Test bank Of Surgical Technology Principles and Practice 6th Edition

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Surgical Technology Principles and Practice 6th Edition

Chapter 3: Law, Documentation, and Professional Ethics

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Health care professionals are guided in their practice by:
A. standards
B. laws
C. regulations
D. policies
E. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  E

Health care professionals are guided in their practice by standards, laws, regulations, and policies.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. Law in most society is intended to protect:
A. government officials C. individuals
B. state officials D. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

Law in most societies is intended to protect individuals from harm and promote a peaceful society.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. Professional standards are:
A. specific requirements that help promote AORN guidelines
B. specific requirements that help promote the operating room
C. specific requirements that help promote surgical guidelines
D. specific requirements that help promote and ensure safety and care

 

 

ANS:  D

Professional standards are specific requirements that help promote and ensure safety and care.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. Ethics are:
A. standards and guidelines C. morals
B. values D. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  B

Ethics are values that are highly regarded by individuals and society.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. The health care professions have particular ethics related to beneficences:
A. accountability, honesty, morals, and values
B. integrity, accountability, honesty, and values
C. honesty, integrity, accountability, and trust
D. trust, honesty, integrity, and morals

 

 

ANS:  C

The health care professions have particular ethics related to beneficences:  accountability, integrity, honesty, and trust.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. Law is a:
A. guideline, set by our law enforcement
B. rule or set of rules that law enforcement regulate
C. rule or set of rules that governments make to regulate people’s behavior
D. guideline set by government to regulate behavior

 

 

ANS:  C

Law is a rule or set of rules that governments make to regulate people’s behavior.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 31

 

  1. _____________ is the transfer of responsibility for a task from one person to another.
A. Compensation C. Regulation
B. Delegation D. Segregation

 

 

ANS:  B

Delegation is the transfer of responsibility for a task from one person to another. This is a frequent occurrence in all health care settings, especially where licensed personnel work directly with allied health professionals.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 32

 

  1. A set of rules or regulations that hospital employees are required to follow, created to protect patients and employees from harm and to ensure the smooth operation of the hospital, is called ________.
A. code of ethics C. hospital policy
B. operative consents D. medical practice acts

 

 

ANS:  C

The hospital policy manual describes general administrative and logistical operations of the hospital. It includes an organizational chart that clarifies the chain of command and information on other topics such as the rules about employee identification, privileges, and salary procedures.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 32-33

 

  1. Negligence committed by a professional who deliberately acts outside of her or his scope of practice, or while impaired, is known as ________.
A. damages C. a sentinel event
B. malpractice D. complaints

 

 

ANS:  B

Malpractice is negligence committed by a professional. Malpractice may also be committed if a person deliberately acts outside of his or her scope of practice or while impaired.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 34

 

  1. The circulator has transported the patient to the operating room but has forgotten the patient’s chart. The circulator leaves the patient alone and returns to the preoperative area to get the chart. Upon returning, the circulator finds the patient lying on the floor. The circulator may be charged with ________.
A. abandonment C. sexual harassment
B. improper ethical choices D. forgetting the patient’s chart

 

 

ANS:  A

Another situation of abandonment exists when one of the team members leaves the room for an extended period before or during surgery. An emergency can occur at any time and all team members must be present when the patient is in the room. Leaving a patient alone in a hallway or in the operating room suite constitutes abandonment.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. A derogatory statement concerning other coworkers’ skills, character, or reputation is unprofessional and known as a(n) _____________________.
A. ethical dilemma C. sentinel event
B. tort D. defamation

 

 

ANS:  D

Defamation is a derogatory statement made by one person about another.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. Intentionally lying or falsifying information given during a court testimony after being sworn to tell the truth is known as ________.
A. a tort C. libel
B. perjury D. a complaint

 

 

ANS:  B

When testifying, it is imperative to tell the truth because the practitioner is under oath. To lie under oath is called perjury, which is a punishable crime.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 35

 

  1. A legal document stating the patient’s wishes for refusing or limiting care if the patient becomes incompetent is known as a(n) ____________.
A. nurse practice act C. living will
B. advance directive D. code of ethics

 

 

ANS:  C

A living will is a legal document that specifically states the type of medical intervention or treatment the patient wants. Possible interventions included are artificial feeding, transfusions, specific diagnostic tests, pulmonary maintenance on a ventilator, and the use of medications.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 46

 

  1. A(n) ___________ is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious psychological injury, or risk thereof. It is titled as such because it signals the need for immediate investigation and response.
A. sentinel event C. ethical dilemma
B. medical practice act D. recommended practice

 

 

ANS:  A

Surgeries on a wrong level, wrong site, wrong side, and wrong patient are considered sentinel events.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 34-35

 

  1. A wrong, independent of contract law violations, perpetrated by one person against another person or person’s property that can be compensable by money damages is known as ___________.
A. a tort C. damages
B. slander D. negligence

 

 

ANS:  A

A tort is a civil wrong—an act committed against a person or a person’s property.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 34

 

  1. Described as personal standards, ___________ are adopted by persons to govern their personal conduct.
A. policies and procedures C. laws
B. morals D. ethics

 

 

ANS:  B

Morality or morals may be described as personal standards that are often influenced by culture, religion, and other traditions. Morality usually attempts to define what is “right” or “wrong” behavior.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 46

 

  1. ____________ are defined as rules that regulate the conduct of specific groups of people.
A. Societal standards C. Ethics
B. Laws D. Guidelines

 

 

ANS:  C

Ethics refers to a standard of behavior created by specific groups of people to establish the conduct of their own members.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 46

 

