Understanding Pathophysiology – ANZ Adaptation 2nd Ed By Craft – Test Bank

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Understanding Pathophysiology – ANZ Adaptation 2nd Ed By Craft – Test Bank

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 02: Homeostasis

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Homeostasis:

 

a. keeps the body in a static state.
b. works towards a dynamic equilibrium.
c. modifies the external environment to protect bodily function.
d. maintains variables at one precise set point.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 21

 

  1. The normal or reference range of blood pH is:

 

a. 7.35–7.45.
b. 7.25–7.55.
c. 7.25–7.85.
d. 7.35–7.55.

 

ANS: A                    REF: p 21

 

  1. Tom had his blood pH measured twice at the hospital. The first time his blood pH was 7.39, and the second time his blood pH was 7.42. The doctor said that these values are normal and are nothing to worry about. The doctor’s conclusion can be explained by the fact that

 

a. blood pH should always have the same value but sometimes hospital equipment is not accurate.
b. normal blood pH values occur within a range rather than a set point.
c. Tom’s first reading was not normal, but his blood pH was corrected in time for the second reading.
d. normal blood pH occurs anywhere within the range 7.25-7.55.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 21

 

  1. The fluid that is located between cells is called:

 

a. cytoplasm.
b. plasma fluid.
c. interstitial fluid.
d. intravascular fluid.

 

ANS: C                    REF: p 21

 

  1. The biggest fluid compartment in the human body is the:

 

a. interstitial compartment.
b. intravascular compartment.
c. extracellular compartment.
d. intracellular compartment.

 

ANS: D                    REF: p 22

 

  1. In a normal healthy adult male, the total body water as a percentage in relation to body weight is:

 

a. 50%.
b. 60%.
c. 70%.
d. 80%.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 22

 

  1. The extracellular fluid compartment contains ______ of the total body water.

 

a. one-third
b. one-quarter
c. three-quarters
d. two-thirds

 

ANS: A                    REF: p 22

 

  1. In order to maintain cellular homeostasis:

 

a. oxygen and carbon dioxide move from the blood into the cell.
b. oxygen and carbon dioxide move from the cell into the blood.
c. carbon dioxide and lactic acid move from the blood into the cell.
d. carbon dioxide and lactic acid move from the cell into the blood.

 

ANS: D                    REF: p 22

 

  1. Which of the following electrolytes are found in a higher proportion inside the cell than in the extracellular compartment?

 

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. carbon

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 23

 

  1. Which of the following electrolytes are found in higher proportion in the extracellular compartment than in the cell?

 

a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. A and C only

 

ANS: D                    REF: p 23

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of neuron signalling?

 

a. During neuron signalling, most of the sodium is in the extracellular fluid.
b. Following neuron signalling, sodium must be returned to the extracellular fluid to allow another signal to be sent.
c. When the neuron is at rest, most of the sodium is in the intracellular compartment.
d. Following neuron signalling, sodium must be returned to the intracellular fluid to allow another signal to be sent.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 24

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of cellular homeostasis?

 

a. blood clotting following a small cut
b. wound healing following a small wound
c. extracellular fluid moving into a dehydrated cell
d. an immune response against invading bacteria

 

ANS: C                    REF: p 24

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of homeostasis of the local area?

 

a. carbon dioxide entering the blood from a cell
b. sodium moving into a neuron during signalling
c. extracellular fluid moving into a dehydrated cell
d. an immune response against invading bacteria

 

ANS: D                    REF: p 24

 

  1. Blood glucose levels will rise after eating a meal, which will result in a/an _________ in insulin release and therefore a/an ____________ in blood glucose.

 

  1. decrease; decrease
  2. decrease; increase
  3. increase; decrease
  4. increase; increase

 

ANS: C           REF: p 26

 

  1. The central nervous system detects changes to a variable using:

 

a. an effector.
b. a control centre.
c. a sensor.
d. a hormone.

 

ANS: C                    REF: p 26

 

  1. In the case of a pain reflex arc, the control centre is located in the:

 

a. damaged tissue.
b. spinal cord.
c. brain.
d. central endocrine organ.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 26

 

  1. The control centre in the negative feedback pathway is located in the:

 

a. central nervous system.
b. endocrine system.
c. cardiac system.
d. respiratory system.

