Test Bank For Biology Science for Life with Physiology 4th Edition by Belk

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Biology Science for Life with Physiology 4th Edition by Belk – Test Bank 

 

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 2   Are We Alone in the Universe? Water, Biochemistry, and Cells

 

1) Each of the following is a feature of all known living things EXCEPT

  1. A) genes made from proteins.
  2. B) growth.
  3. C) homeostasis.
  4. D) metabolism.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) Which term best describes the water in a sugar-water solution?

  1. A) product
  2. B) reactant
  3. C) solute
  4. D) solvent

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

3) Which term best describes the sugar in a sugar-water solution?

  1. A) product
  2. B) reactant
  3. C) solute
  4. D) solvent

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

4) Because the electrons in a water molecule are shared unequally between hydrogen and oxygen, water is said to be

  1. A) hydrophobic.
  2. B) ionic.
  3. C) noncovalent.
  4. D) polar.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

5) Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom?

  1. A) electrons and neutrons
  2. B) neutrons and protons
  3. C) protons and electrons
  4. D) neutrons, electrons, and protons

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

6) Nonliving things include fire, water, and viruses. Many features of living things are also found in nonliving things. Of the following features, which is most likely to be absent in nonliving things?

  1. A) consumption of energy-containing molecules
  2. B) homeostasis
  3. C) reproduction
  4. D) response to external stimuli

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

7) An atom will be least likely to form chemical bonds with other atoms when

  1. A) the number of protons equals the number of electrons.
  2. B) the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.
  3. C) there is only one electron in the valence shell.
  4. D) the valence shell is full of electrons.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

8) What type of chemical bond connects the complementary strands of a DNA molecule to each other?

  1. A) hydrogen bonds
  2. B) ionic bonds
  3. C) nonpolar covalent bonds
  4. D) polar covalent bonds

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

9) If life on Mars is fundamentally like life on Earth, its macromolecules will be based on which element?

  1. A) carbon
  2. B) hydrogen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) oxygen

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

10) Imagine a newly discovered biological molecule that is mostly hydrophobic in its structure. This new molecule will most likely be classified as a

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) lipid.
  3. C) nucleic acid.
  4. D) protein.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

11) Which of the following pairs of molecules can be held together by a hydrogen bond?

  1. A) one polar molecule and one nonpolar molecule
  2. B) two ions
  3. C) two nonpolar molecules
  4. D) two polar molecules

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

12) What kind of bond holds the atoms of a single water molecule together?

  1. A) hydrogen bonds
  2. B) ionic bonds
  3. C) covalent bonds that are not polar
  4. D) covalent bonds that are polar

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

13) What kind of bond holds two water molecules to each other?

  1. A) hydrogen bonds
  2. B) ionic bonds
  3. C) nonpolar covalent bonds
  4. D) polar covalent bonds

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

14) In general, what makes one kind of amino acid different from other amino acids?

  1. A) the amino group
  2. B) the carboxyl group
  3. C) the side group
  4. D) the type of bonds

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

15) Which macromolecule has a sugar-phosphate backbone?

  1. A) lipid
  2. B) nucleic acid
  3. C) protein
  4. D) polysaccharide

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

16) The atomic number of an element refers to the number of ________ in one atom of that element.

  1. A) electrons
  2. B) neutrons
  3. C) protons
  4. D) protons plus neutrons

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

17) How do the concentrations of H+ and OH- compare to each other in an acidic solution?

  1. A) The concentration of H+is higher.
  2. B) The concentration of H+is lower.
  3. C) The concentration of H+is the same.
  4. D) Acidic solutions do not contain H+.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

18) What is the pH of a neutral solution?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 9

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

19) A molecule that is composed only of chains and rings of hydrogen and carbon is called a

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) hydrocarbon.
  3. C) polypeptide.
  4. D) polysaccharide.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

20) What is the name of a molecule composed of one or more sugars?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) lipid
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) polypeptide

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

21) Polysaccharides are polymers of

  1. A) amino acids.
  2. B) fatty acids.
  3. C) nucleotides.
  4. D) sugars.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

22) Proteins are polymers of

  1. A) amino acids.
  2. B) fatty acids.
  3. C) nucleotides.
  4. D) sugars.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

23) Nucleic acids are polymers of

  1. A) amino acids.
  2. B) fatty acids.
  3. C) nucleotides.
  4. D) sugars.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

24) Which of the following is a lipid?

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) cholesterol
  3. C) sucrose
  4. D) ribonucleic acid

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

25) What is the name for the ability of living things to maintain a relatively constant internal environment?

  1. A) cellular respiration
  2. B) homeostasis
  3. C) metabolism
  4. D) stimulus-response

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

26) Sodium chloride is composed of molecules that are stable when dry. In the presence of water, however, the atoms that compose the molecules separate from each other. What type of chemical bond holds the dry substance together?

  1. A) hydrogen bonds
  2. B) ionic bonds
  3. C) nonpolar covalent bonds
  4. D) polar covalent bonds

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

27) Cholesterol is classified as a lipid because it contains a large proportion of

  1. A) carbohydrates.
  2. B) phosphates.
  3. C) glycerol.
  4. D) hydrocarbons.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

28) Enzymes are

  1. A) carbohydrates.
  2. B) lipids.
  3. C) nucleic acids.
  4. D) proteins.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

29) The ________ of an organism is defined as all the chemical processes that occur in the cells of that organism.

Answer:  metabolism

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

30) ________ is the ability of living things to maintain a relatively constant internal environment even when the external environment is changing.

Answer:  Homeostasis

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

31) ________ are the smallest units into which an element can be broken down.

Answer:  Atoms

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

32) Proteins are composed of monomer subunits called ________ (two words).

Answer:  amino acids

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

33) Which of the following is considered part of a life-form’s metabolism?

  1. A) secretion of wastes
  2. B) growth and development
  3. C) responses to external stimuli
  4. D) reproduction

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

34) Which of the following is an element?

  1. A) water
  2. B) methane
  3. C) hydrogen
  4. D) carbon dioxide

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

35) Protons have a ________ charge and, collectively, give an element its ________.

  1. A) negative; polarity
  2. B) positive; atomic number
  3. C) negative; electronegativity
  4. D) positive; ionic charge

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

36) Which of the following is nonpolar?

  1. A) a positive ion
  2. B) a negative ion
  3. C) a neutral ion
  4. D) a molecule with no partial charges

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

37) Oxygen in highly electronegative, meaning that it

  1. A) pulls electrons toward itself.
  2. B) is nonpolar.
  3. C) repels electrons away from its nucleus and into the outermost electron shell.
  4. D) discharges electrons readily out of the atom.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

38) A solution with a pH of 2 has an H+ ion concentration that is ________ than a solution with a pH of 4.

  1. A) 2 times higher
  2. B) 10 times lower
  3. C) 100 times higher
  4. D) 1000 times lower

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Applied

39) Which of the following has the lowest OH- concentration?

  1. A) baking soda
  2. B) pure water
  3. C) coffee
  4. D) battery acid

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

40) Which pH represents an equal number of H+ and OH- ions?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 10

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Factual

 

41) Which of the following could accept one (and only one) electron?

  1. A) carbon (atomic number = 6)
  2. B) nitrogen (atomic number = 7)
  3. C) oxygen (atomic number = 8)
  4. D) hydrogen (atomic number = 1)

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Applied

 

42) Use the figure to answer the following question. If two or more of these molecules are in proximity to one another, how will they bond together?