  1. Under the U.S. Constitution, each state has the power to regulate businesses and professions, including the practice of medicine and nursing. The laws differ from state to state and are called _____________ and _____________.
A. medical, surgical laws
B. policies, procedures
C. hospital policy, operating room policy
D. medical practice acts, nurse practice acts

 

 

ANS:  D

Under the U.S. Constitution, each state has the power to regulate the practice of medicine and professional nursing. The laws differ from state to state and are called medical practice acts and nurse practice acts. These laws require that a person obtain a license before practicing medicine or nursing.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 32

 

  1. ________ are performed by two people during any surgery in which an item can be lost inside of the patient.
A. X-rays C. Negligent acts
B. Extra precautions D. Surgical counts

 

 

ANS:  D

The scrub and the circulator are responsible for the surgical counts; however, the physician is the one who actually places items inside the patient, so he or she may also be legally responsible for an item being left in the patient.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 35

 

  1. A summons differs from a subpoena in that a summons makes its recipient a party to the lawsuit. If a person receives a summons, he or she is being ________.
A. sued C. punished
B. fired D. threatened

 

 

ANS:  A

A summons differs from a subpoena in that a summons makes its recipient a party to the lawsuit. If a person receives a summons, he or she is being sued. The person who was injured and is suing is called the plaintiff. The person being sued is the defendant.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 35

 

  1. Because of the legal implications of this document, it must be signed by the physician, the patient, and a witness. This document is called a(n) __________________. Without this signed document, surgery cannot proceed.
A. surgical count sheet C. advance directive
B. informed consent D. operative record

 

 

ANS:  B

A patient operative consent form or informed consent is a legal document that the patient must sign before surgery.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 39-41

 

  1. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), created by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), outlines federal standards for the protection of _______________.
A. criminal actions C. operating room personnel
B. licensed personnel D. a patient’s privacy

 

 

ANS:  D

The HIPAA of 1996, created by the Department of HHS, protects patients’ medical records and other health information through its privacy rule.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 38

 

  1. ___________ have the right to equal treatment, regardless of age, physical attributes, mental state, ethnicity, or socioeconomic status.
A. Members of certain cultures and societies
B. An employee’s family members
C. All patients with medical insurance
D. All patients

 

 

ANS:  D

All patients have the right to equal treatment regardless of age, physical attributes, mental state, ethnicity, or socioeconomic status.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 47

 

  1. Aeger primo is defined as ____________.
A. death of a patient C. suspected malpractice
B. the patient first D. first do no harm

 

 

ANS:  B

The AST has adapted a Latin phrase to describe its ethos: aeger primo, which means “the patient first.”

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 49

 

  1. A mandated procedure for ensuring that surgery is performed on the correct patient, site, and side is called __________________.
A. timeout C. recheck time
B. pause time D. time check

 

 

ANS:  A

Perioperative nurses and other regulating agencies now require a “timeout” immediately before the start of the procedure or incision for a final verification of the surgical procedure and location of the proper surgical incision site.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. The operating room ___________________ is distinct from the hospital policy.
A. MSDS Manual C. Code of Ethics
B. AORN Guidelines D. procedure manual

 

 

ANS:  D

The operating room procedure manual is distinct from the hospital policy.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 33

 

  1. Patient falls are the ___________ cause of death in hospitalized people over 65.
A. only C. leading
B. last D. all the above

 

 

ANS:  C

Patient falls are the leading cause of death in hospitalized people over 65.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 35

 

  1. Choose the correct statement concerning common circumstances in which falls occur:
A. The side rails on a stretcher are not kept raised.
B. Children are left unattended.
C. Unsafe transfer techniques are used.
D. All of the above

 

 

ANS:  D

The following are examples of common circumstances in which falls occur:The side rails on a stretcher are not kept raised.Children are left unattended.Unsafe transfer techniques are used.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 35-36

 

  1. The patient can be ___________and _____________ injured as a result of improper positioning for the surgical procedure.
A. lost and seriously C. restricted and improperly
B. seriously and permanently D. overextended and seriously

 

 

ANS:  C

The patient can be restricted and improperly injured as a result of improper positioning for the surgical procedure.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. The universal protocol or____________ is a verification procedure in which the team pauses just before surgery and begins to acknowledge essential information about the operative site and side, patient identity, position, and other crucial information about the patient and procedure.
A. standards C. guidelines
B. timeout D. viewed

 

 

ANS:  B

The universal protocol or timeout is a verification procedure in which the team pauses just before surgery and begins to acknowledge essential information about the operative site and side, patient identity, position, and other crucial information about the patient and procedure.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. Any tissue or foreign object removed from the patient during surgery requires careful handling and ____________.
A. information C. evidence
B. diagnosis D. documentation

 

 

ANS:  D

Any tissue or foreign object removed from the patient during surgery requires careful handling and documentation.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. Surgical technologists are required to ____________ medications on the field.
A. mix C. prepare
B. label D. all the above

 

 

ANS:  D

Surgical technologists are required to label, mix, and prepare medications on the field.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. __________ errors are among the most prevalent and serious errors occurring during surgery.
A. Labeling C. Sterilization
B. Instrumentation D. Calculation

 

 

ANS:  A

Labeling errors are among the most prevalent and serious errors occurring during surgery.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. __________ is defined as neglecting a patient, or leaving a patient unattended when the patient requires the presence of a health care professional.
A. Error C. Transferring
B. Misleading D. Abandonment

 

 

ANS:  D

Abandonment is defined as neglecting a patient, or leaving a patient unattended when the patient requires the presence of a health care professional.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. Failure to ____________ can occur when a member of the team neglects to pass on vital information that requires action.
A. care C. touch
B. communicate D. all the above

