# Physics 9th Edition Cutnell- Test Bank

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Physics 9th Edition Cutnell- Test Bank

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Chapter: Chapter 2

Multiple Choice

1. A particle travels along a curved path between two points P and Q as shown. The displacement of the particle does not depend on
2. A) the location of P.
3. B) the location of Q.
4. C) the distance traveled from P to Q.
5. D) the shortest distance between P and Q.
6. E) the direction of Q from P.

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. For which one of the following situations will the path length equal the magnitude of the displacement?
2. A) A toy train is traveling around a circular track.
3. B) A ball is rolling down an inclined plane.
4. C) A train travels 5 miles east before it stops. It then travels 2 miles west.
5. D) A ball rises and falls after being thrown straight up from the earth’s surface.
6. E) A ball on the end of a string is moving in a vertical circle.

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. Which one of the physical quantities listed below is not correctly paired with its SI unit and dimension?

 Quantity Unit Dimension

1. A)
 velocity m/s [L]/[T]

1. B)
 path length m [L]

1. C)
 speed m/s [L]/[T]

1. D)
 displacement m/s2 [L]/[T]2

1. E)
 speed × time m [L]

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. A car travels in a straight line covering a total distance of 90.0 miles in 60.0 minutes. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true?
2. A) The velocity of the car is constant.
3. B) The acceleration of the car must be non-zero.
4. C) The first 45 miles must have been covered in 30.0 minutes.
5. D) The speed of the car must be 90.0 miles per hour throughout the entire trip.
6. E) The average velocity of the car is 90.0 miles per hour in the direction of motion.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. At time t = 0 s, an object is observed at x = 0 m; and its position along the x axis follows this expression: x = –4t + t2, where the units for distance and time are meters and seconds, respectively. What is the object’s displacement Dx between t = 1.0 s and t = 3.0 s?
2. A) +16 m
3. B) –21 m
4. C) +10 m
5. D) +2 m
6. E) –5 m

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

Reference:  Ref 2-1

Peter noticed a bug crawling along a meter stick and decided to record the bug’s position in five-second intervals.  After the bug crawled off the meter stick, Peter created the table shown.

1. What is the displacement of the bug between t = 0.00 s and t = 20.0 s?
2. A) +39.9 cm
3. B) –39.9 cm
4. C) +65.7 cm
5. D) –16.1 cm
6. E) +16.1 cm

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-1

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. What is the total distance that the bug traveled between t = 0.00 s and t = 20.0 s? Assume the bug only changed directions at the end of a five-second interval.
2. A) 9 cm
3. B) 7 cm
4. C) 1 cm
5. D) 1 cm
6. E) 5 cm

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-1

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. In the process of delivering mail, a postal worker walks 161 m, due east from his truck. He then turns around and walks 194 m, due west from his truck.  What is the worker’s displacement relative to his truck?
2. A) 33 m, due west
3. B) 33 m, due east
4. C) 194 m, due west
5. D) 252 m, due east
6. E) 355 m, due west

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. A Canadian goose flew 845 km from Southern California to Oregon with an average speed of 28.0 m/s. How long, in hours, did it take the goose to make this journey?
2. A) 7 h
3. B) 33 h
4. C) 1 h
5. D) 70 h
6. E) 38 h

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. When the outdoor emergency warning siren at Cheryl’s school was tested, the sound from the siren took 7.0 s to reach her house located 2.40 km from the school. What is the speed of sound in air?
2. A) 240 m/s
3. B) 340 m/s
4. C) 440 m/s
5. D) 540 m/s
6. E) 640 m/s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. A bus leaves New York City, takes a non-direct route and arrives in St. Louis, Missouri 23 hours, 16 minutes later. If the distance between the two cities is 1250 km, what is the magnitude of the bus’ average velocity?
2. A) 2 km/h
3. B) 4 km/h
4. C) 0 km/h
5. D) 7 km/h
6. E) 1 km/h

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. Alexa’s hair grows with an average speed of 3.5 × 10–9 m/s. How long does it take her hair to grow 0.30 m? Note: 1 yr = 3.156 × 107 s.
2. A) 9 yr
3. B) 3 yr
4. C) 37 yr
5. D) 4 yr
6. E) 7 yr

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. Carl Lewis set a world record for the 100.0-m run with a time of 9.86 s. If, after reaching the finish line, Mr. Lewis walked directly back to his starting point in 90.9 s, what is the magnitude of his average velocity for the 200.0 m?
2. A) 0 m/s
3. B) 10 m/s
4. C) 98 m/s
5. D) 60 m/s
6. E) 1 m/s

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. During the first 18 minutes of a 1.0-hour trip, a car has an average speed of 11 m/s. What must the average speed of the car be during the last 42 minutes of the trip be if the car is to have an average speed of 21 m/s for the entire trip?
2. A) 21 m/s
3. B) 23 m/s
4. C) 25 m/s
5. D) 27 m/s
6. E) 29 m/s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. A turtle takes 3.5 minutes to walk 18 m toward the south along a deserted highway. A truck driver stops and picks up the turtle.  The driver takes the turtle to a town 1.1 km to the north with an average speed of 12 m/s.  What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the turtle for its entire journey?
2. A) 6 m/s
3. B) 8 m/s
4. C) 0 m/s
5. D) 6 m/s
6. E) 11 m/s

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

Reference:  Ref 2-2

A racecar, traveling at constant speed, makes one lap around a circular track of radius r in a time t.     Note: The circumference of a circle is given by C = 2pr.