  1. A) hydrogen bonding, with two hydrogen atoms bonded together
  2. B) covalent bonding, with two oxygen atoms bonded together
  3. C) hydrogen bonding, with a hydrogen atom bonded to an oxygen atom
  4. D) ionic bonding, with a hydrogen ion bonded to an oxygen atom

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.1

Skill:  Applied

 

43) Which organelle contains digestive enzymes that degrade a variety of macromolecules?

  1. A) chloroplast
  2. B) endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) lysosome
  4. D) mitochondrion

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

44) Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

  1. A) chloroplast
  2. B) endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) centriole
  4. D) mitochondrion

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

45) Which organelle performs photosynthesis?

  1. A) chloroplast
  2. B) Golgi apparatus
  3. C) lysosome
  4. D) mitochondrion

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

46) Which organelle performs cellular respiration?

  1. A) endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B) Golgi apparatus
  3. C) lysosome
  4. D) mitochondrion

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

47) Cells contain proteins that help transport substances from the exterior to the interior of the cell. Where are these proteins found?

  1. A) Golgi apparatus
  2. B) lysosome
  3. C) mitochondrion
  4. D) plasma membrane

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

48) Which organelle is represented by a network of membranes involved in the production of proteins?

  1. A) chloroplast
  2. B) endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) lysosome
  4. D) nucleus

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

49) Which organelle is a stack of membranous sacs that are involved in sorting proteins to their proper cellular location?

  1. A) centriole
  2. B) endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) Golgi apparatus
  4. D) lysosome

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

50) Which cell component is composed of microtubules and helps move chromosomes around during cell division?

  1. A) centriole
  2. B) chromatin
  3. C) cytoskeletal element
  4. D) nucleolus

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

51) Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments compose what part of a cell?

  1. A) centriole
  2. B) cholesterol
  3. C) chromatin
  4. D) cytoskeletal elements

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

52) What kind of molecule forms a bilayer that is the basis for all cellular membranes?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) cholesterol
  3. C) phospholipid
  4. D) protein

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

53) In what unit of a eukaryotic cell are ribosomes made?

  1. A) endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B) Golgi apparatus
  3. C) lysosome
  4. D) nucleolus

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

54) Which feature is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

  1. A) mitochondrion
  2. B) Golgi body
  3. C) DNA
  4. D) centriole

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

55) According to the theory of evolution, which states that all life-forms on Earth arose from a common ancestor, all living organisms

  1. A) share a common organic chemistry.
  2. B) have DNA within their nucleus.
  3. C) exhibit the same basic cell wall.
  4. D) perform the same mode of reproduction.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

56) The internal membrane-bound compartments found in eukaryotic cells are called ________.

Answer:  organelles

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

57) The ________ (two words) defines the outer boundary of all cells, separating the cell’s contents from its environment.

Answer:  plasma membrane

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

58) Proteins in cells are assembled on workbench-like structures called ________.

Answer:  ribosomes

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

59) Inside a eukarotic cell, the organelles are located within a watery matrix called the ________.

Answer:  cytosol

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

60) The ________ is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell that stores DNA in the form of chromatin.

Answer:  nucleus

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

61) Prokaryotic cells have

  1. A) a nucleus.
  2. B) endoplasmic reticulum.
  3. C) Golgi apparatus.
  4. D) a cell wall.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

62) The purported fossils in meteorite ALH84001 resemble modern prokaryotes called

  1. A) nanobacteria.
  2. B) amoebas.
  3. C) fungi.
  4. D) nucleoids.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

63) Scientists believe that the first prokaryotes on Earth arose over ________ years ago, and the first eukaryotes arose about ________ years later.

  1. A) 3.5 million; 1.7 million
  2. B) 1.7 million; 3.5 million
  3. C) 3.5 billion; 1.7 billion
  4. D) 1.7 billion; 3.5 billion

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

64) Prokaryotic cells are generally ________ the diameter of eukaryotic cells.

  1. A) twice
  2. B) one-half
  3. C) one-tenth
  4. D) one-thousandth

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

65) The plasma membrane of a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell

  1. A) converts carbon dioxide and water into sugars.
  2. B) isolates the cell’s contents from the external environment.
  3. C) controls protein synthesis in the cell.
  4. D) is composed of cellulose.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

66) The reactions of cellular respiration occur in the

  1. A) nucleolus of the nucleus.
  2. B) ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
  3. C) matrix of the mitochondria.
  4. D) hydrophobic core of the outermost cell plasma membrane.

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

67) The liquid interior of the chloroplast is called the

  1. A) centriole.
  2. B) chromatin.
  3. C) Golgi apparatus.
  4. D) stroma.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

68) The antibiotic streptomycin prevents protein synthesis in prokaryotes. Which cell component is the most likely target of this antibiotic?

  1. A) ribosome
  2. B) cell membrane
  3. C) Golgi apparatus
  4. D) cell wall

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Applied

 

69) Assume that a plant is suffering from drought and is beginning to wilt. Which cell component is most likely being affected, and what type of molecule is being lost from this structure?

  1. A) endoplasmic reticulum; protein
  2. B) Golgi apparatus; water
  3. C) lysosome; enzymes
  4. D) vacuole; water

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

70) Cell membranes are ________, which means that they allow certain molecules to pass through while preventing the passage of other molecules.

Answer:  semipermeable

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

71) Mitochondria convert food energy into a high-energy molecule that is directly usable by the cell, called ________.

Answer:           adenosine triphosphate

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

72) Which organelle in a scavenging white blood cell would break down bacteria that had entered the body?

Answer:  lysosome

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

73) The ________ is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth.

Answer:  cell

Diff: 1

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

74) Label the parts of the animal cell.

 

 

 

 

Answer:

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

75) Label the parts of the plant cell.

 

 

Answer:

Diff: 2

Topic:  2.2

Skill:  Factual

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 4   Fat: How Much is Right for You? Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration

 

1) The proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body are called

  1. A) enzymes.
  2. B) coenzymes.
  3. C) antioxidants.
  4. D) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) What would happen if activation energy barriers didn’t exist?

  1. A) Substrates would not bind properly to enzymes.
  2. B) Chemical reactions in the body would never occur.
  3. C) Coenzymes would not work, but enzyme function would not be affected.
  4. D) All chemical reactions in the body would proceed whether they were needed or not.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

3) Activation energy is similar to the “push” needed to start rolling a stalled car down a hill. How do enzymes fit into this analogy?

  1. A) Enzymes increase the effort that’s needed to start the car moving.
  2. B) Enzymes decrease the effort that’s needed to start the car moving.
  3. C) Enzymes increase the steepness of the hill that the car will roll down.
  4. D) Enzymes decrease the distance the car needs to move to reach the bottom of the hill.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Applied

 

4) What makes some people “lactose intolerant” as adults?

  1. A) Some people don’t produce any enzymes, including the one needed to digest lactose.
  2. B) Lactose can only be digested by people who produce enough lactic acid to digest it.
  3. C) Lactose-intolerant people don’t produce adequate amounts of lactase.
  4. D) The active site of the lactose-digesting enzyme can vary from person to person.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

5) Which of these people is most likely to use the most Calories during 20 minutes of exercise?

  1. A) a 70-year-old woman who weighs 120 pounds
  2. B) a 30-year-old man who weighs 250 pounds
  3. C) a 25-year-old woman who weighs 135 pounds
  4. D) a 45-year-old man who weighs 180 pounds

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Applied

 

6) Which of the following is a true statement about caloric energy conversions?

  1. A) A calorie is the same as a Calorie.
  2. B) A kilocalorie is the same as a calorie.
  3. C) A kilocalorie is the same as 1000 calories.
  4. D) A kilocalorie is the same as 1000 Calories.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

7) More ________ will not increase an individual’s basal metabolic rate.