 

 

ANS:  B

Failure to communicate can occur when a member of the team neglects to pass on vital information that requires action.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 36-37

 

  1. You are scrubbed with Dr. Jones on a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Dr. Jones and Dr. Adams start telling jokes in a sexual manner. These comments make you feel uncomfortable; you would consider this:
A. verbal abuse C. sexual harassment
B. horizontal abuse D. all the above

 

 

ANS:  C

Sexual harassment is unwanted sexual coercion, lewd comments, innuendoes, or touching perpetrated by one person on another.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. Tammy is a program director and is always talking about her supervisor. Tammy informs the class that her supervisor is uneducated and does not know the standards and guidelines. Because Tammy has made this statement verbal this is considered:
A. defamation C. assault
B. negligent D. slander

 

 

ANS:  D

If the actions are verbal, it is slander.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. _____________ means deliberate efforts to erode the reputation of another person.
A. Defamation C. Battery
B. Assault D. Slander

 

 

ANS:  A

Defamation means deliberate efforts to erode the reputation of another person.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. Civil _____________ is the threat or attempt to harm another person.
A. battery C. assault
B. false imprisonment D. slander

 

 

ANS:  C

Civil assault is the threat or attempt to harm another person.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. __________ involves contact with intent to injure and applies even if no injury occurred.
A. Battery C. Assault
B. False imprisonment D. Slander

 

 

ANS:  A

Battery involves contact with intent to injure and applies even if no injury occurred.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. Restraints become a method of managing a group of patients all in one place, possibly against their will. This type of case might be considered as:
A. battery C. assault
B. false imprisonment D. slander

 

 

ANS:  B

Restraints become a method of managing a group of patients all in one place, possibly against their will. This type of case might be considered as false imprisonment.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. HIPAA protects patient’s __________________ and other health information through its privacy rule.
A. personal belongings C. medical records
B. family D. treatment records

 

 

ANS:  C

HIPAA protects patient’s medical records and other health information through its privacy rule.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 38

 

  1. ____________is the means for making a permanent legal record of the patient’s interaction with health care providers and services.
A. Medical records C. Documentation
B. Treatment records D. Forms

 

 

ANS:  C

Documentation is the means for making a permanent legal record of the patient’s interaction with health care providers and services.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 38

 

  1. A patient’s operative consent form, or ____________________, is the process in which the attending practitioner explains risks, benefits, and alternatives of the surgery to the patient.
A. health literacy C. informed consent
B. signed consent D. anesthesia consent

 

 

ANS:  C

A patient’s operative consent form, or informed consent, is the process in which the attending practitioner explains risks, benefits, and alternatives of the surgery to the patient.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 39

 

  1. _______________________ is the patient’s ability to understand certain medical terminology used in the media and in educational settings.
A. Informed consent C. Health literacy
B. HIPAA D. Assessment benefits

 

 

ANS:  C

Health literacy is the patient’s ability to understand certain medical terminology used in the media and in educational settings.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 39

 

  1. The surgical consent is signed by the ________, __________, and a(n) ___________.
A. nurse, surgeon, anesthesiologist C. patient, surgeon, nurse
B. surgeon, nurse, family member D. patient, surgeon, witness

 

 

ANS:  D

The surgical consent is signed by the surgeon, patient, and a witness.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 39

 

  1. A____________ is a legal document that specifically states the type of medical intervention or treatment the patient wants.
A. medical power of attorney C. DNR
B. living will D. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  B

A living will is a legal document that specifically states the type of medical intervention or treatment the patient wants.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 46

 

  1. The surgical technologist has the right to abstain from participation in certain types of cases that violate his or her ethical, moral, or religious values. This is known as:
A. ethical dilemmas C. moral dilemma
B. refusal to perform an assigned task D. all the above

 

 

ANS:  B

The surgical technologist has the right to abstain from participation in certain types of cases that violate his or her ethical, moral, or religious values. This is known as refusal to perform an assigned task.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 48

 

MATCHING

 

Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

A. Constitutional law C. Administrative law
B. Statutes D. Judicial or common law

 

 

  1. The rulings issued by courts have the effect of law and are binding within the jurisdiction of the particular court

 

  1. The U.S. Constitution is the supreme source of law in the United States

 

  1. Laws that are passed by legislative bodies

 

  1. In situations in which there is conflict between two parties, the courts may become involved to resolve the dispute

 

  1. Regulations passed by agencies and departments of the government

 

  1. Signed into law by its governor

 

  1. No other law may violate its provisions

 

  1. Signed into law by its governor

 

  1. Based on precedence from previous cases

 

  1. Rules established by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for the handling of medical waste

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 32

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 32

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 31-32

 

Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

A. Intentional tort C. Criminal liability
B. Unintentional tort

 

 

  1. Injury as a result of improper positioning

 

  1. Invasion of privacy

 

  1. A derogatory statement made by one person about another

 

  1. Negligence

 

  1. Theft of hospital policy

 

  1. HIPAA violation

 

  1. Committed inadvertently, without intent to harm

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 36

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 34-37

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 34

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 37

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 34-37

Chapter 13: Perioperative Pharmacology

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ________ is used for augmentation of labor.
A. Epinephrine C. Lugol’s solution
B. Acetic acid D. Oxytocin

 

 

ANS:  D

Oxytocin is used for augmentation of labor.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 277

 

  1. High-alert drugs such as __________ heparin and epinephrine can be flagged using commercial markers.
A. intravenous C. intraocular
B. anticoagulation D. irrigation

 

 