1. When the car has traveled halfway around the track, what is the magnitude of its displacement from the starting point?
2. A) r
3. B) 2r
4. C) pr
5. D) 2pr
6. E) zero meters

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-2

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. What is the average speed of the car for one complete lap?
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E) zero meters/second

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-2

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. Determine the magnitude of the average velocity of the car for one complete lap.
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E) zero meters/second

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-2

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. Which one of the following statements concerning this car is true?
2. A) The displacement of the car does not change with time.
3. B) The instantaneous velocity of the car is constant.
4. C) The average speed of the car is the same over any time interval.
5. D) The average velocity of the car is the same over any time interval.
6. E) The average speed of the car over any time interval is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity over the same time interval.

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-2

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-1 and 2-2

1. In which one of the following situations does the car have a westward acceleration?
2. A) The car travels westward at constant speed.
3. B) The car travels eastward and speeds up.
4. C) The car travels westward and slows down.
5. D) The car travels eastward and slows down.
6. E) The car starts from rest and moves toward the east.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. An elevator is moving upward with a speed of 11 m/s. Three seconds later, the elevator is still moving upward, but its speed has been reduced to 5.0 m/s.   What is the average acceleration of the elevator during the 3.0 s interval?
2. A) 0 m/s2, upward
3. B) 0 m/s2, downward
4. C) 3 m/s2, upward
5. D) 3 m/s2, downward
6. E) 7 m/s2, downward

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. A landing airplane makes contact with the runway with a speed of 75.0 m/s and moves toward the south. After 18.5 seconds, the airplane comes to rest.  What is the average acceleration of the airplane during the landing?
2. A) 11 m/s2, north
3. B) 11 m/s2, south
4. C) 05 m/s2, north
5. D) 05 m/s2, south
6. E) 3 m/s2, north

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. A pitcher delivers a fast ball with a velocity of 43 m/s to the south. The batter hits the ball and gives it a velocity of 51 m/s to the north.  What was the average acceleration of the ball during the 1.0 ms when it was in contact with the bat?
2. A) 3 × 104 m/s2, south
3. B) 1 × 104 m/s2, north
4. C) 4 × 104 m/s2, north
5. D) 2 × 103 m/s2, south
6. E) 0 × 103 m/s2, north

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. A car is moving at a constant velocity when it is involved in a collision. The car comes to rest after 0.450 s with an average acceleration of 60.0 m/s2 in the direction opposite that of the car’s velocity.  What was the speed, in km/h, of the car before the collision?
2. A) 2 km/h
3. B) 8 km/h
4. C) 2 km/h
5. D) 105 km/h
6. E) 144 km/h

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. A train with a constant velocity of +28.6 m/s approaches a small town . The operator applies the brake, reducing the train’s velocity to +11.4 m/s.  If the average acceleration of the train during braking is –1.35 m/s2, for what elapsed time does the operator apply the brake?
2. A) 44 s
3. B) 7 s
4. C) 38 s
5. D) 92 s
6. E) 4 s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-3

1. Which one of the following is not a vector quantity?
2. A) acceleration
3. B) average speed
4. C) displacement
5. D) average velocity
6. E) instantaneous velocity

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. In which one of the following cases is the displacement of the object directly proportional to the elapsed time?
2. A) a ball rolls with constant velocity
3. B) a ball at rest is given a constant acceleration
4. C) a ball rolling with velocity vo is given a constant acceleration
5. D) a bead falling through oil experiences a decreasing acceleration
6. E) a rocket fired from the earth’s surface experiences an increasing acceleration

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Which one of the following statements must be true if the expression is to be used?
2. A) x is constant.
3. B) v is constant.
4. C) t is constant.
5. D) a is constant.
6. E) Both v0 and t are constant.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the motion of this particle?
2. A) The particle travels 5.0 m during each second.
3. B) The particle travels 5.0 m only during the first second.
4. C) The speed of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s during each second.
5. D) The acceleration of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s2 during each second.
6. E) The final speed of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Which one of the following situations is not possible?
2. A) A body has zero velocity and non-zero acceleration.
3. B) A body travels with a northward velocity and a northward acceleration.
4. C) A body travels with a northward velocity and a southward acceleration.
5. D) A body travels with a constant velocity and a time-varying acceleration.
6. E) A body travels with a constant acceleration and a time-varying velocity.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A truck accelerates from rest at point A with constant acceleration of magnitude a and, subsequently, passes points B and C as shown in the figure.