  1. A) exercise
  2. B) testosterone
  3. C) muscle mass
  4. D) caloric intake

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

8) To lose one pound of fat in a week, what combination of changes in your diet and exercise is needed?

  1. A) Reduce food intake by 200 Calories per day and increase exercise to burn off 300 more Calories per day.
  2. B) Reduce food intake by 300 Calories per day and increase exercise to burn off 100 more Calories per day.
  3. C) Reduce food intake by 400 Calories per day with no change in exercise.
  4. D) Increase exercise to burn off 400 more Calories per day with no change in diet.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Applied

9) The resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active is called ________ (three words).

Answer:  basal metabolic rate

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

10) Which of the following is most likely an enzyme?

  1. A) proline
  2. B) stearic acid
  3. C) endopeptidase
  4. D) acetylcholine

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

11) Assume that a newly developed chemical agent blocks the active site of the enzyme shown in the figure. This drug must be similar in shape and size to

  1. A) glucose.
  2. B) fructose.
  3. C) sucrase.
  4. D) sucrose.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Applied

12) Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?

  1. A) Enzymes are not very specific.
  2. B) Enzymes are not affected by high heat, as proteins are.
  3. C) Enzymes can be recycled and used over and over again.
  4. D) Enzymes are “used up” during chemical reactions.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

13) An infinite variety of enzymes and other proteins could be produced from the ________ amino acids in the human body.

  1. A) 10
  2. B) 20
  3. C) millions of
  4. D) infinite variety of

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

14) In the human body, the enzyme lactase acts on which substrate?

  1. A) lactose
  2. B) galactose
  3. C) lactic acid
  4. D) glucose

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Factual

 

15) How many calories would be needed to heat up one kilogram (1000 grams) of water by 1 degree Celsius?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 10
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 1000

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.1

Skill:  Applied

16) What is the source of chemical energy used to power a muscle cell in your arm?

  1. A) pyruvic acid
  2. B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
  3. C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
  4. D) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

17) After glycolysis, pyruvic acid loses a carbon dioxide molecule. In other words, the pyruvic acid is

  1. A) denatured.
  2. B) phosphorylated.
  3. C) decarboxylated.
  4. D) oxidated.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

18) How does ATP provide energy to a cell?

  1. A) It loses a phosphate group, releasing energy in the process.
  2. B) It releases electrons, which are a source of energy.
  3. C) It releases protons, which are used in the mitochondrion to create energy.
  4. D) It shuttles electrons across the mitochondrial membrane to create potential energy.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

19) Chemical work within cells is powered by

  1. A) NAD+.
  2. B) NADPH.
  3. C) CO2.
  4. D) ATP.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

20) Where does the carbon dioxide you exhale come from?

  1. A) aerobic respiration
  2. B) anaerobic respiration
  3. C) glycolysis
  4. D) transpiration

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

21) Which of the following processes creates the most ATP per glucose molecule metabolized?

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) fermentation
  3. C) anaerobic respiration
  4. D) aerobic cellular respiration

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Applied

 

22) In cellular respiration, ________ is produced during ________.

  1. A) oxygen; the citric acid cycle
  2. B) carbon dioxide; the citric acid cycle
  3. C) oxygen; the electron transport chain
  4. D) carbon dioxide; the electron transport chain

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

23) Metabolic pathways that require oxygen are referred to as

  1. A) aerobic.
  2. B) anaerobic.
  3. C) photosynthetic.
  4. D) fermentative.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

24) Which of the following is a “metabolic taxicab” that shuttles electrons?

  1. A) OAA
  2. B) NADH
  3. C) ATP
  4. D) ADP

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

25) The main biochemical function of the electron transport chain is to

  1. A) break glucose into pyruvic acid.
  2. B) add phosphate groups to ATP.
  3. C) regenerate OAA.
  4. D) force hydrogen ions through ATP synthase.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

26) What is the name and function of the protein channel where H+ ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?

  1. A) ATP synthase; to add a phosphate to ADP
  2. B) OAA; to remove a phosphate from ATP
  3. C) grana; to break the bonds of ATP
  4. D) pyruvic acid; to create ADP from ATP

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

27) Most of the large, fast-flowing rivers in the northwest United States are blocked by human-made dams. Water is directed through pipes in each dam that lead to hydroelectric generators. The generators in these dams create electricity as water rushes past them. This is most similar to which of the following metabolic processes?

  1. A) the splitting of glucose during glycolysis
  2. B) the release of carbon dioxide during the citric acid cycle
  3. C) the transport of electrons by NADH
  4. D) the passage of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase to make ADP into ATP

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

28) Which of the following macromolecules can’t be broken down in the body and used to produce ATP?

  1. A) carbohydrates
  2. B) proteins
  3. C) fats
  4. D) vitamins

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

29) During the process of cellular respiration, what is the final acceptor for electrons at the end of the electron transport chain?

  1. A) oxygen
  2. B) carbon
  3. C) carbon dioxide
  4. D) hydrogen

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

30) During glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken into two 3-carbon molecules of ________ (two words).

Answer:  pyruvic acid

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

31) The products of cellular respiration are ________ and ________.

Answer:  CO2 and H2O

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

32) If necessary, our muscles can rely upon an anaerobic (fermentative) pathway to metabolize glucose, but this can only last a short period of time. Why can’t our cells survive very long under such anaerobic conditions?

  1. A) Fermentation doesn’t extract enough ATP from glucose to sustain our energy-craving cells.
  2. B) Anaerobic conditions creates a “carbon dioxide debt” that needs to be repaid quickly before the cells die.
  3. C) The ethyl alcohol that builds up in muscles as a result of fermentation is a toxin.
  4. D) Lactic acid causes the cell to die when it’s exposed to even lower concentrations.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

33) If loading and shooting a dart gun is analogous to how ATP functions, which of the following components of ATP is similar to the dart?

  1. A) the nitrogenous base
  2. B) the sugar
  3. C) a phosphate
  4. D) a photon

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

34) ATP helps to power ________ work when a muscle cell contracts.

  1. A) chemical
  2. B) transport
  3. C) mechanical
  4. D) potential

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

35) Transport work across cell membranes is powered by the release of energy from

  1. A) ADP.
  2. B) ATP.
  3. C) NADP.
  4. D) NADPH.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

36) What happens to an ATP molecule after it has released a phosphate?

  1. A) It becomes AMP and is recycled into proteins.
  2. B) It is phosphorylated and becomes ADP.
  3. C) It is converted into lactic acid and transported to the liver for disposal.
  4. D) It is secreted in urine as a waste product of cellular respiration.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

37) Creatine phosphate (marketed as “creatine”) is a popular supplement taken by weightlifters and other athletes. This supplement provides phosphates that

  1. A) readily allow for the regeneration of ATP.
  2. B) break down glucose during the citric acid cycle.
  3. C) accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
  4. D) ensure ATP is never broken down into ADP.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Applied

 

38) During cellular respiration, where does the energy released from glucose go as it is metabolized into the low-energy compounds carbon dioxide and water? The energy released from glucose goes

  1. A) into ATP.
  2. B) into lactic acid.
  3. C) out of the cell as heat.
  4. D) into electrons that directly power the cell.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

39) Which of the following occurs inside the mitochondria?

  1. A) glycolysis
  2. B) fermentation
  3. C) citric acid cycle and electron transport
  4. D) glycolysis and electron transport

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

40) The first reactant in the citric acid cycle is

  1. A) pyruvic acid (C3H3O3).
  2. B) glucose (C6H12O6).
  3. C) carbon dioxide (CO2).
  4. D) oxalaoacetate (OAA).

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

41) The reactions of the citric acid cycle are catalyzed by a series of ________.