 

ANS: A                    REF: p 26

 

  1. The effector in a negative feedback pathway is:

 

a. the part of the nervous system that send signals to mediate a response.
b. the section of the nervous system that matches information from the sensor with information about the normal range.
c. that neuron that can detect a variable.
d. the target organ.

 

ANS: A                    REF: p 26

 

  1. When the levels of carbon dioxide in the body build up, the normal homeostatic response is to:

 

a. increase breathing.
b. decrease breathing.
c. increase urine output.
d. decrease heart rate.

 

ANS: A                    REF: p 29

 

  1. When the levels of carbon dioxide in the body decrease below normal, the normal homeostatic response is to:

 

a. increase breathing.
b. decrease breathing.
c. increase urine output.
d. decrease heart rate.

 

ANS: B                    REF: p 26

 

  1. John arrives at the emergency ward with tachypnoea (a fast breathing rate). John is most likely experiencing an imbalance in his blood ___________ levels.

 

a. carbon dioxide
b. fluid
c. glucose
d. sodium

 

ANS: A           REF: p 26

 

  1. Maintenance of blood pressure and fluid balance homeostasis is controlled by:

 

a. the brain only.
b. the endocrine system only.
c. both the nervous and endocrine systems.
d. both the nervous and respiratory systems.

 

ANS: C                    REF: p 28

 

  1. The sensor that detects abnormalities in sodium levels is located in the:

 

a. brain.
b. spinal cord.
c. intestine.
d. kidneys.

 

ANS: D                    REF: p 27

 

  1. Ruby is on a diet that she read about in a women’s magazine that suggests that she can lose weight by drinking at least three litres of water a day. Ruby drinks two litres of water in one sitting, which causes her blood volume and blood pressure to increase. Which of the following mechanisms will help to correct Ruby’s blood volume and pressure?

 

a. Effector signals to the blood vessels causing vasoconstriction
b. Effector signals from the brain causing increased thirst
c. Effector signals to the endocrine system causing decreased urination
d. Hormone signals causing water retention in the urine

 

ANS: D           REF: p 28

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic mechanism that maintains fluid balance?

 

a. regulation of blood sodium levels
b. regulation of urine output
c. vasoconstriction
d. thirst reflex

 

ANS: C                    REF: p 28

 

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 14: Infection

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. An infectious disease that spreads rapidly and widely throughout the world is termed a(n):

 

a. superinfection.
b. pandemic.
c. epidemic.
d. opportunistic infection.

 

ANS: B                       REF: p 320

 

  1. The microorganisms that make up the normal human flora are important for:

 

a. regulating inflammation.
b. secreting bacteriostatic substances.
c. activating white blood cells.
d. preventing colonisation of pathogens.

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 320

 

  1. The potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms required to kill a host is termed:

 

a. pathogenicity.
b. immunogenicity.
c. virulence.
d. LD50.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 321

 

  1. A patient is infected by a microorganism that is motile. The microbe would be a:

 

a. virus.
b. prion.
c. bacterium.
d. fungi.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 323

 

  1. Some bacterial pathogens can defend themselves from an immune response by:

 

a. producing capsules.
b. phagocytosis.
c. retreating.
d. developing antibodies.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 323

 

  1. A 5-year-old male becomes ill with a severe cough. Histological examination reveals a bacterial infection and further laboratory testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?