The distance between points B and C is x, and the time required for the truck to travel from B to C is t.  Which expression determines the average speed of the truck between the points B and C?

1. A) v2 = 2ax
2. B)
3. C) v = xt
4. D)
5. E) v = at

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Two objects A and B accelerate from rest with the same constant acceleration. Object A accelerates

for twice as much time as object B, however.  Which one of the following statements is true concerning these objects at the end of their respective periods of acceleration?

1. A) Object A will travel twice as far as object B.
2. B) Object A will travel four times as far as object B.
3. C) Object A will travel eight times further than object B.
4. D) Object A will be moving four times faster than object B.
5. E) Object A will be moving eight times faster than object B.

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Two cars travel along a level highway. It is observed that the distance between the cars is increasing.  Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is necessarily true?
2. A) The velocity of each car is increasing.
3. B) At least one of the cars has a non-zero
4. C) The leading car has the greater acceleration.
5. D) The trailing car has the smaller acceleration.
6. E) Both cars could be accelerating at the same rate.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car, starting from rest, accelerates in a straight-line path at a constant rate of 2.0 m/s2.

How far will the car travel in 12 seconds?

1. A) 180 m
2. B) 144 m
3. C) 6 m
4. D) 24 m
5. E) 288 m

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. An object moving along a straight line is decelerating. Which one of the following statements concerning the object’s acceleration is necessarily true?
2. A) The value of the acceleration is positive.
3. B) The direction of the acceleration is in the same direction as the displacement.
4. C) An object that is decelerating has a negative acceleration.
5. D) The direction of the acceleration is in the direction opposite to that of the velocity.
6. E) The acceleration changes as the object moves along the line.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car starts from rest and accelerates at a constant rate in a straight line. In the first second the car moves a distance of 2.0 meters. How fast will the car be moving at the end of the second second?
2. A) 0 m/s
3. B) 16 m/s
4. C) 0 m/s
5. D) 32 m/s
6. E) 0 m/s

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car starts from rest and accelerates at a constant rate in a straight line. In the first second the car moves a distance of 2.0 meters.  How much additional distance will the car move during the second second of its motion?
2. A) 0 m
3. B) 0 m
4. C) 0 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 13 m

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car is initially traveling at 50.0 km/h. The brakes are applied and the car stops over a distance of 35 m.  What was magnitude of the car’s acceleration while it was braking?
2. A) 8 m/s2
3. B) 4 m/s2
4. C) 36 m/s2
5. D) 71 m/s2
6. E) 8 m/s2

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. The minimum takeoff speed for a certain airplane is 75 m/s. What minimum acceleration is required if the plane must leave a runway of length 1050 m?  Assume the plane starts from rest at one end of the runway.
2. A) 5 m/s2
3. B) 0 m/s2
4. C) 5 m/s2
5. D) 0 m/s2
6. E) 7 m/s2

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car traveling along a road begins accelerating with a constant acceleration of 1.5 m/s2 in the direction of motion. After traveling 392 m at this acceleration, its speed is 35 m/s.  Determine the speed of the car when it began accelerating.
2. A) 5 m/s
3. B) 0 m/s
4. C) 34 m/s
5. D) 49 m/s
6. E) 3 m/s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A train with a constant speed of 16 m/s passes through a town.  After leaving the town, the train accelerates at 0.33 m/s2 until it reaches a speed of 35 m/s.   How far did the train travel while it was accelerating?
2. A) 029 km
3. B) 53 km
4. C) 5 km
5. D) 3 km
6. E) 0 km

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A cheetah is walking at a speed of 1.15 m/s when it observes a gazelle 43.0 m directly ahead. If the cheetah accelerates at 9.25 m/s2, how long does it take the cheetah to reach the gazelle if the gazelle doesn’t move?
2. A) 29 s
3. B) 67 s
4. C) 05 s
5. D) 94 s
6. E) 93 s

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A body initially at rest is accelerated at a constant rate for 5.0 seconds in the positive x direction. If the final speed of the body is 20.0 m/s, what was the body’s acceleration?
2. A) 25 m/s2
3. B) 0 m/s2
4. C) 0 m/s2
5. D) 8 m/s2
6. E) 6 m/s2

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A race car has a speed of 80 m/s when the driver releases a drag parachute. If the parachute causes a deceleration of –4 m/s2, how far will the car travel before it stops?
2. A) 20 m
3. B) 200 m
4. C) 400 m
5. D) 800 m
6. E) 1000 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. A car is stopped at a red traffic light. When the light turns to green, the car has a constant acceleration and crosses the 9.10-m intersection in 2.86 s.  What is the magnitude of the car’s acceleration?
2. A) 77 m/s2
3. B) 98 m/s2
4. C) 23 m/s2
5. D) 36 m/s2
6. E) 80 m/s2

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

Reference:  Ref 2-3

An object starts from rest and accelerates uniformly in a straight line in the positive x direction.