Answer:  enzymes

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

42) During glycolysis, NAD+ picks up a hydrogen atom along with its electron to form

  1. A) NADP.
  2. B) NADPH.
  3. C) NADH.
  4. D) H2

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

43) Which molecule results from the process of fermentation?

  1. A) ADP
  2. B) NADPH
  3. C) NADH
  4. D) NAD+

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

44) What happens to the lactic acid created during fermentation in human muscle cells?

  1. A) It is directly converted into ATP.
  2. B) It donates a phosphate to ADP to recharge ATP.
  3. C) It goes to the liver, where it’s converted into pyruvic acid.
  4. D) It joins with electrons and hydrogen ions to form H2

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

45) Which of the following are made during glycolysis?

  1. A) NADH and ATP
  2. B) ADP and NADPH
  3. C) water and NAD+
  4. D) oxygen and water

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

46) If no oxygen is available in a cell, then ________ will follow glycolysis.

  1. A) fermentation
  2. B) cellular respiration
  3. C) phosphorylation
  4. D) the conversion of CO2into O2

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

47) How much ATP is produced from one glucose molecule if no oxygen is available to a muscle cell during contraction?

  1. A) none
  2. B) 1 molecule
  3. C) 2 molecules
  4. D) 26 molecules

Answer:  C

Diff: 3

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

48) Fats are composed of fatty acids and ________, which can both be metabolized for the production of ATP.

  1. A) amino acids
  2. B) monosaccharides
  3. C) nucleic acids
  4. D) glycerol

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

49) The tart flavor of sour cream is due to

  1. A) ADP produced by microbes during glycolysis.
  2. B) lactic acid, produced anaerobically by microbes.
  3. C) ethyl alcohol that forms as the cream is broken down by microbes.
  4. D) citric acid released by microbes as they undergo the citric acid cycle.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

50) The figure shows the different pathways taken by the subunits of macronutrients during cellular respiration. Which macronutrient subunit is never converted into pyruvic acid before entering the citric acid cycle?

  1. A) an amino acid
  2. B) a fatty acid
  3. C) glycerol
  4. D) glucose

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

51) According to the diagram, how many molecules of oxygen (O2) combine with electrons and hydrogen ions to form one molecule of water (H2O) at the end of the electron transport chain?

  1. A) 1/2
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 2
  4. D) none

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

52) Why is oxygen needed in cellular respiration?

  1. A) Oxygen combines with ADP to create ATP.
  2. B) Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
  3. C) Oxygen carries electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain.
  4. D) Fermentation in muscle cells relies upon oxygen as an electron acceptor.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

53) Ethanol and carbon dioxide are released from the cell during

  1. A) glycolysis.
  2. B) the citric acid cycle.
  3. C) the electron transport chain.
  4. D) alcohol fermentation.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.2

Skill:  Factual

 

54) Which of these statements is generally true?

  1. A) Men have a thicker dermis than women, causing male muscles to appear larger.
  2. B) People with larger body frames carry more body fat than people with smaller body frames.
  3. C) Younger people tend to carry more fat than older people.
  4. D) Larger muscles contain more fatty tissue than smaller muscles.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

55) A person with a BMI of 23 is considered to be ________.

Answer:  healthy

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

56) What amount of body fat is normal and healthy for a 19-year-old woman?

  1. A) 3%
  2. B) 8%
  3. C) 10%
  4. D) 20%

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

57) Why is a very low level of body fat unhealthy in young women?

  1. A) Women need a certain amount of fat to maintain their fertility.
  2. B) Reduced levels of body fat make a woman unable to expend any energy.
  3. C) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of developing diabetes.
  4. D) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of having very heavy menstrual bleeding.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

58) Which of the following is a true statement about the differences in fat and energy storage between average men and women?

  1. A) Men have proportionally more energy stores (fat) than women.
  2. B) Women store proportionally more fat in their breasts, hips, and thighs than men.
  3. C) Women need less body fat than men in order to maintain normal menstruation and to become pregnant.
  4. D) Women store less energy as fat and burn more energy, proportionally, than men.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

 

59) Why isn’t a BMI (Body Mass Index) a perfectly reliable way to estimate your health?

  1. A) It considers your height but not your weight.
  2. B) It considers your weight but not your height.
  3. C) It doesn’t account for differences in muscle mass between individuals.
  4. D) Your relative amount of body fat is not correlated with the risk of illness and death.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

60) Which of the following diseases is associated with a BMI of 16 or lower?

  1. A) diabetes
  2. B) hypertension
  3. C) heart attack
  4. D) osteoporosis

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

61) Which is a correct statement about diet, exercise, and disease?

  1. A) Type II diabetes is a disorder that can’t be controlled by a change in diet or exercise.
  2. B) Hypertension is a major disease associated with lack of exercise and an unhealthy diet.
  3. C) Heart attacks are due to factors such as a lack of diet and exercise but are not due to genetics.
  4. D) Increased exercise and a better diet can clear away all HDL and LDL cholesterol from blood vessels.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual

62) Eating large amounts of food, followed by self-induced vomiting, is a type of eating disorder called

  1. A) anorexia.
  2. B) bulimia.
  3. C) osteoporosis.
  4. D) atherosclerosis.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

63) Eating disorders in which the body is starved of calories are dangerous because

  1. A) menstruation can cease, causing sterility.
  2. B) the risk of stroke can increase.
  3. C) they can cause adult-onset diabetes or noninsulin-dependent diabetes.
  4. D) they can lead to high blood pressure and weakened heart muscles.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

64) The role of insulin in the human body is to

  1. A) increase the level of sugar in the blood.
  2. B) decrease the amount of body fat.
  3. C) trigger body cells to take up glucose.
  4. D) trigger the immune system to destroy the beta cells in the pancreas.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

65) Another term for high blood pressure is ________.

Answer:  hypertension

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

66) Jim has a total cholesterol level of 220. What could he do to reduce his risk of stroke or heart attack?

  1. A) eat only one meal per day
  2. B) consume more vegetables and fruit
  3. C) eat only high-protein foods
  4. D) eat more protein and more calories

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  3.1 and 4.3

Skill:  Applied

 

67) Which of the following is generally true, regarding differences in fat deposition between healthy men and healthy women?

  1. A) Men have more fat under their skin than women do.
  2. B) Men have less fat stored on their thighs than women do.
  3. C) Men have a higher body fat percentage than women do.
  4. D) Men need more body fat than women to maintain their fertility.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

68) Shannon has considered herself an extremely healthy person for most of her life. She is a marathon runner and watches her diet very carefully. She has 8% body fat, weighs 105 pounds, and is 5 foot 10 inches tall. Shannon might not actually be as healthy as she thinks because she

  1. A) is overweight for her height.
  2. B) likely has metabolic problems associated with high blood pressure.
  3. C) doesn’t have enough body fat for menstruation or pregnancy.
  4. D) doesn’t consume enough nutrients for normal bodily functions.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual/Applied

 

69) Marquisha is 5 foot 6 inches, weighs 155 pounds, and has a body fat percentage of 27%. Although she’s not obese, she doesn’t fit the body image of the models in her magazines. How would biologists view Marquisha’s health?

  1. A) She is at elevated risk for amenorrhea.
  2. B) Her BMI is alarmingly high.
  3. C) She is unhealthy because of her weight and needs to lose weight.
  4. D) Her body fat percentage falls within the ideal range for women, and she’s not overweight.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

70) Which of the following is true regarding the BMI of healthy men and women?

