trophoblasts.
  4. D) blastocoeles.
  5. E) ova.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

12) Under the influence of the trophoblast, maternal blood vessels in the endometrium

  1. A) disappear.
  2. B) attach to the inner cell mass.
  3. C) break down and form lacunae.
  4. D) form a capillary network in the trophoblast.
  5. E) increase in size and penetrate the blastocyst.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

13) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the

  1. A) blastocoele.
  2. B) lacunae.
  3. C) amniotic cavity.
  4. D) chorion.
  5. E) allantois.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

14) The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called

  1. A) cleavage.
  2. B) implantation.
  3. C) placentation.
  4. D) embryogenesis.
  5. E) blastulation.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

15) Attachment to and penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as

  1. A) cleavage.
  2. B) implantation.
  3. C) placentation.
  4. D) embryogenesis.
  5. E) fertilization.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

16) After 3 days, a pre-embryo becomes a solid ball of cells known as a

  1. A) chorion.
  2. B) blastomere.
  3. C) lacuna.
  4. D) morula.
  5. E) blastocyst.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

17) A blastocyst is a(n)

  1. A) extra-embryonic membrane.
  2. B) solid ball of cells.
  3. C) hollow ball of cells.
  4. D) portion of the placenta.
  5. E) origin of the urinary bladder.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

18) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will

  1. A) form the placenta.
  2. B) form the morula.
  3. C) form the embryo.
  4. D) form blood vessels of the placenta.
  5. E) provide nutrients for early growth.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

19) During implantation, the

  1. A) syncytial trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium.
  2. B) inner cell mass begins to form the placenta.
  3. C) maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst.
  4. D) entire trophoblast becomes syncytial.
  5. E) inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

Figure 27-1

 

20) Identify the structures labeled “4.”

  1. A) zygotic twins
  2. B) morula
  3. C) blastomere
  4. D) trophoblast
  5. E) polar bodies

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

21) Identify the stage labeled “12.”

  1. A) zygote
  2. B) morula
  3. C) blastocyst
  4. D) trophoblast
  5. E) cytotrophoblast

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

22) Identify the stage labeled “8.”

  1. A) zygote
  2. B) early morula
  3. C) blastomere
  4. D) trophoblast
  5. E) advanced morula

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

23) What is the developmental fate of “9?”

  1. A) forms the embryo
  2. B) forms the trophoblast
  3. C) forms the chorion
  4. D) forms the placenta
  5. E) dissolves completely

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

24) Which of the following descriptors regarding the trophoblast is false?

  1. A) spreads into the endometrium
  2. B) absorbs nutrients released by degenerating endometrial glands
  3. C) has both a syncytial and cellular component
  4. D) is derived from the inner cell mass
  5. E) causes maternal blood vessels to break down

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

25) Identify what process is occurring at the structure labeled “6.”

  1. A) fertilization
  2. B) ovulation
  3. C) cleavage
  4. D) migration
  5. E) gastrulation

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

26) During gastrulation,

  1. A) the blastomeres fuse.
  2. B) the placenta penetrates the endometrium.
  3. C) three germ layers are formed.
  4. D) blastomeres form.
  5. E) the neural tube closes.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

27) The region known as the primitive streak is the site of

  1. A) migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm.
  2. B) endoderm formation.
  3. C) ectoderm formation.
  4. D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm.
  5. E) amnion formation.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

28) The ectoderm forms

  1. A) muscle.
  2. B) blood.
  3. C) neural tissues.
  4. D) the lining of the stomach and small intestine.
  5. E) the urinary system.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

29) The mesoderm forms

  1. A) muscle.
  2. B) epidermis.
  3. C) the brain.
  4. D) the lining of the digestive tract.
  5. E) respiratory epithelium.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

30) The endoderm forms

  1. A) muscle.
  2. B) blood.
  3. C) neural tissue.
  4. D) skin.
  5. E) the urinary bladder.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

31) The trophoblast has many of the characteristics of ________ cells.