After 11 seconds, its speed is 70.0 m/s.

1. Determine the acceleration of the object.
2. A) +3.5 m/s2
3. B) +6.4 m/s2
4. C) –3.5 m/s2
5. D) –6.4 m/s2
6. E) +7.7 m/s2

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-3

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. How far does the object travel during the first 11 seconds?
2. A) 35 m
3. B) 77 m
4. C) 390 m
5. D) 590 m
6. E) 770 m

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-3

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. What is the average velocity of the object during the first 11 seconds?
2. A) +3.6 m/s
3. B) +6.4 m/s
4. C) +35 m/s
5. D) +72 m/s
6. E) –140 m/s

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-3

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-4 and Section 2-5

1. Ball A is dropped from rest from a window. At the same instant, ball B is thrown downward; and ball C is thrown upward from the same window.  Which statement concerning the balls after their release is necessarily true if air resistance is neglected?
2. A) At some instant after it is thrown, the acceleration of ball C is zero.
3. B) All three balls strike the ground at the same time.
4. C) All three balls have the same velocity at any instant.
5. D) All three balls have the same acceleration at any instant.
6. E) All three balls reach the ground with the same velocity.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. Consider the following quantities:

(1) the speed of the ball;    (2) the velocity of the ball;    (3) the acceleration of the ball.

Which of these is (are) zero when the ball has reached the maximum height?

1. A) 1 and 2 only
2. B) 1 and 3 only
3. C) 1 only
4. D) 2 only
5. E) 1, 2, and 3

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. The ball rises to some maximum height and falls back toward the surface of the earth.  Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true if air resistance is neglected?
2. A) As the ball rises, its acceleration vector points upward.
3. B) The ball is a freely falling body for the duration of its flight.
4. C) The acceleration of the ball is zero when the ball is at its highest point.
5. D) The speed of the ball is negative while the ball falls back toward the earth.
6. E) The velocity and acceleration of the ball always point in the same direction.

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A brick is dropped from rest from a height of 4.9 m. How long does it take the brick to reach the ground?
2. A) 6 s
3. B) 0 s
4. C) 2 s
5. D) 4 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A ball is dropped from rest from a tower and strikes the ground 110 m below. Approximately how many seconds does it take the ball to strike the ground after being dropped?  Neglect air resistance.
2. A) 50 s
3. B) 50 s
4. C) 4,74 s
5. D) 5 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Water drips from rest from a leaf that is 15 meters above the ground. Neglecting air resistance, what is the speed of each water drop when it hits the ground?
2. A) 30 m/s
3. B) 17 m/s
4. C) 40 m/s
5. D) 15 m/s
6. E) 20 m/s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Ryan throws a tennis ball vertically upward. The ball returns to the point of release after 3.5 s.  What is the speed of the ball as it is released?
2. A) 0 m/s
3. B) 14 m/s
4. C) 17 m/s
5. D) 21 m/s
6. E) 34 m/s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A rock is dropped from rest from a height h above the ground. It falls and hits the ground with a speed of 11 m/s.  From what height should the rock be dropped so that its speed on hitting the ground is 22 m/s?  Neglect air resistance.
2. A) 4h
3. B) 0h
4. C) 0h
5. D) 0h
6. E) 71h

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. A hammer is accidentally dropped from rest down a vertical mine shaft. How long does it take for the rock to reach a depth of 79 m?  Neglect air resistance.
2. A) 8 s
3. B) 0 s
4. C) 0 s
5. D) 9 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Neglecting air resistance, what maximum height will be reached by an arrow launched straight upward with an initial speed of 35 m/s?
2. A) 98 m
3. B) 160 m
4. C) 41 m
5. D) 63 m
6. E) 18 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

Reference:  Ref 2-4

A ball is shot straight up from the surface of the earth with an initial speed of 19.6 m/s.

Neglect any effects due to air resistance.

1. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement from the starting point after 1.00 second has elapsed?
2. A) 80 m
3. B) 7 m
4. C) 6 m
5. D) 5 m
6. E) 8 m

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-4

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. What maximum height will the ball reach?
2. A) 80 m
3. B) 7 m
4. C) 6 m
5. D) 5 m
6. E) 8 m

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-4

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. How much time elapses between the throwing of the ball and its return to the original launch point?
2. A) 00 s
3. B) 00 s
4. C) 0 s
5. D) 00 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-4

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

Reference:  Ref 2-5

A tennis ball is shot vertically upward in an evacuated chamber inside a tower with an initial speed of 20.0 m/s at time t = 0 s.