  1. A) Healthy men always have a higher BMI than healthy women.
  2. B) A BMI of 10 or less is ideal for both sexes.
  3. C) Both healthy men and women have a BMI of at least 20 but less than 25.
  4. D) The BMI of both healthy men and healthy women tends to decrease with age.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

71) Approximately one out of every ________ Americans has a BMI greater than 30 and is considered ________.

  1. A) 3; underweight
  2. B) 3; overweight
  3. C) 20; overweight
  4. D) 20; underweight

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

72) Which of the following is associated with obesity?

  1. A) Type 1, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
  2. B) Type 2, noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
  3. C) osteoporosis
  4. D) altered heart rhythms

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  4.3

Skill:  Factual

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 9   Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene Expression, Mutation, and Cloning

 

1) A DNA molecule consists of

  1. A) amino acids.
  2. B) nucleotides.
  3. C) fatty acid chains.
  4. D) polysaccharides.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) Which of the following pairs with adenine in a DNA molecule?

  1. A) cytosine
  2. B) thymine
  3. C) uracil
  4. D) guanine

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

3) A sequence of DNA codes for a

  1. A) protein.
  2. B) lipid.
  3. C) monosaccharide.
  4. D) nucleotide.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

4) The structure of a protein is determined by

  1. A) the number of amino acids it contains.
  2. B) the sequence of the amino acids it contains.
  3. C) the function of the nucleic acids it contains.
  4. D) the number of fatty acids it contains.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

5) A molecule of RNA (ribonucleic acid) contains the bases

  1. A) adenine, guanine, thymine, and uracil.
  2. B) uracil, adenine, guanine, and adenosine.
  3. C) thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine.
  4. D) adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

6) Which molecule remains in the nucleus during protein synthesis?

  1. A) DNA
  2. B) tRNA
  3. C) mRNA
  4. D) rRNA

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

7) The sequence of events in the process of protein synthesis is usually

  1. A) Protein → RNA → DNA.
  2. B) RNA → DNA → protein.
  3. C) DNA → RNA → protein.
  4. D) RNA → protein → DNA.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

8) Which of the following complementary base pairings occur between DNA and RNA?

  1. A) A to T and C to G
  2. B) T to C and A to G
  3. C) G to C and A to U
  4. D) C to U and A to T

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

9) The process of copying a sequence of DNA nucleotides into a complementary sequence of RNA nucleotides is called

  1. A) translation.
  2. B) mutation.
  3. C) transcription.
  4. D) excision.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

10) The RNA molecule that carries the sequence of nucleotides needed to determine the order of amino acids in a protein is

  1. A) transfer RNA.
  2. B) ribosomal RNA.
  3. C) messenger RNA.
  4. D) translator RNA.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

11) RNA polymerase binds to the ________ to begin the process of transcription.

  1. A) promoter
  2. B) structural gene
  3. C) codon
  4. D) anticodon

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

12) Which of the following is not directly involved in the process of translation?

  1. A) ribosome
  2. B) tRNA
  3. C) mRNA
  4. D) DNA

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

13) The rate of production of cellular proteins within each cell is regulated through which of the following?

  1. A) redundancy in the genetic code
  2. B) frameshift mutations
  3. C) gene expression
  4. D) ambiguity in the genetic code

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

14) Milk production in modern dairy cows has been dramatically increased because of

  1. A) the insertion of Ti plasmids in the cow genome.
  2. B) recombinant bovine growth hormone.
  3. C) frameshift mutations in the DNA of the cows.
  4. D) the use of gene guns to insert rBGH genes into the mammary tissues of cows.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

15) Which of the following is found in the nucleotides of DNA but NOT in RNA?

  1. A) a sugar
  2. B) a phosphate group
  3. C) deoxyribose
  4. D) a nitrogen-containing base

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

16) RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

  1. A) is contained in the nucleus.
  2. B) doesn’t contain a sugar.
  3. C) is single-stranded.
  4. D) takes part in transcription.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

17) When genes are copied (in transcription), the resulting copy is in the form of a

  1. A) complementary strand of DNA.
  2. B) strand of mRNA.
  3. C) molecule of tRNA.
  4. D) palindrome.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

18) If the process of protein synthesis in a cell is analogous to a politician’s speech being written down by a reporter and then converted into a different language before being published, then the initial step (being written down by a reporter) corresponds to

  1. A) transcription.
  2. B) translation.
  3. C) genetic recombination.
  4. D) cloning.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

19) The nucleotide sequence on a section of DNA where transcription begins is called a

  1. A) polymerase.
  2. B) palindrome.
  3. C) promoter.
  4. D) codon.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

20) Which of the following serves as the template during transcription?

  1. A) DNA
  2. B) mRNA
  3. C) tRNA
  4. D) polymerase

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

21) Which of the following serves as the template during translation?

  1. A) DNA
  2. B) mRNA
  3. C) tRNA
  4. D) polymerase

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

22) Ribosomes are made of subunits that are composed of

  1. A) mRNA and DNA.
  2. B) tRNA and mRNA.
  3. C) rRNA and proteins.
  4. D) DNA and proteins.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

23) What is the function of tRNA molecules during translation?

  1. A) They unzip double-stranded mRNA.
  2. B) They serve as the starting point for RNA polymerase.
  3. C) They carry amino acids to the ribosome.
  4. D) They encode the instructions for protein synthesis.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

24) Which of the following always contain three nucleotides?

  1. A) tRNA
  2. B) an anticodon
  3. C) mRNA
  4. D) ribosome

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

25) What type of bond is formed between amino acids at the ribosome during translation?

  1. A) peptide
  2. B) ester
  3. C) phosphodiester
  4. D) hydrogen

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

26) What signal when present at the ribosome causes protein synthesis to end?

  1. A) DNA
  2. B) tRNA
  3. C) a stop codon
  4. D) RNA polymerase

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

27) Which amino acid always begins a polypeptide (protein) during translation?

  1. A) valine
  2. B) phenylalanine
  3. C) methionine
  4. D) arginine

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

28) When a mutation results in no significant change in the production of a functional protein, it’s called a

  1. A) frameshift mutation.
  2. B) substitution mutation.
  3. C) normal mutation.
  4. D) neutral mutation.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

29) Activators present near a gene that can be “turned on” will result in

  1. A) increased transcription.
  2. B) decreased gene expression.
  3. C) unwinding of the DNA double helix.
  4. D) a shift in the reading frame.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

30) Which of the following would allow gene expression to proceed?

  1. A) X-chromosome inactivation
  2. B) an increase in proteases
  3. C) an increase in repressor proteins
  4. D) a reduction in nucleases

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

31) A double-stranded DNA molecule that has 22% guanine will have

  1. A) 22% thymine.
  2. B) 22% cytosine.
  3. C) 44% adenine.
  4. D) 48% thymine.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

32) Imagine that a mutation in a DNA molecule results in the codon CCU being changed to CCC. Both of these codons code for proline. The fact that more than one codon can code for the same amino acid is referred to as

  1. A) the ambiguity of the genetic code.
  2. B) the redundancy of the genetic code.
  3. C) the universality of the genetic code.
  4. D) mutations in the genetic code.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

33) A point mutation results in the incorporation of a new amino acid in a protein. Which of the following would be the most likely result?

  1. A) an incomplete protein that still functions normally
  2. B) an altered protein, which could result in a genetic disease
  3. C) two proteins produced instead of one
  4. D) no change to the function of the protein

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

34) Which of the following could be incorporated into a protein?

  1. A) alanine
  2. B) ribonucleic acid
  3. C) thymine
  4. D) uracil

Answer:  A

Diff: 3

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

35) Gene regulation in eukaryotic cells includes

  1. A) activators that help RNA polymerase bind to the promoter.
  2. B) repressors that prevent DNA polymerase from binding.
  3. C) activation of the X chromosome.
  4. D) degradation of nucleases by mRNA.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

36) If a DNA sequence of a gene reads, in part, TAACAGGTCA, what is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA?