  1. A) cardiac
  2. B) cancer
  3. C) infectious
  4. D) smooth muscle
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

32) By day 12 of embryonic development, mesoderm begins to form through

  1. A) embryogenesis.
  2. B) gastrulation.
  3. C) mitosis.
  4. D) meiosis.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

33) The oval, three-layered sheet produced by gastrulation is called the

  1. A) embryo.
  2. B) ectoderm.
  3. C) inner cell mass.
  4. D) embryonic disc.
  5. E) yolk sac.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

34) The mesoderm and the cytotrophoblast combine to form the

  1. A) amnion.
  2. B) amniotic sac.
  3. C) chorion.
  4. D) allantois.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

35) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms blood cells is the

  1. A) yolk sac.
  2. B) amnion.
  3. C) allantois.
  4. D) chorion.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

36) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the

  1. A) yolk sac.
  2. B) amnion.
  3. C) allantois.
  4. D) All of the answers are correct.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

37) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the

  1. A) yolk sac.
  2. B) amnion.
  3. C) allantois.
  4. D) chorion.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

38) All of the following are true of the allantois except

  1. A) it derives partly from endoderm.
  2. B) it projects into the umbilical stalk.
  3. C) it derives partly from mesoderm.
  4. D) part will develop as the urinary bladder.
  5. E) it acts as the fetal bone marrow.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

39) Which of the following is not one of the extra-embryonic membranes?

  1. A) yolk sac
  2. B) amnion
  3. C) allantois
  4. D) chorion
  5. E) umbilical cord

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

40) Endoderm + mesoderm = which extra-embryonic membrane(s)?

  1. A) chorion
  2. B) amnion
  3. C) allantois
  4. D) yolk sac
  5. E) both yolk sac and allantois

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

Figure 27-2

 

41) Identify the structure labeled “4.”

  1. A) amnion
  2. B) chorion
  3. C) myometrium
  4. D) placenta
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

42) Identify the structure labeled “7.”

  1. A) amnion
  2. B) chorion
  3. C) myometrium
  4. D) placenta
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

43) Identify the structure labeled “3.”

  1. A) umbilical cord
  2. B) placenta
  3. C) myometrium
  4. D) amniotic cavity
  5. E) yolk sac

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

44) Identify the structure labeled “6.”

  1. A) umbilical cord
  2. B) placenta
  3. C) chorion
  4. D) amnion
  5. E) myometrium

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

45) Identify the structure labeled “5.”

  1. A) amniotic cavity
  2. B) chorion
  3. C) amnion
  4. D) placenta
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

46) The ________ is formed by a portion of the allantois, blood vessels, and remnants of the yolk sac.

  1. A) amnion
  2. B) body stalk
  3. C) chorion
  4. D) umbilical cord
  5. E) placenta

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

47) The embryonic heart starts beating as blood begins to flow through chorionic vessels at approximately ________ of development.

  1. A) day 3
  2. B) day 12
  3. C) week 2
  4. D) week 3
  5. E) the second trimester

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

48) Which of the following does not occur during the first trimester?

  1. A) cleavage
  2. B) implantation
  3. C) separation of blastomeres to form monozygotic twins
  4. D) gastrulation
  5. E) organs become functional

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.6, 27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

49) The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is

  1. A) oxytocin.
  2. B) progesterone.
  3. C) human chorionic gonadotropin.
  4. D) human placental lactogen.
  5. E) relaxin.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

50) The placenta is not a source of which of the following hormones?

  1. A) hCG
  2. B) relaxin
  3. C) placental lactogen
  4. D) progesterone
  5. E) prolactin

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

51) Deoxygenated blood is carried to the placenta by the

  1. A) umbilical vein.
  2. B) umbilical arteries.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

52) Oxygenated blood is carried away from the placenta by the

  1. A) umbilical vein.
  2. B) umbilical arteries.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

53) The period of gestation when the rudiments of all major organ systems are established is the ________ trimester.

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

54) The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the ________ trimester.

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

55) Embryonic and early fetal development occurs in the ________ trimester.

  1. A) first
  2. B) second
  3. C) third

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

56) All of the following occur during pregnancy except

  1. A) a woman’s respiratory rate and tidal volume increase.
  2. B) maternal blood volume increases.
  3. C) maternal nutrient requirements increase.
  4. D) a woman’s glomerular filtration rate increases.
  5. E) a woman’s bladder capacity increases.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

57) By the end of gestation, which of the following has not occurred?

  1. A) Maternal blood volume has increased 50%.
  2. B) Maternal nutritional requirements has increased 30%.
  3. C) The uterus has increased in size by 10 fold.
  4. D) The kidney’s GFR has increased 2 fold.
  5. E) The bladder size has been reduced.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

58) In pregnancy, expansion of the uterus results from

  1. A) increased production of additional smooth muscle cells.
  2. B) hypertrophy of smooth muscle cells.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

59) During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by ________, produced by the placenta.