1. How high does the ball rise?
2. A) 2 m
3. B) 4 m
4. C) 8 m
5. D) 4 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-5

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Approximately how long does it take the tennis ball to reach its maximum height?
2. A) 50 s
3. B) 04 s
4. C) 08 s
5. D) 08 s
6. E) 80 s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-5

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Determine the velocity of the ball at t = 3.00 seconds.
2. A) 40 m/s, downward
3. B) 40 m/s, upward
4. C) 4 m/s, downward
5. D) 8 m/s, upward
6. E) 8 m/s, downward

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-5

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the ball when it is at its highest point?
2. A) zero m/s2
3. B) 80 m/s2
4. C) 6 m/s2
5. D) 90 m/s2
6. E) 13 m/s2

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-5

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-6

1. Starting from rest, a particle that is confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2. Which statement concerning the slope of the position versus time graph for this particle is true?
2. A) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s.
3. B) The slope has a constant value of 5.0 m/s2.
4. C) The slope is both constant and negative.
5. D) The slope is not constant and increases with increasing time.
6. E) The slope is not constant and decreases with increasing time.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. The graph shows the height versus time of an object. Estimate the instantaneous velocity, in m/s, of the object at time t = 15 min.
2. A) 90 m/s
3. B) 70 m/s
4. C) 50 m/s
5. D) 30 m/s
6. E) 10 m/s

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

Reference:  Ref 2-6

An object is moving along the x axis.  The graph shows its position from the starting point as a function of time.  Various segments of the graph are identified by the letters A, B, C, and D.

1. During which interval(s) is(are) the object moving in the negative x direction?
2. A) during interval B only
3. B) during intervals B and C
4. C) during intervals C and D
5. D) during intervals B and D
6. E) during intervals B, C, and D

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-6

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. What is the velocity of the object at t = 7.0 s?
2. A) +3.0 m/s
3. B) –1.0 m/s
4. C) –2.0 m/s
5. D) –3.0 m/s
6. E) zero m/s

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-6

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. What is the acceleration of the object at t = 7.0 s?
2. A) zero m/s2
3. B) –2.0 m/s2
4. C) –3.0 m/s2
5. D) +9.8 m/s2
6. E) +4.0 m/s2

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-6

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

Reference:  Ref 2-7

An object is moving along a straight line.  The graph shows the object’s position from the starting point as a function of time.

1. In which segment(s) of the graph does the object’s average velocity (measured from t = 0 s) decrease with time?
2. A) AB only
3. B) BC only
4. C) DE only
5. D) AB and CD
6. E) BC and DE

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-7

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. What was the instantaneous velocity of the object at t = 4 s?
2. A) +6 m/s
3. B) +8 m/s
4. C) +10 m/s
5. D) +20 m/s
6. E) +40 m/s

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-7

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. In which segment or segments of the graph does the object have the highest speed?
2. A) AB
3. B) BC
4. C) CD
5. D) DE
6. E) AB and CD

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-7

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. At which time or times does the object reverse its direction of motion?
2. A) 1 s and 2 s
3. B) 2 s and 5 s
4. C) 1 s
5. D) 2 s
6. E) 5 s

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-7

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

Reference:  Ref 2-8

An object is moving along a straight line.  The graph shows the object’s velocity as a function of time.

1. During which interval(s) of the graph does the object travel equal distances in equal times?
2. A) 0 s to 2 s
3. B) 2 s to 3 s
4. C) 3 s to 5 s
5. D) 0 s to 2 s and 3 s to 5 s
6. E) 0 s to 2 s, 3 to 5 s, and 5 to 6 s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-8

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. During which interval(s) of the graph does the speed of the object increase by equal amounts in equal times?
2. A) 0 s to 2 s
3. B) 2 s to 3 s
4. C) 3 s to 5 s
5. D) 0 s to 2 s and 3 s to 5 s
6. E) 0 s to 2 s, 3 to 5 s, and 5 to 6 s

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-8

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. How far does the object move in the interval from t = 0 to t = 2 s?
2. A) 5 m
3. B) 10 m
4. C) 15 m
5. D) 20 m
6. E) 25 m

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-8

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. What is the acceleration of the object in the interval from t = 5 s to t = 6 s?
2. A) –40 m/s2
3. B) +40 m/s2
4. C) –20 m/s2
5. D) +20 m/s2
6. E) –10 m/s2

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-8

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

Reference:  Ref 2-9

An object is moving along a straight line in the positive x direction.  The graph shows its position from the starting point as a function of time. Various segments of the graph are identified by the letters A, B, C, and D.