  1. A) ATTGTCCAGT
  2. B) AUUGUCCAGU
  3. C) UUACAGGUCC
  4. D) CTTGTGGACC

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

37) As shown in this figure, which of the following is a difference between DNA and RNA?

  1. A) the presence of a nitrogen-containing base
  2. B) the presence of a phosphate group
  3. C) the type of sugar present
  4. D) the presence of guanine

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

38) Which of the following pairs includes items that aren’t analogous according to this figure?

  1. A) protein; cake
  2. B) amino acids; flour, sugar, and eggs
  3. C) tRNA; copy of recipe
  4. D) genome in nucleus; cookbook on shelf

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

39) What is the sequence of the mRNA made from the gene TTACAGGTCC?

  1. A) UUACAGGUCC
  2. B) AATGTCCAGG
  3. C) AAUGUCCAGG
  4. D) GGAGTGGACC

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

40) Which of these is a polymer made of nucleotides?

  1. A) nuclease
  2. B) mRNA
  3. C) proline
  4. D) RNA polymerase

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Factual

 

41) Which of the following “unzips” the double helix of DNA?

  1. A) an anticodon
  2. B) mRNA
  3. C) tRNA
  4. D) RNA polymerase

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

42) As a result of a frameshift mutation,

  1. A) one or two nucleotides are added or deleted in a DNA strand.
  2. B) amino acids are assembled into normal, functional proteins.
  3. C) the DNA is always modified in such a way that protein synthesis is prevented.
  4. D) the substitution of one amino acid for another with similar chemical properties has no effect on protein synthesis.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

43) Recombinant proteins refer to proteins that have been made in which manner?

  1. A) from chemicals in the lab
  2. B) by genetically modified bacteria
  3. C) more potent or more highly concentrated before their use
  4. D) directly from deoxyribonucleic acids, thus bypassing transcription and translation

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

 

44) Which statement best describes how the FDA regulates the food industry?

  1. A) All new foods developed by industry, whether they contain new products or old products, are put through a rigorous testing program by the FDA.
  2. B) Newly developed foods or food additives must be certified safe by the FDA before they can be marketed to the public.
  3. C) Foods must be clearly labeled in accordance with FDA guidelines to indicate whether they’re naturally occurring or genetically modified food products.
  4. D) New foods can be marketed without FDA approval until there is a clear health issue with the food.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

45) All the genes in an organism constitute its

  1. A) palindrome.
  2. B) genome.
  3. C) genetic code.
  4. D) reading frame.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

 

46) The GRAS designation made by the FDA stands for

  1. A) “genetic research and support.”
  2. B) “genome recognized and studied.”
  3. C) “genetically recombined and synthesized.”
  4. D) “generally regarded as safe.”

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

 

47) Which of the following foods or food ingredients come under the FDA jurisdiction for ensuring food safety?

  1. A) vitamin tablets
  2. B) cheese
  3. C) sirloin steaks
  4. D) chicken wings

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

48) The “highly specific molecular scissors” that cut DNA are called

  1. A) plasmids.
  2. B) anticodons.
  3. C) codons.
  4. D) restriction enzymes.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

49) In genetics, palindromes refer to

  1. A) the types of DNA sequences that are cut out by restriction enzymes.
  2. B) the A-T complementary bases of DNA.
  3. C) the C-G complementary bases of DNA.
  4. D) the A-U base pairing between DNA and mRNA.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

 

50) The molecular structure that geneticists use to insert foreign DNA into a recipient bacterial cell where it can be replicated is called a(n)

  1. A) codon.
  2. B) anticodon.
  3. C) genome.
  4. D) plasmid.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.2

Skill:  Factual

 

51) Which of the following is least likely to be genetically modified?

  1. A) microwave popcorn
  2. B) potato chips
  3. C) a candy bar
  4. D) a head of broccoli

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

52) Genetically modifying crop plants can do which of the following?

  1. A) decrease pesticide resistance in the plants.
  2. B) make the plants more resistant to freezing.
  3. C) reduce the amount of fat in the plants.
  4. D) increase the incidence of galls in the plants.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

53) Genetically modified foods have resulted in

  1. A) rice that allows greater synthesis of vitamin A.
  2. B) calorie-free potato chips.
  3. C) a tomato that tastes like a melon.
  4. D) lettuce that doesn’t require water to grow.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

54) A recombinant Ti plasmid can be used to

  1. A) insert genes from any source into a bacterium.
  2. B) insert bacterial genes into a human.
  3. C) insert genes from any source into a plant.
  4. D) remove specific genes from a plant.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

55) The possibly harmful environmental effects of GM foods include which of the following?

  1. A) the decreased use of herbicides when GM foods are herbicide-resistant
  2. B) the transfer of genetically modified genes to weedy relatives
  3. C) the reduction of genetic diversity in all crops
  4. D) an increase in allergic reactions in sensitive humans

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

56) Genetically modified tomatoes have been designed with which purpose in mind?

  1. A) improving absorption of vitamins in the human body
  2. B) continuing growth even after temperatures fall below freezing
  3. C) killing insect pests on contact
  4. D) having a longer shelf life in grocery stores

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

57) The β-carotene was inserted into GM golden rice to allow a person to

  1. A) better synthesize proteins in the body.
  2. B) see better under low light conditions.
  3. C) more efficiently digest his or her starchy diet.
  4. D) better synthesize vitamin A in the body.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

58) The Ti plasmid originated from

  1. A) the baker’s yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  2. B) the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
  3. C) the fungus Candida albicans.
  4. D) the bacterium coli.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

59) What are genetically modified organisms (GMOs) also called?

  1. A) artificial crop plants
  2. B) artificially selected organisms
  3. C) transgenic organisms
  4. D) mutant crop plants

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

60) Approximately ________ of the foods in American grocery stores contain at least small amounts of GMOs.

  1. A) less than 10%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) over 75%

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

61) To what does the “Ti” in Ti plasmid refer?

  1. A) tumor inducing
  2. B) transcription initiating
  3. C) translation initiating
  4. D) tumefaciens inclusion

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

62) Plant galls are

  1. A) tumors caused by Ti plasmids in nature.
  2. B) the result of neutral mutations.
  3. C) pellets of foreign DNA inserted into the plants with a gene gun.
  4. D) transgenic organisms containing foreign DNA of plant origin.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Factual

 

63) Roundup Ready soybean plants

  1. A) produce fewer amino acids than regular soybean plants.
  2. B) are extremely sensitive to herbicides but have a greater yield of soybeans.
  3. C) have been modified to resist certain chemicals applied by farmers to control weeds.
  4. D) manufacture very high levels of β-carotene.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

64) Data from the Human Genome Project might help scientists

  1. A) understand who might be susceptible to certain diseases.
  2. B) clone humans more easily.
  3. C) understand the effects of genetically modified foods on the human body.
  4. D) cure most human diseases.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Factual

65) The raw data from the human genome project consists of

  1. A) the order of the bases A, T, G, and C in human DNA.
  2. B) a list of all the genes expressed in each human cell type.
  3. C) the disease conditions associated with each human chromosome.
  4. D) the length of the DNA molecule making up each human chromosome.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Factual

 

66) Which of the following is an example of gene therapy?