  1. A) progesterone
  2. B) estrogen
  3. C) oxytocin
  4. D) prostaglandins
  5. E) inhibin

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

60) The first stage of labor is the ________ stage.

  1. A) dilation
  2. B) expulsion
  3. C) placental
  4. D) contraction
  5. E) neonate

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

61) The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the ________ stage.

  1. A) emergence
  2. B) dilation
  3. C) placental
  4. D) expulsion
  5. E) fetal

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

62) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of

  1. A) estrogen.
  2. B) progesterone.
  3. C) oxytocin.
  4. D) relaxin.
  5. E) chorionic gonadotropin.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

63) Progesterone calms the myometrium and prevents contraction. What factor does not antagonize progesterone and trigger labor and delivery?

  1. A) rising estrogen levels increase sensitivity
  2. B) rising oxytocin levels lead to uterine contractions
  3. C) distortion of the myometrium
  4. D) distortion of the cervix
  5. E) relaxation of the cervix

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

64) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium

  1. A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition.
  2. B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions.
  3. C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands.
  4. D) constrict the cervix.
  5. E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

65) The placenta is expelled from the uterus during the ________ stage of labor.

  1. A) placental
  2. B) expulsion
  3. C) dilation
  4. D) contraction
  5. E) afterbirth

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

66) The neonatal period extends

  1. A) for the first 24 hours of life.
  2. B) for the first month of life.
  3. C) until the first birthday.
  4. D) from day 1 until day 60.
  5. E) until breast feeding stops.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

67) Which hormone stimulates the milk let-down reflex?

  1. A) progesterone
  2. B) oxytocin
  3. C) estrogen
  4. D) relaxin
  5. E) GnRH

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

68) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over when the baby reaches ________ of age.

  1. A) 1 year
  2. B) 2 years
  3. C) 6 months
  4. D) 1 month
  5. E) 18 months

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

69) The clinical term for “growing old” is

  1. A) maturation.
  2. B) aging.
  3. C) senescence.
  4. D) apoptosis.
  5. E) senility.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

70) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as

  1. A) the neonatal stage.
  2. B) infancy.
  3. C) childhood.
  4. D) adolescence.
  5. E) maturity.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.12, 27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

71) All of the following occur at puberty except

  1. A) FSH levels rise.
  2. B) GnRH levels decline.
  3. C) levels of sex hormones rise.
  4. D) skeletal muscle fibers are stimulated.
  5. E) secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

72) Which of the following hormones is the cause of most puberty-related changes in a female?

  1. A) estrogen
  2. B) progesterone
  3. C) oxytocin
  4. D) relaxin
  5. E) chorionic gonadotropin

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

73) Which of the following is a puberty-related change caused by increased testosterone levels?

  1. A) accelerated bone deposition and skeletal growth
  2. B) loss of terminal hairs on the face and chest
  3. C) replication of skeletal muscle fibers
  4. D) thinning of the vocal folds
  5. E) decreased erythropoiesis

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

74) Which of the following does not describe non-sex chromosomes?

  1. A) diploid
  2. B) haploid
  3. C) produced by mitosis
  4. D) genetically identical
  5. E) called somatic cells

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

75) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain?

  1. A) 22
  2. B) 23
  3. C) 44
  4. D) 46
  5. E) 92

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

76) A person’s original chromosomes and their component genes constitute that person’s

  1. A) autosomal inheritance.
  2. B) genotype.
  3. C) phenotype.
  4. D) allele.
  5. E) locus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

77) The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her

  1. A) epigenome.
  2. B) genotypical inheritances.
  3. C) alleles.
  4. D) phenotype.
  5. E) karyotype.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

78) The various forms of any one gene are called

  1. A) homologous.
  2. B) homozygous.
  3. C) heterozygous.
  4. D) autosomes.
  5. E) alleles.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

79) If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait.

  1. A) homologous
  2. B) homozygous
  3. C) heterozygous
  4. D) autosomal
  5. E) polygenic

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

80) If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait.