1. Which segment(s) of the graph represent(s) a constant velocity of +1.0 m/s?
2. A) A
3. B) B
4. C) C
5. D) D
6. E) A and C

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-9

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. What was the instantaneous velocity of the object at the end of the eighth second?
2. A) +7.5 m/s
3. B) +0.94 m/s
4. C) –0.94 m/s
5. D) +1.1 m/s
6. E) zero m/s

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-9

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. During which interval(s) did the object move in the negative x direction?
2. A) only during interval B
3. B) only during interval C
4. C) only during interval D
5. D) during both intervals C and D
6. E) The object never moved in the negative x

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-9

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 2-7

1. The rate at which the acceleration of an object changes with time is called a jerk. What is the dimension of the jerk?
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E)

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

1. In a race, Marcos runs 1.00 mile in 4.02 min, mounts a bicycle, and rides back to his starting point, which is also the finish line, in 3.02 min. What is the magnitude of Marcos’ average velocity for the race?
2. A) zero mi/h
3. B) 1 mi/h
4. C) 9 mi/h
5. D) 0 mi/h
6. E) 9 mi/h

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

Reference:  Ref 2-10

A automotive test driver travels due north in a prototype hybrid vehicle at 30 mi/h for 2 hours.  She then reverses her direction and travels due south at 60 mi/h for 1 hour.

1. What is the average speed of the vehicle?
2. A) zero mi/h
3. B) 30 mi/h
4. C) 40 mi/h
5. D) 50 mi/h
6. E) 60 mi/h

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-10

Difficulty:  Medium

1. What is the average velocity of the vehicle?
2. A) zero mi/h
3. B) 40 mi/h, north
4. C) 40 mi/h, south
5. D) 45 mi/h, north
6. E) 45 mi/h, south

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-10

Difficulty:  Hard

Reference:  Ref 2-11

Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 4 m/s2.

1. Which statement accurately describes the motion of the particle?
2. A) The particle travels 4 meters during each second.
3. B) The particle travels 4 meters during the first second only.
4. C) The speed of the particle increases by 4 m/s during each second.
5. D) The acceleration of the particle increases by 4 m/s2 during each second.
6. E) The final velocity of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-11

Difficulty:  Easy

1. After 10 seconds, how far will the particle have traveled?
2. A) 20 m
3. B) 40 m
4. C) 100 m
5. D) 200 m
6. E) 400 m

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-11

Difficulty:  Medium

1. What is the speed of the particle after it has traveled 8 m?
2. A) 4 m/s
3. B) 8 m/s
4. C) 30 m/s
5. D) 60 m/s
6. E) 100 m/s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-11

Difficulty:  Medium

Reference:  Ref 2-12

A rock, dropped from rest near the surface of an atmosphere-free planet, attains a speed of 20.0 m/s after falling 8.0 meters.

1. What is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet?
2. A) 40 m/s2
3. B) 3 m/s2
4. C) 5 m/s2
5. D) 25 m/s2
6. E) 160 m/s2

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-12

Difficulty:  Medium

1. How long did it take the object to fall the 8.0 meters mentioned?
2. A) 40 s
3. B) 80 s
4. C) 3 s
5. D) 5 s
6. E) 16 s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-12

Difficulty:  Medium

1. How long would it take the object, falling from rest, to fall 16 m on this planet?
2. A) 8 s
3. B) 1 s
4. C) 5 s
5. D) 5 s
6. E) 22 s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-12

Difficulty:  Medium

1. Determine the speed of the object after falling from rest through 16 m on this planet.
2. A) 28 m/s
3. B) 32 m/s
4. C) 56 m/s
5. D) 64 m/s
6. E) 320 m/s

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-12

Difficulty:  Medium

Reference:  Ref 2-13

A brass ball is shot vertically upward from the surface of an atmosphere-free planet with an initial speed of 20.0 m/s.  One second later, the ball has an instantaneous velocity in the upward direction of 15.0 m/s.

1. What is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet?
2. A) 0 m/s2
3. B) 8 m/s2
4. C) 12 m/s2
5. D) 15 m/s2
6. E) 24 m/s2

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-13

Difficulty:  Medium

1. How long does it take the ball to reach its maximum height?
2. A) 0 s
3. B) 3 s
4. C) 0 s
5. D) 6 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-13

Difficulty:  Hard

1. How high does the ball rise?
2. A) 0 m
3. B) 0 m
4. C) 0 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-13

Difficulty:  Hard

1. Determine the velocity of the ball when it returns to its original position. Note: assume the upward direction is positive.
2. A) +20 m/s
3. B) –20 m/s
4. C) +40 m/s
5. D) –40 m/s
6. E) zero m/s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-13

Difficulty:  Hard

1. How long is the ball in the air when it returns to its original position?
2. A) 0 s
3. B) 6 s
4. C) 0 s
5. D) 2 s
6. E) 16 s

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-13

Difficulty:  Medium

Reference:  Ref 2-14

A small object is released from rest and falls 1.00 × 102 feet near the surface of the earth. Neglect air resistance.