  1. A) replacing a failing heart with a new heart from a genetically matched donor
  2. B) injecting human factor VIII protein into hemophiliacs with a defective factor VIII gene
  3. C) infecting a cystic fibrosis patient with a virus carrying a working copy of the cystic fibrosis gene
  4. D) providing therapeutic drugs to a patient experiencing high blood pressure

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

67) Which type of disease condition would most likely be successfully treated by gene therapy?

  1. A) a disease caused by a nonfunctional enzyme in the body
  2. B) a disease caused by excess fat intake
  3. C) a disease caused by bacterial infection
  4. D) a cancer caused by uncontrolled cell division

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

68) The undifferentiated cells that can be used in therapeutic cloning are

  1. A) plasmid cells.
  2. B) stem cells.
  3. C) somatic cells.
  4. D) transgenic cells.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Factual

69) Therapeutic cloning aims to produce ________ from stem cells.

  1. A) healthy tissues
  2. B) genomes
  3. C) model organisms
  4. D) reproductive clones

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Factual

 

70) The famous sheep “Dolly” was the result of

  1. A) therapeutic cloning.
  2. B) the Human Genome Project.
  3. C) stem cell research.
  4. D) nuclear transfer.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Topic:  9.4

Skill:  Conceptual

 

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk)

Chapter 17   Organ Donation: Tissues, Organs, and Organ Systems

 

1) Which tissue type lines the intestines and helps in the absorption of nutrients?

  1. A) muscle
  2. B) connective
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) nervous

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

2) Similar cells that are grouped together and perform a common function are called

  1. A) tissues.
  2. B) organs.
  3. C) organ systems.
  4. D) accessory organs.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

3) Which tissue type in the human body is often exposed to air?

  1. A) muscle
  2. B) connective
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) nervous

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

4) Fat and blood are classified as ________ tissues.

  1. A) muscle
  2. B) connective
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) nervous

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

5) What type of matrix does adipose (fat) tissue exhibit?

  1. A) liquid
  2. B) viscous
  3. C) solid
  4. D) fibrous

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

6) The cells that make up loose connective tissue are called

  1. A) fibroblasts.
  2. B) osteocytes.
  3. C) chondrocytes.
  4. D) hepatocytes.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

7) What is a function of loose connective tissue?

  1. A) to hold organs in place
  2. B) to store energy-rich reserves of fat
  3. C) to move substances throughout the body
  4. D) to contract when signaled by nerve cells

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

8) When stored fat is used for energy, adipose cells in the body

  1. A) grow larger.
  2. B) become smaller.
  3. C) multiply.
  4. D) are converted into fibroblasts.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

9) Which cellular component of blood helps in clotting?

  1. A) red blood cells
  2. B) white blood cells
  3. C) plasma
  4. D) platelets

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

10) The cells that make up cartilage are called

  1. A) fibroblasts.
  2. B) osteocytes.
  3. C) chondrocytes.
  4. D) hepatocytes.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

11) Why does cigarette smoke cause a smoker’s skin to wrinkle over time?

  1. A) The fibroblast cells that secrete proteins to the skin are degraded.
  2. B) The collagen and elastin matrix that holds skin to muscle is broken down.
  3. C) The ground substance in skin is converted to protein fibers.
  4. D) The nervous tissue that makes skin tighten is destroyed.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

12) Which of these connective tissues has a liquid matrix?

  1. A) cartilage
  2. B) blood
  3. C) adipose tissue
  4. D) fibrous connective tissue

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

13) Besides structural support for the body, what function do bones serve?

  1. A) They synthesize fat, a source of energy.
  2. B) They provide sites for the storage of water.
  3. C) They are compressible and flexible enough to act as shock absorbers.
  4. D) They donate certain minerals when dietary levels are insufficient.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

14) How do striated and smooth muscles differ?

  1. A) Striated muscle is involuntary, but smooth muscle is voluntary.
  2. B) Striated muscle has a banding pattern under the microscope, but smooth muscle doesn’t.
  3. C) Striated muscle can contract for a long period, but smooth muscle contracts very briefly.
  4. D) Striated muscle cells have nuclei, but smooth muscle cells do not.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

15) Over time, how do skeletal muscle cells respond to regular weight-lifting exercise?

  1. A) They get larger, making the overall muscle bigger.
  2. B) They multiply, making the overall muscle bigger.
  3. C) They are able to contract for longer periods of time.
  4. D) They contain more actin and less myosin.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

16) What type of tissues can be transplanted from one person to another to reconstruct damaged joints?

  1. A) cartilage
  2. B) epithelium
  3. C) bone
  4. D) blood

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

17) The tissue type that protects the body from water loss is ________.

Answer:  epithelial

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

18) Osteocytes are cells that secrete substances to make the connective tissue called ________.

Answer:  bone

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

19) How do the protein fibers in the matrix ground substance compare between loose and fibrous connective tissues?

  1. A) In loose connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in fibrous connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.
  2. B) In fibrous connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in loose connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.
  3. C) The protein fibers are dark red in fibrous connective tissue but are white in loose connective tissues.
  4. D) The protein fibers are white in fibrous connective tissue but are dark red in loose connective tissues.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

20) Which tissue type in the human body is exposed directly to the bloodstream?

  1. A) muscle
  2. B) connective
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) nervous

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

21) Which type of body tissue acts as padding under the skin?

  1. A) nervous
  2. B) muscle
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) connective

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

22) Which type of cells protects the body from the potentially harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation?

  1. A) nervous
  2. B) muscle
  3. C) epithelial
  4. D) connective

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

23) The replacement of the epidermis occurs

  1. A) only once in a person’s lifetime.
  2. B) every 4-6 years.
  3. C) every 4-6 weeks.
  4. D) every 4-6 days.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

24) The proteins that make up the matrix of loose connective tissue are secreted by ________.

  1. A) hepatocytes
  2. B) fibroblasts
  3. C) chondrocytes
  4. D) osteocytes

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

25) Fibroblasts are to fibrous connective tissue as ________ are to cartilage.

  1. A) osteoblasts
  2. B) chondrocytes
  3. C) osteocytes
  4. D) hepatocytes

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

26) Platelets are cells found in a type of

  1. A) epithelial tissue.
  2. B) muscle tissue.
  3. C) nervous tissue.
  4. D) connective tissue.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

27) The material that provides the internal, flexible support of the ear is an example of

  1. A) epithelial tissue.
  2. B) muscle tissue.
  3. C) nervous tissue.
  4. D) connective tissue.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

28) Which of the following represent the main components of “red meat”?

  1. A) osteocytes
  2. B) fibroblasts
  3. C) collagen and elastin
  4. D) actin and myosin

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Conceptual

 

29) Voluntary movement relies upon

  1. A) conscious thought and cardiac muscle.
  2. B) conscious thought and striated muscle.
  3. C) conscious thought and smooth muscle.
  4. D) unconscious thought and smooth muscle.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

30) Which of the following is an example of voluntary muscle contraction?

  1. A) a push-up
  2. B) peristalsis
  3. C) a heartbeat
  4. D) stomach churning

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Applied

 

31) Most donated tissues can be stored in a freezer up to

  1. A) a week.
  2. B) a month.
  3. C) a year.
  4. D) 5 years.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

32) In which connective tissue type are the collagen fibers arranged parallel with one another in a very organized, layered fashion?

  1. A) bone
  2. B) blood
  3. C) adipose tissue
  4. D) fibrous connective tissue

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.1

Skill:  Factual

 

 

33) If a car is similar to an organism, then what is similar to an organ system?

  1. A) a valve in the engine
  2. B) the steering wheel
  3. C) the electrical system
  4. D) gasoline

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

34) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?

  1. A) toxins
  2. B) chyme
  3. C) hepatocytes
  4. D) glycogen

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

35) What activity of the liver makes it act as an accessory organ?