ANS:  A

High-alert drugs such as intravenous heparin and epinephrine can be flagged using commercial markers.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 261

 

  1. _______________stimulate the production of urine by the kidneys.
A. Ophthalmic drugs C. Diuretics
B. Colloids D. Contrast mediums

 

 

ANS:  C

Diuretics stimulate the production of urine by the kidneys.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 275

 

  1. Colored dyes are usually dispensed to the sterile field in glass vials. The most common types are Gentian violet, Methylene blue, and ________.
A. Indigo carmine C. abnormal shades
B. color codes D. performers

 

 

ANS:  A

Colored dyes are usually dispensed to the sterile field in glass vials. The most common types are Gentian violet, Methylene blue, and Indigo carmine.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. Extra high-alert drugs in the ________ area include the different formulations of heparin, thrombin, epinephrine, and local anesthetics.
A. hemorrhage C. intracranial
B. perioperative D. dilation

 

 

ANS:  B

Extra high-alert drugs in the perioperative area include the different formulations of heparin, thrombin, epinephrine, and local anesthetics.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 256

 

  1. A(n) ________ is a drug that inhibits blood clot formation but does not dissolve clots.
A. hemostatic agent C. anticoagulant
B. absorbable collagen D. antineoplastic agent

 

 

ANS:  C

An anticoagulant is a drug that inhibits blood clot formation but does not dissolve clots.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. Angina, which is chest pain associated with decreased oxygen supply to the heart muscle, is partly treated using ________ drugs.
A. antianginal C. aminoglycosides
B. osmotic D. antimicrobials

 

 

ANS:  A

Antianginal drugs are used to treat angina, which is chest pain associated with decreased oxygen supply to the heart muscle.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. Knowledge of nerve transmission is basic to an understanding of how anesthetics and other _____ drugs work.
A. CNN C. ABC
B. CBS D. CNS

 

 

ANS:  D

Knowledge of nerve transmission is basic to an understanding of how anesthetics and other CNS drugs work.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. Only intravenous solutions are used to________ blood vessels or near open blood vessels.
A. produce C. contrast
B. irrigate D. direct

 

 

ANS:  B

Only intravenous solutions are used to irrigate blood vessels or near open blood vessels.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 275

 

  1. A ________ tablet is placed between the gum and mucous membrane of the cheek.
A. buccal C. oral
B. topical D. sublingual

 

 

ANS:  A

A buccal tablet is placed between the gum and mucous membrane of the cheek.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. Exogenous ________ for injection is available in different strengths and differing duration of action.
A. tuberculin C. insulin
B. Luer-Lok D. catheter tip

 

 

ANS:  C

Exogenous insulin for injection is available in different strengths and differing duration of action.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 277

 

  1. The movement of a drug through the tissues and cells of the body, including the processes of absorption, distribution, and localization in tissues; biotransformation; and excretion by mechanical and chemical means is called _______________.
A. pharmacodynamics C. metabolism
B. pharmacokinetics D. absorption

 

 

ANS:  B

The movement of a drug through the tissues and cells of the body, including the processes of absorption, distribution, and localization in tissues; biotransformation; and excretion by mechanical and chemical means is pharmacokinetics.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. Drug delivery devices such as ________ are calibrated in small increments to provide a high level of accuracy.
A. calibrated cups C. calibrated basins
B. syringes D. spoons

 

 

ANS:  B

Drug delivery devices such as syringes are calibrated in small increments to provide a high level of accuracy.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 278

 

  1. A drug applied to the skin or mucous membranes is _______.
A. subcutaneous C. topical
B. parenteral D. instill

 

 

ANS:  C

Topical refers to application of a drug to the skin or mucous membranes.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. To reduce drug error when drugs are being used in the sterile field, each and every drug container and its delivery device must be ____________.
A. used only once C. sealed
B. closely watched by the surgeon D. labeled

 

 

ANS:  D

All pharmaceutical products, including implants, are labeled with specific information mandated by the Federal Food and Drug Administration.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 261

 

  1. Skin patches or films impregnated with medication keep the drug in contact with skin, which slowly absorbs the drug at the start of the ________ pathway.
A. absorption C. dosage
B. metabolic D. medication

 

 

ANS:  B

Skin patches or films impregnated with medication keep the drug in contact with skin, which slowly absorbs the drug at the start of the metabolic pathway.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 253

 

  1. The ________ is the one that has been ordered by the surgeon or other health care provider.
A. concentration C. wrong drug
B. right drug D. type

 

 

ANS:  B

The right drug is the one that has been ordered by the surgeon or other health care provider.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 255

 

  1. The ________ identifies a drug by its molecular structure.
A. generic name C. trade name
B. drug nomenclature D. chemical name

 

 

ANS:  D

The chemical name is the name of a drug that reflects its molecular structure.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 252

 

  1. ____________ is an undesirable or intolerable reaction to a drug administered at the normal dosage.
A. Toxicity C. An adverse reaction
B. A side effect D. Anaphylaxis

 

 

ANS:  C

An adverse reaction is an undesirable or intolerable reaction to a drug administered at the normal dosage.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. After ________ of a drug, the patient is assessed for physiological changes, including adverse reaction.
A. absorption C. elimination
B. metabolism D. administration

 

 

ANS:  D

After administration of a drug, the patient is assessed for physiological changes, including adverse reaction.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. Changes (both intended and unintended) in the body as a result of a drug are called ___________________.
A. pharmacokinetics B. pharmacodynamics

 

 

ANS:  B

Changes (both intended and unintended) in the body as a result of a drug are called pharmacodynamics.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    1                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. ___________ is the study of movement of drugs through the body (what the body does to the drug).
A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacodynamics

 

 

ANS:  A

Pharmacokinetics is the study of movement of drugs through the body (what the body does to the drug).