1. How long will it take to fall through the 1.00 × 102 feet mentioned?
2. A) 49 s
3. B) 12 s
4. C) 50 s
5. D) 25 s
6. E) 0 s

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 2-14

Difficulty:  Medium

1. Approximately how fast will the object be moving after falling through the 1.00 × 102 feet mentioned?
2. A) 8 ft/s
3. B) 40 ft/s
4. C) 80 ft/s
5. D) 160 ft/s
6. E) 320 ft/s

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 2-14

Difficulty:  Medium

Reference:  Ref 2-15

The figure shows the speed as a function of time for an object in free fall near the surface of the earth.

The object was dropped from rest in a long evacuated cylinder.

1. Which one of the following statements best explains why the graph goes through the origin?
2. A) The object was in a vacuum.
3. B) The object was dropped from rest.
4. C) The velocity of the object was constant.
5. D) All v t curves pass through the origin.
6. E) The acceleration of the object was constant.

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 2-15

Difficulty:  Hard

1. What is the numerical value of the slope of the line?
2. A) 0 m/s2
3. B) 0 m/s2
4. C) 7 m/s2
5. D) 8 m/s2
6. E) This cannot be determined from the information given since the speed and time values are unknown.

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-15

Difficulty:  Hard

1. What is the speed of the object 3.0 seconds after it is dropped?
2. A) 0 m/s
3. B) 7 m/s
4. C) 8 m/s
5. D) 29 m/s
6. E) This cannot be determined since there is no specified value of height.

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 2-15

Difficulty:  Hard

1. If the same object were released in air, the magnitude of its acceleration would begin at the free-fall value, but it would decrease continuously to zero as the object continued to fall. For which one of the choices given does the solid line best represent the speed of the object as a function of time when it is dropped from rest in air?

Note:  The dashed line shows the free-fall under vacuum graph for comparison.

1. A) a
2. B) b
3. C) c
4. D) d
5. E) e

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 2-15

Difficulty:  Hard

Import Settings:

Base Settings: Brownstone Default

Information Field: Difficulty

Information Field: SectionDef

Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No

Chapter: Chapter 16

Multiple Choice

1. Which one of the following waves is purely longitudinal?
2. A) sound waves in air
3. B) microwaves traveling through air
4. C) radio waves traveling through vacuum
5. D) waves on a plucked violin string
6. E) surface waves in a shallow pan of water

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. A periodic wave is produced on a stretched string. Which one of the following properties is not related to the speed of the wave?
2. A) frequency
3. B) amplitude
4. C) period
5. D) wavelength
6. E) tension in the string

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. A periodic wave travels along a stretched string in the direction shown by the arrow. The sketch shows a “snapshot” of the pulse at a certain instant.  Points A, B, and C are on the string.  Which entry in the table below correctly describes how particles of string between A and B and between B and C are moving?

between A and B         between B and C

1. A) down                           down
2. B) up                                down
3. C) left                               right
4. D) up                                up
5. E) down                           up

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. The speed of sound in a certain metal block is 2.00 × 103 m/s. The graph shows the amplitude (in meters) of a wave traveling through the block versus time (in milliseconds). What is the wavelength of this wave?
2. A) 5 m
3. B) 5 m
4. C) 0 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. Two canoes are 10 m apart on a lake. Each bobs up and down with a period of 8.0 seconds.  When one canoe is at its highest point, the other canoe is at its lowest point.  Both canoes are always within a single cycle of the waves.  Determine the speed of the waves.
2. A) 5 m/s
3. B) 3 m/s
4. C) 0 m/s
5. D) 65 m/s
6. E) 75 m/s

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. What is the wavelength of a wave with a speed of 9.0 m/s and a period of 0.33 s?
2. A) 33 m
3. B) 5 m
4. C) 0 m
5. D) 13 m
6. E) 27 m

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. Which one of the following statements concerning waves is false?
2. A) A wave can have both transverse and longitudinal components.
3. B) A wave carries energy from one place to another.
4. C) A wave does not result in the bulk flow of the material of its medium.
5. D) A wave is a traveling disturbance.
6. E) A transverse wave is one in which the disturbance is parallel to the direction of travel.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. A wave has a frequency of 58 Hz and a speed of 31 m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?
2. A) 9 m
3. B) 5 m
4. C) 29 m
5. D) 53 m
6. E) 31 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

Reference:  Ref 16-1

The displacement of a vibrating string versus position along the string is shown in the figure.  The periodic waves have a speed of 10.0 cm/s.  A and B are two points on the string.