  1. A) homologous
  2. B) homozygous
  3. C) heterozygous
  4. D) autosomal
  5. E) polygenic

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

81) Molly is homozygous for the dominant black hair trait. Therefore,

  1. A) Molly is a carrier for the black hair trait.
  2. B) Molly has black hair.
  3. C) Molly has red hair.
  4. D) Molly’s hair color cannot be determined from this information.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

82) A ________ is used to show all possible combinations of genes that can result from a given parental cross.

  1. A) pedigree
  2. B) Punnett square
  3. C) karyotype
  4. D) phenotype
  5. E) family tree

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

83) In simple autosomal inheritance, phenotypic characters are determined, or controlled, by

  1. A) a single pair of alleles.
  2. B) multiple alleles.
  3. C) the action of a single gene.
  4. D) regulator genes on a different chromosome.
  5. E) the genes on the Y chromosome.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

84) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are

  1. A) determined by a double pair of alleles.
  2. B) determined by interactions among several genes.
  3. C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene.
  4. D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome.
  5. E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

85) If a color-blind (X-linked recessive trait) man marries a woman who is heterozygous for the trait, what proportion of their male offspring can be expected to be color blind?

  1. A) 1/2
  2. B) 1/4
  3. C) 1/8
  4. D) All
  5. E) None

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

86) A zygote whose genotype is XX will develop as a

  1. A) male.
  2. B) female.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

87) A zygote whose genotype is XY will develop as a

  1. A) male.
  2. B) female.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

88) Which of the following traits is a sex-linked inheritance?

  1. A) albino pigmentation
  2. B) red hair
  3. C) hemophilia
  4. D) Huntington’s disease
  5. E) sickle cell anemia

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

89) The “P” in the abbreviation SNP stands for

  1. A) pronucleus.
  2. B) phenotype.
  3. C) prenatal.
  4. D) polymorphism.
  5. E) placental.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

90) A child born with one lone X chromosome will have

  1. A) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
  2. B) Turner’s syndrome.
  3. C) Down syndrome.
  4. D) Tay-Sachs disease.
  5. E) acromegaly.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

91) Trisomy 21 is the clinical term for

  1. A) Marfan’s syndrome.
  2. B) Klinefelter syndrome.
  3. C) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
  4. D) fetal alcohol syndrome.
  5. E) Down syndrome.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

92) Define gestation. (Module 27.1A)

  1. A) Gestation is the moment of fertilization.
  2. B) Gestation is the time after fertilization until implantation.
  3. C) Gestation is the time of development during the first and second trimesters.
  4. D) Gestation is the time of development during the third trimester.
  5. E) Gestation is the time a developing embryo and fetus spends in the uterus.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

93) Distinguish among embryonic, fetal, and prenatal development. (Module 27.1B)

  1. A) Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9thweek and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development.
  2. B) Embryonic development begins at the 9thweek and continues until birth. Fetal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development.
  3. C) Embryonic development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Fetal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester.
  4. D) Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester.
  5. E) Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development refers to the events of the third trimester. Prenatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

94) What is postnatal development? (Module 27.1C)

  1. A) Postnatal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization.
  2. B) Postnatal development begins at the 9thweek and continues until birth.
  3. C) Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity.
  4. D) Postnatal development refers to the events of the first and second trimesters.
  5. E) Postnatal development refers to the events of the third trimester.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

95) Define fertilization. (Module 27.2A)

  1. A) Fertilization is the ejection of the primary oocyte from the ovary.
  2. B) Fertilization is the ejection of the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
  3. C) Fertilization is the journey the oocyte travels through the uterine tube to reach the uterus.
  4. D) Fertilization is the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a sperm to form a zygote.
  5. E) Fertilization is the attachment of a zygote to the uterine wall.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

96) How many chromosomes are contained within a human zygote? (Module 27.2B)

  1. A) 8
  2. B) 23
  3. C) 32
  4. D) 46
  5. E) 64

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

97) Why are numerous sperm required to fertilize a secondary oocyte? (Module 27.2C)

  1. A) Multiple sperm are needed to have the required number of chromosomes for the zygote.
  2. B) Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata.
  3. C) Multiple sperm are needed because the male pronucleus is smaller than the female pronucleus.
  4. D) Multiple sperm are needed to increase the extracellular calcium levels.
  5. E) Multiple sperm are needed to provide organelles to the zygote.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

98) A pre-embryo that consists of a solid ball of cells is known as what type of structure? (Module 27.3A)

  1. A) blastomere
  2. B) morula
  3. C) trophoblast
  4. D) cytotrophoblast
  5. E) blastocyst

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

99) Describe the trophoblast. (Module 27.3B)