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 264

 

  1. Drugs are eliminated or cleared from the body mainly through the __________.
A. lungs B. kidneys

 

 

ANS:  B

Drugs are eliminated or cleared from the body mainly through the kidneys.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. The ________ is required to handle and deliver a number of different categories of drugs used on the sterile field.
A. anesthesia provider B. scrubbed technologist

 

 

ANS:  B

The scrubbed technologist is required to handle and deliver a number of different categories of drugs used on the sterile field.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. A ______ is the formulary name of a drug that is assigned by the U.S. Adapted Names Council.
A. generic drug B. trade

 

 

ANS:  A

A generic drug is the formulary name of a drug that is assigned by the U.S. Adapted Names Council.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 252

 

  1. The ________ is a clear, injectable liquid that is radiopaque (opaque on radiographs).
A. iodinated contrast medium B. diagnostic dye

 

 

ANS:  A

An iodinated contrast medium (ICM) is a clear, injectable liquid that is radiopaque (opaque on radiographs).

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. A ________ is used as a diagnostic tool to differentiate normal cells from abnormal ones.
A. milliliter B. stain

 

 

ANS:  B

A stain is used as a diagnostic tool to differentiate normal cells from abnormal ones.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. The ________ and the metric system were the two measurement systems that were historically used in pharmacology.
A. number system B. apothecary

 

 

ANS:  B

Two measurement systems were historically used in pharmacology,the metric system and the apothecary system.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 258

 

  1. Irrigation solutions are maintained at body temperature to prevent ________.
A. hypothermia B. sickness

 

 

ANS:  A

Irrigation solutions are maintained at body temperature to prevent hypothermia.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 258

 

  1. When a drug is ________, many physiological changes can take place in the body.
A. administered B. effective

 

 

ANS:  A

Whenever a drug is administered, many physiological changes can take place in the body.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. The most extreme form of ________ is anaphylactic shock, which can lead to death.
A. uterotropics C. sensitivity
B. pitressin D. isoproterenol

 

 

ANS:  C

The most extreme form of sensitivity is anaphylactic shock, which can lead to death.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   Box 13-6

 

  1. The ________ has developed a list of abbreviations that can lead to drug errors.
A. agents C. medical offices
B. drug administration D. Joint Commission

 

 

ANS:  D

The Joint Commission has developed a list of abbreviations that can lead to drug errors.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. The patient may be started on _______ antibiotics a few hours before surgery, to prevent postoperative infection.
A. scheduled C. solid
B. intravenous D. liquid

 

 

ANS:  B

The patient may be started on intravenous antibiotics a few hours before surgery, to prevent postoperative infection.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. Penicillin was developed during the early ________.
A. 1940s C. 1960s
B. 1950s D. 1970s

 

 

ANS:  A

Penicillin was developed during the early 1940s.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 266

 

  1. Macrolides are ________ at low levels and bactericidal in high doses.
A. stimulant C. bacteriostatic
B. liquidity D. chemicals

 

 

ANS:  C

Macrolides are bacteriostatic at low levels and bactericidal in high doses.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 266

 

  1. ________ is/are effective against gram-negative bacteria, in which they inhibit protein synthesis.
A. Aminoglycosides C. Transdermal
B. Ancef D. Heparin

 

 

ANS:  A

Aminoglycosides are effective against gram-negative bacteria, in which they inhibit protein synthesis.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 267

 

  1. Whole blood contains serum and blood cells plus anticoagulant and ___________.
A. gelfoam C. thrombin
B. preservative D. bone wax

 

 

ANS:  B

Whole blood contains serum and blood cells plus anticoagulant and preservative.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 269

 

  1. Nitrous oxide is a ________, odorless gas in its natural state.
A. passive C. colorless
B. active D. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  C

Nitrous oxide is a colorless, odorless gas in its natural state.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 271

 

  1. One method of blocking ________ is to administer a competitive antagonist drug that has an affinity for the postsynaptic receptor.
A. absorption C. metabolism
B. distribution D. neurotransmission

 

 

ANS:  D

One method of blocking neurotransmission is to administer a competitive antagonist drug that has an affinity for the postsynaptic receptor.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 271

 

  1. ___________is/are among the most common drugs used for moderate and severe pain control.
A. Peaks C. Opiates
B. Distribution D. Metabolism

 

 

ANS:  C

Opiates are among the most common drugs used for moderate and severe pain control.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 272

 

  1. True allergy to a drug is mediated by the:
A. immune system C. liquid system
B. cooling system D. allergy system

 

 

ANS:  A

True allergy to a drug is mediated by the immune system and requires previous exposure to substances in the drug or a genetic predisposition to allergy.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. Antifungal drugs are used for ________ and systemic fungal disease.
A. anaphylactic C. antibiotics
B. superficial D. tuberculin

 

 

ANS:  B

Antifungal drugs are used for superficial and systemic fungal disease.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 267

 

  1. Antacids reduce gastric fluid ________ and volume.
A. patients C. diabetes
B. acidity D. adolescents

 

 

ANS:  B

Antacids reduce gastric fluid acidity and volume.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 276

 

  1. The surgical technologist is required to perform drug ________ when mixing drugs on the sterile field and for other circumstances when one unit of measurement must be converted to another.
A. testing C. calculations
B. regulating D. contrast

 

 

ANS:  C

The surgical technologist is required to perform drug calculations when mixing drugs on the sterile field and for other circumstances when one unit of measurement must be converted to another.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 277

 

  1. A specific protocol (method) is used to receive and deliver drugs to the ________ field.
A. bleeding C. closure
B. hemorrhage D. sterile

 

 

ANS:  D

A specific protocol (method) is used to receive and deliver drugs to the sterile field.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 278

 

  1. ____________ in basic drug computation is a significant cause of drug errors.
A. Pouring C. Missing
B. Inaccuracy D. Loading

 

 

ANS:  B

Inaccuracy in basic drug computation is a significant cause of drug errors.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 278

 

  1. One of the most common sources of drug error is failure to properly label syringes and other drug _________ devices.
A. delivery C. traveler
B. routine D. ringer

 

 

ANS:  A

One of the most common sources of drug error is failure to properly label syringes and other drug delivery devices.