 

a. endotoxin
b. exotoxin
c. toxoid
d. septicemia

 

ANS: B                       REF: p 324

 

  1. Endotoxins are produced by ______ and are made of __________:

 

a. gram-negative bacteria, lipopolysaccharide
b. gram-positive bacteria, protein.
c. gram-negative bacteria, protein
d. gram-positive bacteria, lipopolysaccharide.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 324

 

  1. A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock and subsequent death. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

 

a. gram-positive bacteria
b. fungi
c. gram-negative bacteria
d. virus

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 325

 

  1. A patient is infected by a microorganism that contains RNA or DNA and has no organelles. The microbe would be a:

 

a. virus.
b. bacterium.
c. protozoan.
d. yeast.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 327

 

  1. Viruses:

 

a. contain mitochondria.
b. are capable of independent reproduction.
c. replicate their genetic material inside host cells.
d. are easily killed by antimicrobials.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 327

 

  1. Varicella, the virus that causes chicken pox:

 

a. integrates its DNA with the host cell DNA.
b. can replicate outside the host cell.
c. replicates using reverse transcriptase.
d. lives in the cytoplasm.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 327

 

  1. A 25-year-old female reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with several men. Blood tests reveal she is positive for human papilloma virus. Which of the following may occur because of the infection?

 

a. vaginal discharge
b. liver failure
c. immunodeficiency
d. cancer

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 327

 

  1. A patient has been treated with antibiotics for an ongoing illness, and has also been diagnosed with thrush (candidiasis). Which of the following may explain what has happened?

 

a. The thrush is unrelated to her antibiotic treatment.
b. The Candida has utilised the antibiotics as a food source and grown rapidly.
c. The Candida must have become resistant to the antibiotics.
d. Her vaginal bacterial flora have been affected and allowed the overgrowth of the Candida yeast.

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 329

 

  1. Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:

 

a. are easily treated with penicillin.
b. are extremely rare.
c. never occur with other infections.
d. are commonly opportunistic.

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 329

 

  1. A patient develops superficial mycoses. The infection is:

 

a. viral.
b. bacterial.
c. fungal.
d. algal.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 329

 

  1. When genes from different strains of a viruses recombine to cause major changes in antigenicity, this is termed:

 

a. antigenic drift.
b. antigenic shift
c. pathogenicity.
d. class switching.

 

ANS: B                       REF: p 329

 

  1. The hallmark symptom of most infectious diseases is:

 

a. fever.
b. jaundice.
c. vomiting.
d. pain.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 329

 

  1. A bacteriostatic drug:

 

a. kills bacteria.
b. mimics a section of host cell DNA.
c. stops bacterial replication.
d. interferes with cell wall synthesis.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 332

 

  1. Most viral vaccines contain:

 

a. active viruses.
b. attenuated viruses.
c. killed viruses.
d. viral toxins.

 

ANS: B                       REF: p 332

 

  1. When a person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine, the antigen is:

 

a. alive but less infectious.
b. mutated but highly infectious.
c. normal but not infectious.
d. inactive but infectious.

 

ANS: A                       REF: p 332

 

  1. Most bacterial vaccines contain:

 

a. active bacteria.
b. attenuated bacteria.
c. dead bacteria.
d. bacterial toxins.

 

ANS: C                       REF: p 333

 

  1. Which of the following pathogens can cause gastritis and peptic ulcer?

 

a. Escherichia coli
b. respiratory syncytial virus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Helicobacter pylori

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 335

 

  1. The most common cause of community-acquired urinary tract infections is:

 

a. Escherichia coli.
b. respiratory syncytial virus.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Helicobacter pylori.

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 336

 

  1. Bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:

 

a. proliferation.
b. attenuation.
c. specialisation.
d. mutation.

 

ANS: D                       REF: p 336

 

 

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 28: The structure and function of the urinary system

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The functional unit of the kidney is the:

 

a. calyx.
b. nephron.
c. collecting duct.
d. pyramid.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 823

 

  1. All of the following are components of the nephron except the:

 

a. loop of Henle.
b. renal corpuscle.
c. proximal tubule.
d. renal pelvis.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 823

 

  1. Together, the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule are referred to as the renal:

 

a. corpuscle.
b. capsule.
c. medulla.
d. pyramid.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 823

 

  1. _____ nephrons account for 85% of all nephrons.