  1. A) The trophoblast is the cell layer surrounding the blastocyst.
  2. B) The trophoblast is the fluid-filled chamber filled with amniotic fluid.
  3. C) The trophoblast is a solid ball of cells.
  4. D) The trophoblast is the inner cavity within the blastocyst.
  5. E) The trophoblast is a pre-embryo at the four-cell stage.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

100) Describe the process that forms the primary germ layers and cite the layer that contributes to nearly all body systems. (Module 27.4A)

  1. A) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems.
  2. B) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The mesoderm contributes to nearly all body systems.
  3. C) Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems.
  4. D) Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems.
  5. E) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

101) Name the four extra-embryonic membranes. (Module 27.5A)

  1. A) yolk sac, amnion, blastocoele, and the trophoblast
  2. B) endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, gastroderm
  3. C) blastodisc, embryonic disc, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast
  4. D) amnion, placenta, umbilical stalk, and chorion
  5. E) yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and the chorion

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

102) Describe the placenta. (Module 27.5C)

  1. A) The placenta is a layer of cells that surround the yolk sac.
  2. B) The placenta forms the interface between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast.
  3. C) The placenta forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the maternal system.
  4. D) The placenta forms the interface between the blastocoele and the amniotic cavity.
  5. E) The placenta contains fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

103) Describe the chorionic villi. (Module 27.6A)

  1. A) The chorionic villi contain fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus.
  2. B) The chorionic villi forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the amniotic fluid.
  3. C) The chorionic villi forms the umbilical cord.
  4. D) The chorionic villi are structures that extend into the maternal tissues through which maternal blood flows.
  5. E) The chorionic villi form the yolk sac.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

104) Identify the structure connecting the fetus to the placenta, and name the extra-embryonic membrane from which it is derived. (Module 27.6C)

  1. A) yolk sac; allantois
  2. B) yolk sac; chorion
  3. C) umbilical cord; allantois
  4. D) umbilical cord; chorion
  5. E) umbilical cord; amnion

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

105) The presence of which hormone in the urine provides a reliable indicator of pregnancy, as detected by home pregnancy tests? (Module 27.7B)

  1. A) human placental lactogen
  2. B) placental prolactin
  3. C) relaxin
  4. D) LH
  5. E) human chorionic gonadotrophin

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

106) When does the placenta become sufficiently functional to continue the pregnancy?

(Module 27.7C)

  1. A) after one week
  2. B) after one month
  3. C) after nine weeks
  4. D) after the first trimester
  5. E) after the second trimester

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

107) Define organogenesis. (Module 27.8A)

  1. A) Organogenesis is the process of cleavage and implantation.
  2. B) Organogenesis is the process of embryo formation during the first twelve weeks.
  3. C) Organogenesis is the process of organ formation.
  4. D) Organogenesis is the process of organ growth during the third trimester.
  5. E) Organogenesis is the process of organ maturation during postnatal development.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

108) A fetus undergoes its largest absolute weight gain during which trimester? (Module 27.8C)

  1. A) first trimester
  2. B) second trimester
  3. C) third trimester

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

109) List the major changes that occur in maternal systems during pregnancy. (Module 27.9A)

  1. A) decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased blood volume, increased GFR and nutrient requirements, increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands
  2. B) increased immune function, increased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased nutrient requirements and decreased thermoregulation
  3. C) decreased immune function, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume
  4. D) increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands
  5. E) increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased nutrient requirements, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased size of the uterus and mammary glands.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

110) Why does a mother’s blood volume increase during pregnancy? (Module 27.9B)

  1. A) A mother’s blood volume increases to keep up with her increase in tidal volume.
  2. B) A mother’s blood volume increases to accommodate for flow through the placenta.
  3. C) A mother’s blood volume increases to keep up with the increase in GFR.
  4. D) A mother’s blood volume increases to strengthen the immune system.
  5. E) A mother’s blood volume increases due to the weight of the fetus.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

111) List and describe the factors involved in initiating labor contractions. (Module 27.10A)

  1. A) Decreasing estrogen levels causes cervical dilation and endometrial contractions.
  2. B) Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin.
  3. C) Inhibin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of prolactin.
  4. D) Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of inhibin.
  5. E) Falling levels of estrogen and prosterone cause cervical dilation and the shedding of the functional layer which causes myometrial contractions.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

112) Which chemicals are primarily responsible for initiating contractions of true labor?