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 253-254

 

MATCHING

 

Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

A. Side effects C. Toxicity
B. Adverse reactions

 

 

  1. An undesirable or intolerable reaction to a drug administered at the normal dosage

 

  1. Usually not related to the therapeutic function of the drug

 

  1. Effects that occur predictably and usually do not cause a problem

 

  1. Occurs when the therapeutic dosage of a drug is exceeded

 

  1. Not expected but may be predictable in some individuals

 

  1. Patients who are prescribed drugs with a narrow therapeutic range are tested at regular intervals for blood levels of the drug to prevent this

 

  1. May range from a severe allergic response to circulatory failure

 

  1. These are sometimes desirable, and the drug may be prescribed for this effect rather than its labeled use

 

  1. An example would be drowsiness, which often occurs when antihistamines are used

 

  1. Accidental overdosing

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 265

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 263

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 249

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 265

 

Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

A. Antibiotic C. Hemostatic
B. Diagnostic imaging agent D. Anticoagulant

 

 

  1. Used to visualize the urinary tract

 

  1. Bacitracin

 

  1. Used to prevent postoperative wound infections

 

  1. Used as a direct topical application to areas of active bleeding to control the bleeding

 

  1. Heparin

 

  1. Renografin

 

  1. Gelfoam

 

  1. Hypaque

 

  1. Used to inhibit thrombosis

 

  1. Thrombin

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 265-267

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   pp. 265-267

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 274

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 270

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 270

 

Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

A. Parenteral C. Topical
B. Oral

 

 

  1. Sublingual

 

  1. Intravenous

 

  1. Vaginal

 

  1. Intraosseous (IO)

 

  1. Subcutaneous (SQ)

 

  1. Intradermal (ID)

 

  1. Transdermal

 

  1. Intraperitoneal

 

  1. Ingestion

 

  1. Inhalant

 

  1. Intramuscular (IM)

 

  1. Instillation

 

  1. Rectal

 

  1. Buccal

 

  1. Nasal

 

  1. Intraspinal

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 262Chapter 23: General Surgery 

    MULTIPLE CHOICE

     

    1. The organs and organ systems that are included in general surgery are the following EXCEPT:
    A. spleen C. femur
    B. pancreas D. breast

     

     

    ANS:  C

    The organs and organ systems involved include the following: abdominal wall, gastrointestinal system, biliary system, spleen, pancreas, hepatic system, and breast.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 494

     

    1. RUQ refers to what part of the abdominal section?
    A. right lower quadrant C. right upper quality
    B. right upper quadrant D. right lower quality

     

     

    ANS:  B

    RUQ stands for right upper quadrant.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. LUQ refers to what part of the abdominal section?
    A. left upper quadrant C. left upper quality
    B. left lower quadrant D. left lower quality

     

     

    ANS:  A

    LUQ stands for left upper quadrant.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 483

     

    1. RLQ refers to what part of the abdominal section?
    A. right lower quality C. right upper quality
    B. right lower quadrant D. right upper quadrant

     

     

    ANS:  B

    RLQ stands for right lower quadrant.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 483

     

    1. LLQ refers to what part of the abdominal section?
    A. left upper quadrant C. left upper quality
    B. left lower quadrant D. left lower quality

     

     

    ANS:  B

    LLQ stands for left lower quadrant.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 483

     

    1. The abdomen is divided into nine regions; the organs located in the rib area is in the:
    A. left and right lumbar regions C. umbilical region
    B. left and right iliac regions D. left and right hypochondriac regions

     

     

    ANS:  D

    The rib is located in the left and right hypochondriac regions.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 483

     

    1. The abdomen is divided into nine regions; the organs located in the inguinal area is in the:
    A. left and right lumbar regions C. umbilical region
    B. left and right iliac regions D. left and right hypochondriac regions

     

     

    ANS:  B

    The inguinal area is located in the left and right iliac region.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 484

     

    1. The abdomen is divided into nine regions; the organ located in the flank area is in the:
    A. left and right lumbar regions C. umbilical region
    B. left and right iliac regions D. left and right hypochondriac regions

     

     

    ANS:  A

    The flank is located in the left and right lumbar region.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 484

     

    1. The abdomen is divided into nine regions; the organ located in the umbilicus area is in the:
    A. left and right lumbar regions C. umbilical region
    B. left and right iliac regions D. left and right hypochondriac regions

     

     

    ANS:  C

    The umbilicus is located in the umbilical region.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 484

     

    1. All of the following are distinct tissue layers that support the viscera, EXCEPT:
    A. fascia C. subcutaneous
    B. skin D. umbilicus

     

     

    ANS:  D

    These layers comprise the following: skin, subcutaneous, fascia, muscle, and peritoneum.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 484

     

    1. The spermatic cord in the male follows the inguinal canal and contains the following structures, EXCEPT:
    A. spermatic fascia C. lymph vessels
    B. lymph nodes D. cremaster muscle