 

a. Juxtamedullary
b. Juxtacortical
c. Cortical
d. Medullary

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 824

 

  1. Lying between the layers of the renal corpuscle is a population of phagocytic cells called:

 

a. podocytes.
b. macula densa cells.
c. mesangial cells.
d. renal macrophages.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 824

 

  1. Plasma proteins are not commonly found in the urine because:

 

a. all proteins filtered are subsequently secreted.
b. plasma proteins are commonly too large to fit through the fenestrations.
c. all proteins filtered are subsequently degraded before elimination.
d. the proteins are co-transported out of the filtrate.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 824

 

  1. On average the kidneys receive approximately _____ of the cardiac output.

 

a. 5%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 35%

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 824

 

  1. The sodium-sensing cells of the glomerulus are called the:

 

a. podocytes.
b. macula densa.
c. mesangial cells.
d. loop of Henle.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 826

 

  1. Which of the following structures supplies blood to the medulla?

 

a. renal arteries
b. arcuate arteries
c. peritubular capillaries
d. vasa recta

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 825

 

  1. The transport maximum for glucose refers to the:

 

a. maximum rate of glucose filtration.
b. glucose reabsorption that is limited by the number of carrier molecules.
c. small amounts of glucose found in the urine of most individuals.
d. ability of the kidneys to regulate blood glucose.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 828

 

  1. The percentage of filtered sodium that is subsequently reabsorbed back into the plasma in the renal tubules is 99.5%. The majority of this sodium reabsorption takes place in the:

 

a. proximal tubule.
b. loop of Henle.
c. distal tubule.
d. collecting duct.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 828

 

  1. A kidney has a glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure of 50 mmHg, a Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure of 15 mmHg, and a glomerular capillary oncotic pressure of 12 mmHg. What is the net filtration pressure?

 

a. 23 mmHg
b. 27 mmHg
c. 35 mmHg
d. 38 mmHg

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 827

 

  1. The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for:

 

a. sodium secretion.
b. potassium secretion.
c. hydrogen ion secretion.
d. water reabsorption.

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 829

 

  1. Which of the following substances are actively secreted by the renal tubules?

 

a. sodium and chlorine
b. phosphate and calcium
c. hydrogen and potassium
d. bicarbonate and carbonic acid

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 830

 

  1. Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which of these hormones?

 

a. antidiuretic hormone
b. atrial natriuretic factor
c. renin
d. aldosterone

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 830

 

  1. The nephrons that determine the concentration of the urine are _____ nephrons.

 

a. juxtamedullary
b. juxtacortical
c. cortical
d. medullary

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 8305

 

  1. A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a thiazide diuretic. Which of the following is a common side effect of this medication?

 

a. hypokalaemia
b. hyponatraemia
c. increased uric acid secretion
d. hypernatraemia

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 832

 

  1. The filtration of the plasma per unit of time is known as the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). GFR is directly related to the:

 

a. perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
b. oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
c. vascular resistance in the glomerular arterioles.
d. hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s capsule.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 833

 

  1. On average, what percentage of renal plasma flow to the glomerulus is filtered into the Bowman’s capsule?

 

a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 75%

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 832

 

  1. The blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:

 

a. vagus nerve.
b. sympathetic nervous system.
c. somatic nervous system.
d. parasympathetic nervous system.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 834

 

  1. The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by:

 

a. increased blood volume.
b. elevated sodium concentrations.
c. decreased blood pressure in the afferent arterioles.
d. renal hypoxia.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 834

 

  1. Renal secretion of renin causes the direct activation of:

 

a. angiotensin I.
b. angiotensin II.
c. antidiuretic hormone.
d. aldosterone.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 834

 

  1. The best clinical measure of renal function is:

 

a. glomerular filtration rate.
b. circulating ADH levels.
c. volume of urine output.
d. urine-specific gravity.

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 835

 

  1. An ACE inhibitor would have the following effect:

 

a. increase glomerular filtration rate.
b. increase the volume of urine output.
c. increase the blood pressure.
d. increase urinary osmolality.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 835

 

  1. A serum marker of renal function is:

 

a. bilirubin.
b. glucose.
c. urea.
d. ketones.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 836

 

  1. Glomerular filtration rate and plasma creatinine concentration are _____ related.

 

a. directly
b. indirectly
c. inversely
d. not

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 837

 

  1. The renal structure that drains through the renal papillae and into the calyces is the:

 

a. distal tubule.
b. collecting duct.
c. pyramid.
d. renal pelvis.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 837

 

  1. Just before entering the ureter, urine passes through the:

 

a. collecting duct.
b. renal pelvis.
c. urethra.
d. major calyx.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 837

 

  1. The trigone is defined as:

 

a. the orifice of the ureter.
b. the inner area of the kidney.
c. a triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
d. the three divisions of the loop of Henle.