(Module 27.10B)

  1. A) prolactin
  2. B) progesterone
  3. C) relaxin and inhibin
  4. D) estrogens and oxytocin stimulate the production of prostaglandins
  5. E) LH and oxytocin

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

113) Which hormone causes the milk ejection (milk let-down) reflex? (Module 27.11B)

  1. A) prostaglandins
  2. B) human placental lactogen
  3. C) prolactin
  4. D) placental prolactin
  5. E) oxytocin

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

114) Name the three major interacting hormonal events associated with the onset of puberty. (Module 27.13A)

  1. A) Increased GnRH production, increased LH and decreased FSH production, activation of ovaries and testes by LH.
  2. B) Decreased GnRH production due to estrogen and testosterone negative feedback, decrease in LH and FSH release by the anterior pituitary gland, and decreased LH and FSH sensitivity by the ovaries and testes.
  3. C) Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH.
  4. D) Increased hypothalamic LH production, anterior pituitary release of estrogen and testosterone, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes.
  5. E) Increased hypothalamic estrogen and testosterone production, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

115) Why does a man have a deeper voice and a larger larynx than a woman? (Module 27.13B)

  1. A) During fetal development, males lay down more laryngeal tissue than females causing a deeper voice.
  2. B) Males are typically larger than females and their larynx is also larger causing a deeper voice.
  3. C) Males do not talk as much as females so their laryngeal musculature is not as well developed causing a larger larynx and a deeper voice.
  4. D) During puberty, testosterone causes greater laryngeal development than estrogen so a male will have a larger larynx and a deeper voice.
  5. E) Males have proportionally larger necks than females so the development of the larynx has more room to expand and this causes a deeper voice.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

116) Why are premenopausal women at lesser risk of atherosclerosis than men?

(Module 27.13C)

  1. A) Premenopausal women are typically smaller than men reducing the strain on their hearts.
  2. B) Premenopausal women are typically less active than men reducing their blood pressures.
  3. C) Premenopausal women have higher estrogen levels that decrease plasma cholesterol.
  4. D) Premenopausal women eat a better diet than men decreases their plasma cholesterol.
  5. E) Premenopausal women are typically more active and have better diets than men reducing their plasma cholesterol.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

 

117) How do autosomes and sex chromosomes differ? (Module 27.14B)

  1. A) Autosomes are chromosomes in all the cells of the body except gametes. Sex chromosomes are the chromosomes in the gametes.
  2. B) Autosomes encode for all genes. Sex chromosomes encode only for genes that produce sperm and oocytes.
  3. C) Autosomes contain genes that encode for all components of the reproductive system, such as reproductive organs, glands, and hormones. Sex chromosomes contain genes that encode for all human traits except reproduction.
  4. D) Autosomes are chromosome pairs 1-22 that affect somatic characteristics. Sex chromosomes are the 23rdpair that determine whether an individual is male (XY) or female (XX).
  5. E) Autosomes are chromosomes are the 23rdpair that determine whether an individual is male (XY) or female (XX). Sex chromosomes are chromosome pairs 1-22 that affect somatic characteristics.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

118) How can you tell that the karyotype shown here is male? (Module 27.14C)

  1. A) The 23rdpair of chromosomes is XX.
  2. B) The 23rdpair of chromosomes is XY.
  3. C) The 23rdpair of chromosomes is YY.
  4. D) The 23rdpair of chromosomes is YO.
  5. E) There are only 22 pairs of chromosomes.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

119) Define homozygous and heterozygous. (Module 27.15A)

  1. A) Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes.
  2. B) Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes.
  3. C) Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene.
  4. D) Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene.
  5. E) Homozygous means that all genes are on the same locus. Heterozygous means that all genes are on different loci.

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

120) Differentiate between simple inheritance and polygenic inheritance. (Module 27.15B)

  1. A) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci.
  2. B) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus.
  3. C) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by only one parent. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by both parents.
  4. D) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles.
  5. E) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes.

Answer:  E

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

121) The trait “freckles” operates through strict dominance. What would be the phenotype of a person who is heterozygous for this trait? (Module 27.15C)

  1. A) The person would have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be “no freckles.”
  2. B) The person would have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be “freckles.”
  3. C) The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be “no freckles.”
  4. D) The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be “freckles.”
  5. E) The person would have only dominant alleles for freckles but the phenotype would be “no freckles.”