     

     

    ANS:  B

    The spermatic cord in the male follows the inguinal canal and contains the following structures: spermatic fascia, cremaster muscle, genitofemoral nerve, ductus deferens, lymph vessels, and testicular vein and artery.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 484-485

     

    1. A midline incision is used for surgical procedures of the ___________?
    A. liver C. appendix
    B. sigmoid colon D. uterus

     

     

    ANS:  A

    A midline incision is made for surgical procedures of the lower esophagus, stomach, small intestine, liver, biliary system, spleen, pancreas, and proximal colon.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. A paramedian incision is used for surgical procedures of the _____________?
    A. spleen C. appendix
    B. pancreas D. uterus

     

     

    ANS:  B

    A paramedian incision is used for procedures of the (right) biliary system, pancreas; (left) spleen, and sigmoid colon.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. A subcostal incision is used for surgical procedures of the _____________?
    A. spleen C. appendix
    B. pancreas D. uterus

     

     

    ANS:  A

    A subcostal incision is used for surgical procedures of the right biliary system, spleen, and bilateral (chevron).

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. A McBurney’s incision is used for surgical procedures of the ____________?
    A. spleen C. appendix
    B. pancreas D. uterus

     

     

    ANS:  C

    A McBurney’s incision is used for surgical procedures of the appendix.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. An inguinal (oblique) incision is made for surgical procedures of the _____________?
    A. appendix C. liver
    B. spleen D. spermatic cord

     

     

    ANS:  D

    An inguinal incision is made for surgical procedures of the muscle and fascia of the inguinal abdominal wall, spermatic cord, inguinal ring, abdominal ring, and inferior epigastric artery and vein.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. A lower transverse abdominal incision is made for surgical procedures of the __________?
    A. spleen C. appendix
    B. pancreas D. uterus

     

     

    ANS:  D

    A lower transverse abdominal incision is made for surgical procedures of the uterus, adnexa, bladder, and access for C-sections.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 486

     

    1. Protrusion of abdominal tissue through one or more abdominal layers is a(n):
    A. strangulated hernia C. Spigelian hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. incisional hernia

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Incisional hernia is a protrusion of abdominal tissue through one or more abdominal layers.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. In a _____________ hernia, tissue protruding from the hernia may be swollen and squeezed.
    A. strangulated C. Spigelian
    B. direct inguinal D. incisional

     

     

    ANS:  A

    In a strangulated hernia, tissue protruding from the hernia may be swollen and squeezed.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. A hernia in which abdominal viscera slides into the inguinal canal from the deep inguinal ring is a(n):
    A. strangulated hernia C. indirect hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. incisional hernia

     

     

    ANS:  C

    An indirect hernia is a hernia in which abdominal viscera slides into the inguinal canal from the deep inguinal ring.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. Protrusion of abdominal or inguinal tissue directly through the transversalis fascia is a(n):
    A. strangulated hernia C. indirect hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. incisional hernia

     

     

    ANS:  B

    A direct inguinal hernia is a protrusion of abdominal or inguinal tissue directly through the transversalis fascia.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. A hernia arising from a weakness in the transversalis fascia below the inguinal ligament is a(n):
    A. umbilical hernia C. Spigelian hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. femoral hernia

     

     

    ANS:  D

    A femoral hernia is a hernia arising from a weakness in the transversalis fascia below the inguinal ligament.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. Abdominal wall defect occurring in the linea alba at the umbilical ring is a(n):
    A. umbilical hernia C. Spigelian hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. femoral hernia

     

     

    ANS:  A

    An umbilical hernia is an abdominal wall defect occurring in the linea alba at the umbilical ring.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. A rare hernia occurring between the transverse abdominis and rectus muscles is a(n):
    A. umbilical hernia C. Spigelian hernia
    B. direct inguinal hernia D. femoral hernia

     

     

    ANS:  C

    A Spigelian hernia is a rare hernia occurring between the transverse abdominis and rectus muscles.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 487

     

    1. The spermatic cord is retracted with a small _________________.
    A. arm tourniquet C. ortho drain
    B. JP drain D. Penrose drain

     

     

    ANS:  D

    The spermatic cord is retracted with a small Penrose drain.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 488

     

    1. Two techniques currently used for laparoscopic approach to a direct inguinal hernia are:
    A. TAPP and TPE C. TEP and TPPA
    B. TPE and TAP D. TAPP and TEP

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Two techniques currently used for laparoscopic approach to a direct inguinal hernia are TAPP (transabdominal preperitoneal) and TEP (total extraperitoneal).

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   pp. 488-489

     

    1. All of the following are supplies needed for a GI surgery, EXCEPT:
    A. bowel bag C. LF
    B. vessel loops D. HF

     

     

    ANS:  C

    All of the following are supplies needed for a GI surgery: HF vessel sealing system, ultrasound scalpel, vessel loops, ultrasound probe, bowel bag, and temporary ostomy bag.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 494

     

    1. To place one or more clamps at a right angle to a tube or vessel is:
    A. to cross-clamp C. resection
    B. to double-clamp D. anastomosis

     

     

    ANS:  A

    To cross-clamp is to place one or more clamps at a right angle to a tube or vessel.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. To place two clamps over a section of tissue to prevent bleeding when the tissue is severed is:
    A. to cross-clamp C. resection
    B. to double-clamp D. anastomosis

     

     

    ANS:  B

    To double-clamp is to place two clamps over a section of tissue to prevent bleeding when the tissue is severed.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. A procedure in which a section of an organ is cut apart or removed is:
    A. to cross-clamp C. to double-clamp
    B. anastomosis D. resection