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 838

 

  1. The portion of the male urethra that is closest to the bladder is the:

 

a. membranous portion.
b. prostatic portion.
c. cavernous portion.
d. vas deferens portion.

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 839

 

 

Craft, Gordon: Understanding Pathophysiology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 40: Māori health in Aotearoa New Zealand

 

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. What proportion of New Zealand’s population identify as Māori in the 2006 census?

 

a. 20.7%
b. 50.1%
c. 5.5%
d. 14.6%

ANS: D                       REF: p 1180

 

  1. What does the term Indigenous mean?

 

a. Aboriginal New Zealander
b. Originating and living in a particular place
c. Living a traditional lifestyle
d. A newly arrived migrant

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 1180

 

  1. What is the median age of the Māori population?

 

a. 45 years
b. 15 years
c. 23 years
d. 60 years

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 1180

 

  1. What is the median age of the New Zealand non-Māori population in the 2006 census?

 

a. 26 years
b. 50 years
c. 18 years
d. 64 years

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1180

 

  1. The life expectancy for male Māori is approximately how many years lower than for non-Māori?

 

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 1182

 

  1. What does the term tangata whenua describe?

 

a. Indigenous people of New Zealand
b. Non Māori people of New Zealand
c. Indigenous people of the world
d. All New Zealanders

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1180

 

  1. The majority of the Māori population live in the:

 

a. North Island
b. South Island
c. Australia
d. Chatham Islands

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1180

 

  1. What is the most common cause of death for Māori?

 

a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Diabetes
c. Cancer
d. Suicide

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1183

 

  1. The rate of fertility in Māori woman is:

 

a. 2.87 births per woman
b. 4.32 births per woman
c. 1.4 births per woman
d. 2.11 births per woman

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1182

 

 

  1. What is the most common comorbidity for Māori with coronary heart disease?

 

a. chronic kidney disease
b. obesity
c. cancers
d. diabetes

 

ANS: D                               REF: p 1183

 

  1. Several factors influence the incidence of diabetes. What factor is specific to Indigenous populations?

 

a. diet and exercise
b. lower body mass indexes
c. thrifty gene
d. Western diet

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 1185

 

  1. The overall rate of diabetes mellitus is ____ times greater than in the Māori population.

 

a. 3
b. 8
c. 4
d. 10

 

ANS: A                              REF: p 1185

 

  1. What are the most common reported mental health disorders for Māori?

 

a. Mood disorders and bipolar
b. Schizophrenia and anxiety
c. Bipolar and substance abuse
d. Mood disorders and substance abuse

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 1187

 

  1. What lifestyle factors impact on Māori health?

 

a. smoking
b. alcohol
c. obesity
d. all of the above

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 1191

 

  1. Recent research into rheumatic fever intervention amongst Māori children indicates that’s mitral valve replacement is ____ times more common than non-Māori.

 

a. 1
b. 3
c. 7
d. 9

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 1185

 

  1. Māori with type 2 diabetes are ______ times more likely to result in renal failure than non-Māori.

 

a. 5.7
b. 2.1
c. 3.5
d. 1.1

 

ANS: C                              REF: p 1186

 

  1. The social determinants that impact on Māori health are:

 

a. gender, sexuality and employment
b. education, employment and housing
c. addiction, transport and family support
d. education, low birth weight and loss of land

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 1193

 

  1. Poverty risks are higher in Māori; ______ % of low income Māori households say they cannot always afford to eat properly.

 

a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 50

 

ANS: B                              REF: p 1193

 

  1. According to the 2006 census what percentage of Māori were living in overcrowded conditions?

 

a. 5
b. 6
c. 10
d. 13

 

ANS: D                              REF: p 1194

 

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