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

122) Compare strict dominance with codominance. (Module 27.16A)

  1. A) In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait.
  2. B) In strict dominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait.
  3. C) In strict dominance, only the dominant allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the dominant allele. In codominance, only the recessive allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the recessive allele.
  4. D) In strict dominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait.
  5. E) In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other.

Answer:  A

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

123) Why are sex-linked traits expressed more frequently in males than in females?

(Module 27.16B)

  1. A) Males have fewer chromosomes than females.
  2. B) Males have more chromosomes than females.
  3. C) Males have more sex chromosomes than females.
  4. D) Males have a smaller Y chromosome that contains fewer genes that correspond to the larger X chromosome.
  5. E) Males have a larger Y chromosome that contains more genes that correspond to the smaller X chromosome.

Answer:  D

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

124) Indicate the type of inheritance involved in each of the following situations: (1) children who exhibit the trait have at least one parent who also exhibits it; (2) children exhibit the trait even though neither parent exhibits it; and (3) the trait is expressed equally in daughters and sons. (Module 27.16C)

  1. A) (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (dominant); (3) autosomal inheritance
  2. B) (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (incomplete dominance); (3) autosomal inheritance
  3. C) (1) simple inheritance (dominant); (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance
  4. D) (1) sex-linked inheritance (dominant); (2) sex-linked inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance
  5. E) (1) polygenic inheritance; (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) sex-linked inheritance

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

125) Define single nucleotide polymorphism. (Module 27.17A)

  1. A) A single nucleotide polymorphism is the presence of a single gene at one locus.
  2. B) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a variation in a single base pair in a DNA sequence.
  3. C) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a truncated chromosome.
  4. D) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a missing chromosome in a set.
  5. E) A single nucleotide polymorphism is when a single nucleotide controls the allele’s phenotypic expression.

Answer:  B

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

126) Name the disorder characterized by each of the following chromosome patterns: (1) XO and (2) XXY. (Module 27.17B)

  1. A) (1) Down syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome
  2. B) (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Down syndrome
  3. C) (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome
  4. D) (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome
  5. E) (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Down syndrome

Answer:  C

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 


Essay Questions

 

127) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.

Answer:  For convenience, we think of the gestation period as consisting of three integrated trimesters, each lasting 3 months in duration: (1) The first trimester is the period of embryonic and early fetal development. During this period, the rudiments of all the major organ systems appear. (2) The second trimester is dominated by the development of organs and organ systems, a process that nears completion by the end of the sixth month. During this period, body shape and proportions change; by the end of this trimester, the fetus looks distinctively human. (3) The third trimester is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and deposition of adipose tissue. Early in the third trimester, most of the fetus’s major organ systems become fully functional.

Learning Outcome:  27.1, 27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

128) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the first blastomere pair.

Answer:  Powerful acrosomal hydrolases released from the sperm head create openings between adherent granulosa cells (the corona radiata) and penetrate the zona pellucida. A solitary sperm penetrates to the oocyte membrane to which it fuses, sending its nucleus into the oocyte. This is the moment of fertilization. This triggers maturation of the haploid maternal pronucleus, followed by development of the male pronucleus. These then fuse in the act of amphimixis, the true combining of maternal and paternal haploid chromosome sets to form a unique diploid set of 46. Spindle fibers organize the chromosomes on the metaphase plate after the nuclear envelopes break down. After mitosis is complete, cytokinesis takes place, dividing the original zygote into two daughter cells or pair of blastomeres. This takes more than 30 hours to complete.

Learning Outcome:  27.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

129) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby, she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps. How would you explain this phenomenon?

Answer:  During nursing, the mechanical stimulus of suckling triggers a neural reflex that leads to the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin enters the bloodstream and stimulates contractile cells that surround the secretory cells in the mammary glands to contract and move milk into the lactiferous sinuses–the milk let-down reflex. Oxytocin also stimulates smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, so the rise in oxytocin sometimes leads to uterine contractions as well, producing a feeling similar to menstrual cramping. The uterine contractions help stop uterine bleeding after delivery.

Learning Outcome:  27.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

130) Explain the effect of testosterone on the male respiratory system at puberty.

Answer:  Testosterone stimulates growth of the larynx and a thickening and lengthening of the vocal cords. These changes cause a gradual deepening of the voice in males.