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Resection is a procedure in which a section of an organ is cut apart or removed.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. A procedure in which two hollow organs are joined surgically is:
    A. to cross-clamp C. to double-clamp
    B. anastomosis D. resection

     

     

    ANS:  B

    Anastomosis is a procedure in which two hollow organs are joined surgically.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. The freeing up of tissue from its attachments before anastomosis or resection is:
    A. division C. to cross-clamp
    B. mobilization D. to clamp and divide

     

     

    ANS:  B

    Mobilization is the freeing up of tissue from its attachments before anastomosis or resection.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. A procedure in which one section of tissue is cut away from another is:
    A. division C. cross-clamp
    B. mobilization D. clamp and divide

     

     

    ANS:  A

    Division is a procedure in which one section of tissue is cut away from another.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 495

     

    1. What type of incision will be used for a vagotomy?
    A. McBurney’s C. midline
    B. transverse D. laparotomy

     

     

    ANS:  D

    A laparotomy incision is made.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 501

     

    1. Approximately 400,000 people die annually as a result of:
    A. SSI C. HAI
    B. wrong surgical site D. obesity

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Approximately 400,000 people die annually as a result of obesity.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 504

     

    1. This occurs most often as a postoperative complication or a result of pelvic or back injury and peritonitis:
    A. paralytic ileus C. strangulation
    B. volvulus D. intussusception

     

     

    ANS:  A

    Paralytic ileus occurs most often as a postoperative complication or a result of pelvic or back injury and peritonitis.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 508

     

    1. Telescoping of the intestines occurring mainly in children and resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the bowel is:
    A. paralytic ileus C. strangulation
    B. volvulus D. intussusception

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Intussusception is telescoping of the intestines occurring mainly in children and resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the bowel.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 507

     

    1. Twisting of the bowel on itself is:
    A. paralytic ileus C. strangulation
    B. volvulus D. intussusception

     

     

    ANS:  B

    Volvulus is twisting of the bowel on itself.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 507

     

    1. During a colon resection, the ______________ is often removed.
    A. distal colon C. proximal colon
    B. distal ileum D. proximal ileum

     

     

    ANS:  B

    During a colon resection, the distal ileum is often removed.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 509

     

    1. During a loop colostomy, the assistant retracts the abdominal wall with a:
    A. Deaver retractor C. Richardson retractor
    B. right angle retractor D. Kelly retractor

     

     

    ANS:  B

    During a loop colostomy, the assistant retracts the abdominal wall with a right angle retractor.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 511

     

    1. What type of instrument is used to grasp the loop of transverse colon?
    A. Allis C. Pennington
    B. Kelly D. Babcock

     

     

    ANS:  D

    Babcock clamps are used to grasp the loop of transverse colon.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 511

     

    1. What type of stitch will be placed around the base of the appendix?
    A. interrupted C. purse string
    B. horizontal D. none of the above

     

     

    ANS:  C

    A purse string stitch will be placed around the base of the appendix.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 515

     

    1. During an intraoperative cholangiography, all of the following supplies will be used, EXCEPT:
    A. injectable water C. contrast medium
    B. stopcock D. 30 and 50 cc syringe

     

     

    ANS:  A

    Supplies required for intraoperative cholangiography include: Contrast Medium, injectable saline, 30 and 50 cc syringes, stopcocks, and cholangiocatheter.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 520

     

    1. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, which two structures are occluded?
    A. cystic duct and common bile duct C. cystic duct and cystic artery
    B. common bile duct and artery D. cystic artery and common bile duct

     

     

    ANS:  C

    During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the cystic duct and cystic artery are occluded.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 521

     

    1. During a splenectomy, what four major requirements must be met to stop bleeding?
    A. access, visualization, good lighting, retractors
    B. access, visualization, temperature, clamps
    C. access, visualization, time, clamps
    D. access, visualization, good lighting, clamps

     

     

    ANS:  D

    During a splenectomy, four major requirements must be met to stop bleeding: access, visualization, good lighting, and clamps.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 523

     

    1. A range of procedures are available for surgical management of a breast tumor. All of the following are available, EXCEPT:
    A. needle aspiration biopsy C. sentinel node detection
    B. fine needle insertion D. lumpectomy

     

     

    ANS:  D

    A range of procedures are available for surgical management of a breast tumor: needle aspiration biopsy, fine needle insertion, and sentinel node detection.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 529

     

    1. During this procedure, a gamma ray detecting probe is used to determine which lymph nodes are affected:
    A. excisional biopsy C. sentinel lymph node biopsy
    B. wire localization D. none of the above

     

     

    ANS:  C

    During a sentinel lymph node biopsy, a gamma ray detecting probe is used to determine which lymph nodes are affected.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 531

     

    1. During a total mastectomy, what must the surgical technologist have readily available?
    A. ligating clips C. retractors
    B. scissors D. kockers

     

     

    ANS:  A

    As large blood vessels are encountered, they are ligated with surgical clips.

     

    PTS:   1                    DIF:    2                    REF:   p. 533

     

    MATCHING

     

    Choose from the terms listed and match them with their most correct description. You will use the same answer more than once.

    A. Esophagus D. Large intestine
    B. Stomach E. Rectum
    C. Small intestine F. Anus

     

     

    1. Cancer of the esophagus

     

    1. Polyps

     

    1. Peptic ulcer

     

    1. Hiatal hernia

     

    1. GERD

     

    1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 492

     

    1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 497

     

    1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 500

     

    1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 500

     

    1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    DIF:    3                    REF:   p. 500

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