  1. A) production of bile
  2. B) synthesis of blood-clotting factors
  3. C) destruction of old blood cells
  4. D) detoxification

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

36) Emulsification is the

  1. A) digestion of food inside vacuoles.
  2. B) breaking up of fat molecules.
  3. C) secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach.
  4. D) involuntary movement of a bolus through the alimentary canal.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

37) Unlike most organs, the ________ of a donor can be cut into smaller sections and transplanted, then grow back to full size in both the donor and recipient.

  1. A) gallbladder
  2. B) stomach
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) liver

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

38) Which of the following diseases affects the liver and could be transferred by an organ transplant?

  1. A) hepatitis C
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) gonorrhea
  4. D) tuberculosis

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

39) In a(n) ________ digestive system, a single structure serves as both the mouth and the anus.

Answer:  incomplete

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

40) Up to ________ of the energy supplied by the digestion of food is needed to maintain a complete digestive system.

  1. A) 1%
  2. B) 10%
  3. C) 30%
  4. D) 75%

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

41) Gallstones result when the gallbladder

  1. A) doesn’t function at all.
  2. B) removes too much water from bile.
  3. C) converts bile into crystallized calcium propionate.
  4. D) fills with dead hepatocytes.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

42) A digested nutrient enters the bloodstream via

  1. A) a series of large pores in the duodenum.
  2. B) tiny blood vessels inside the microvilli.
  3. C) the liver.
  4. D) small openings in the epithelium of the stomach.

Answer:  B

Diff: 3

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

43) Which of the following is a hormone that is involved in digestion?

  1. A) bile
  2. B) hydrochloric acid
  3. C) gastrin
  4. D) amylase

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

44) What is the correct sequence of bodily organization, from simple to complex?

  1. A) cells – tissues – organs – organ systems – organism
  2. B) organs – organ systems – tissues – cells – organism
  3. C) tissues – cells – organs – organ systems – organism
  4. D) cells – tissues – organ systems – organs – organism

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

45) The cells that make up the liver are called

  1. A) fibroblasts.
  2. B) osteocytes.
  3. C) chondrocytes.
  4. D) hepatocytes.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

46) Which of the following is a true statement about organs?

  1. A) Each organ has a single function within the body.
  2. B) An organ always contains at least three different tissue types.
  3. C) Failure of an individual organ can affect an entire organ system.
  4. D) Most organs function to provide the body with energy.

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

47) A person can live a normal life without which of these digestive system organs?

  1. A) liver
  2. B) gallbladder
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) small intestine

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual/Conceptual

 

48) A person born without an epiglottis couldn’t

  1. A) digest fats.
  2. B) digest proteins.
  3. C) absorb the products of digestion.
  4. D) swallow food without a high risk of choking.

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Applied

 

49) Accessory organs

  1. A) aren’t included in organ systems.
  2. B) secrete enzymes required for digestion.
  3. C) don’t contain connective tissue.
  4. D) assist other organs in the circulatory system.

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

50) Just before entering the small intestine, what is the pH of chyme?

  1. A) very basic (very high pH)
  2. B) slightly basic (high pH)
  3. C) neutral (pH near 7)
  4. D) acidic (low pH)

Answer:  D

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

 

 

51) Which of the following secretes a buffer that neutralizes the acidity of stomach acid?

  1. A) gall bladder
  2. B) liver
  3. C) pancreas
  4. D) pharynx

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

52) What part of the digestive system has the most surface area for the absorption of nutrients?

  1. A) esophagus
  2. B) stomach
  3. C) small intestine
  4. D) large intestine

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual/Conceptual

 

 

53) What function does the gallbladder serve?

  1. A) nutrient absorption
  2. B) bile storage and concentration
  3. C) sugar digestion
  4. D) fat storage

Answer:  B

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

54) Which organ in the digestive system can be transplanted to help certain diabetic patients?

  1. A) stomach
  2. B) gallbladder
  3. C) liver
  4. D) pancreas

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

55) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?

  1. A) circulatory system
  2. B) digestive system
  3. C) integumentary system
  4. D) excretory system

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Applied

 

56) The enzyme in saliva that breaks down sugars is called ________ (two words).

Answer:  salivary amylase

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

57) The contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus is called

  1. A) emulsification.
  2. B) elimination.
  3. C) peristalsis.
  4. D) detoxification.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Factual

 

 

58) The simplest eukaryotes, such as protozoans, rely upon

  1. A) digestion within food vacuoles.
  2. B) food production within specialized cells.
  3. C) an incomplete digestive system.
  4. D) a complete digestive system.

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.2

Skill:  Conceptual

 

59) Homeostasis is an organism’s ability to

  1. A) obtain energy from food.
  2. B) interact with its specific environment.
  3. C) maintain a constant internal environment.
  4. D) survive without water for long periods of time.

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

 

60) Which of the following is an endotherm?

  1. A) a mouse
  2. B) an insect
  3. C) a salmon
  4. D) a frog

Answer:  A

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Applied

61) Ectotherms primarily regulate their body temperature by

  1. A) adjusting their rate of metabolism.
  2. B) absorbing or releasing heat.
  3. C) eating more or less, depending on their need for body heat.
  4. D) panting when it gets too hot and shivering when it gets too cold.

Answer:  B

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

62) During thermoregulation, how does an endotherm respond to a high body temperature?

  1. A) Blood vessels near the skin dilate.
  2. B) Blood vessels near the skin constrict.
  3. C) The brain shuts down to prevent damage.
  4. D) Blood glucose levels increase to stimulate metabolism.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Applied

 

63) The maintenance of blood glucose levels by the liver is an example of

  1. A) diabetes.
  2. B) thermoregulation.
  3. C) positive feedback.
  4. D) negative feedback.

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

 

64) After a large meal is digested, the liver reduces blood glucose levels by

  1. A) converting glucose to glycogen.
  2. B) breaking down glucose into waste products.
  3. C) stimulating the pancreas to store excess glucose.
  4. D) releasing hormones that inhibit the pancreas.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

65) Why are there more tissues available for transplant than organs?

  1. A) Tissues can be transplanted regardless of blood type, but the blood types must match between organ donors and recipients.
  2. B) Nonhuman animals are the source of most tissue transplants, but organs for transplant must come from humans.
  3. C) Tissues can be removed from living donors, whereas organs can only be removed from dead bodies.
  4. D) Tissues can be frozen and preserved, but organs deteriorate quickly without nourishment from oxygen and blood.

Answer:  D

Diff: 3

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Conceptual

 

66) Insulin, which is released by the pancreas, stimulates the ________ to convert glucose into glycogen.

  1. A) stomach
  2. B) gallbladder
  3. C) liver
  4. D) brain

Answer:  C

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

 

 

67) Which organ isn’t able to be transplanted from a donor to a recipient?

  1. A) a kidney
  2. B) a heart
  3. C) a liver
  4. D) a brain

Answer:  D

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

 

68) The maintenance of constant internal body temperature is an example of homeostasis called ________.

Answer:  thermoregulation

Diff: 1

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

69) In order to increase blood glucose levels, the pancreas secretes the hormone ________, which stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose.

  1. A) insulin
  2. B) gastrin
  3. C) glucagon
  4. D) cholesystokinin

Answer:  C

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Factual

 

70) In nature, an ectothermic animal maintains a constant body temperature on a cold day by

  1. A) basking in a sunny location.
  2. B) increasing its rate of metabolism without basking.
  3. C) eating more food, which creates heat as it’s burned for energy.
  4. D) shivering.

Answer:  A

Diff: 2

Topic:  17.3

Skill:  Conceptual

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