Learning Outcome:  27.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

 

131) Describe the blastocyst and its role in implantation. (Module 27.3C)

Answer:  The blastocyst consists of an outer trophoblast and an inner cell mass. Implantation begins about 6 to 9 days after fertilization, when the blastocyst adheres to the uterine lining, or endometrium. The trophoblast cells in contact with the uterine lining divide and form a syncytiotrophoblast that erodes the endometrial lining. Nutrients from uterine glands are absorbed by the syncytiotrophoblast and distributed by diffusion through the cytotrophoblast to the inner cell mass. The blastocyst becomes enclosed within the endometrium by about 10 days after fertilization.

Learning Outcome:  27.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

132) From which germ layers do the extra-embryonic membranes form, and what are each membrane’s functions? (Module 27.5B)

Answer:  The yolk sac forms from the endoderm and mesoderm; it is an important site of blood cell formation. The amnion forms from the ectoderm and mesoderm; it encloses the fluid that surrounds and cushions the developing embryo and fetus. The allantois forms from the endoderm and mesoderm; its base gives rise to the urinary bladder. The chorion forms from the mesoderm and cytotrophoblast; it surrounds the blastocoele.

Learning Outcome:  27.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

133) Compare the body stalk with the yolk stalk. (Module 27.6B)

Answer:  The body stalk is the connection between the embryo and the chorion; it contains portions of the allantois and blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta. The yolk stalk is the connection between the endoderm of the embryo and the yolk sac.

Learning Outcome:  27.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

134) Name the hormones synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast. (Module 27.7A)

Answer:  The hormones synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast are human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), placental prolactin, relaxin, progesterone and estrogens

Learning Outcome:  27.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

135) Identify the general events of fetal development during the second and third trimesters. (Module 27.8B)

Answer:  In the second trimester, the organ systems increase in complexity. During the third trimester, many of the organ systems become fully functional.

Learning Outcome:  27.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

 

136) Based on the illustrations showing the locations of the internal organs in nonpregnant and pregnant women, explain why some pregnant women experience difficulty breathing.

(Module 27.9C)

Answer:  Some pregnant women experience difficulty breathing because the enlarged uterus presses up against the abdominal organs and the diaphragm, crowding the lungs.

Learning Outcome:  27.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Applying

 

137) Name the three stages of labor, and describe the events that characterize each stage. (Module 27.10C)

Answer:  The dilation stage begins with the onset of true labor as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to move toward the cervical canal; later in this stage, the amnion ruptures. The expulsion stage begins as the cervix dilates completely and continues until the fetus has completely emerged from the vagina (delivery). In the placental stage, the uterus gradually contracts, tearing the connections between the endometrium and the placenta and ejecting the placenta (also referred to as the afterbirth).

Learning Outcome:  27.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

138) Explain the difference between colostrum and breast milk. (Module 27.11A)

Answer:  Colostrum contains antibodies and is produced by the mammary glands from the end of the 6th month of pregnancy until a few days after delivery. After that, the glands begin producing breast milk, which contains antibodies and lysozyme but has a higher fat content than colostrum.

Learning Outcome:  27.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Understanding

 

139) Name the stages of postnatal development, and describe the time frame involved for each stage. (Module 27.12A)

Answer:  The postnatal stages of development are the neonatal period, from birth to 1 month; infancy, from 1 month to age 1 year; childhood, from age 1 year until sexual maturation begins; adolescence, which begins with the onset of sexual maturation (puberty) between ages 10 and 15 years and ends when growth in body size is completed (around 18 years); and maturity, which includes the rest of the person’s life. A final stage called senescence, or aging, overlaps with maturity.

Learning Outcome:  27.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

140) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype. (Module 27.14A)

Answer:  Chromosomes and their component genes make up the genotype. Anatomical or physiological characteristics from the expression of genes make up the phenotype.

Learning Outcome:  27.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Remembering

 

141) Identify the chromosome pair involved in each of the following disorders: (1) ovarian cancer, (2) Tay-Sachs disease, and (3) spinocerebellar ataxia. (Module 27.17C)

Answer:  (1) ovarian cancer — chromosome pair 9, (2) Tay-Sachs disease — chromosome pair 15, (3) spinocerebellar ataxia — chromosome pair 6

Learning Outcome:  27.17

Bloom’s Taxonomy:  Analyzing

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