1. What is the amplitude of the wave?
2. A) 2 mm
3. B) 4 mm
4. C) 8 mm
5. D) 12 mm
6. E) 16 mm

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 16-1

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. What is the wavelength of the wave?
2. A) 0 cm
3. B) 0 cm
4. C) 0 cm
5. D) 12 cm
6. E) 15 cm

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 16-1

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. What is the frequency of the wave?
2. A) 60 Hz
3. B) 90 Hz
4. C) 1 Hz
5. D) 3 Hz
6. E) 7 Hz

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 16-1

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. What is the difference in phase between the points A and B?

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 16-1

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-1 and 16-2

1. The tension in a taut rope is increased by a factor of 9. How does the speed of wave pulses on the rope change, if at all?
2. A) The speed remains the same.
3. B) The speed is reduced by a factor of 3.
4. C) The speed is reduced by a factor of 9.
5. D) The speed is increased by a factor of 3.
6. E) The speed is increased by a factor of 9.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-3

1. A certain string on a piano is tuned to produce middle C (f = 261.63 Hz) by carefully adjusting the tension in the string. For a fixed wavelength, what is the frequency when this tension is tripled?
2. A) 21 Hz
3. B) 05 Hz
4. C) 00 Hz
5. D) 16 Hz
6. E) 89 Hz

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-3

1. A steel wire of mass 0.400 kg and length 0.640 m supports a 102-kg block. The wire is struck exactly at its midpoint causing a small displacement.  How long does it take the peak of this displacement to reach the top of the wire?
2. A) 00 × 10–3 s
3. B) 00 × 10–3 s
4. C) 00 × 10–3 s
5. D) 00 × 10–3 s
6. E) 60 × 10–2 s

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-3

1. A wave moves at a constant speed along a string. Which one of the following statements is false concerning the motion of particles in the string?
2. A) The particle speed is constant.
3. B) The particle speed is not the same as the wave speed.
4. C) The particle speed depends on the amplitude of the periodic motion of the source.
5. D) The particle speed depends on the frequency of the periodic motion of the source.
6. E) The particle speed is independent of the tension and linear density of the string.

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-3

1. A wave is traveling at 35 m/s on a string with a linear density of 0.082 kg/m. What is the tension in the string?
2. A) 28 N
3. B) 56 N
4. C) 5 N
5. D) 0 N
6. E) 10 N

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-3

1. A transverse periodic wave described by the expression

(where y and x are in meters and t is in seconds) is established on a string.  Which one of the following statements concerning this wave is false?

1. A) The wave is traveling in the negative x
2. B) The amplitude is 1.0 m.
3. C) The frequency of the wave is 0.10 Hz.
4. D) The wavelength of this wave is 2.0 m.
5. E) The wave travels with speed 5.0 m/s.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. Of the three traveling waves listed below, which one(s) is(are) traveling in the +x direction?
 (1) y  = +3.2 sin [4.1t + 2.3x] (2) y  = –6.8 sin [–3.0t + 1.5x] (3) y  = +4.9 sin [12.0t + 18x]

1. A) 1 only
2. B) 2 only
3. C) 3 only
4. D) 1, 2, and 3
5. E) 2 and 3 only

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. A wave has an amplitude of 0.35 m, a frequency of 1.05 × 106 Hz, and travels in the positive x direction at the speed of light, 3.00 × 108 m/s. Which one of the following equations correctly represents this wave?
2. A) y = 0.35 sin (6.60 × 106t – 0.022x)
3. B) y = 0.35 sin (6.60 × 106t + 0.022x)
4. C) y = 0.35 sin (286t – 1.05 × 106x)
5. D) y = 0.35 sin (286t + 1.05 × 106x)
6. E) y = 0.35 sin (1.05 × 106t + 3.00 × 108x)

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. A transverse periodic wave is established on a string. The wave is described by the expression
 y = 0.005 sin(20.0x – 2pft)

where y is in meters when x and t are in meters and seconds, respectively.  If the wave travels with a speed of 20.0 m/s, what is its frequency, f?

1. A) 16 Hz
2. B) 64 Hz
3. C) 9 Hz
4. D) 7 Hz
5. E) 400 Hz

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. A transverse wave is traveling in the –x direction on a string that has a linear density of 0.011 kg/m. The tension in the string is 7.4 N. The amplitude of the wave is 0.017 m; and its wavelength is 1.5 m.  Which one of the following is the correct equation for the displacement of a particle from its equilibrium position?
2. A) y = (0.017 m) sin[(84 Hz)t + (4.2 m–1)x]
3. B) y = (0.017 m) sin[(110 Hz)t + (4.2 m–1)x]
4. C) y = (4.2 m) sin[(84 Hz)t + (59 m–1)x]
5. D) y = (4.2 m) sin[(110 Hz)t – (59 m–1)x]
6. E) y = (0.017 m) sin[(110 Hz)t – (8.4 m–1)x]

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. A transverse periodic wave on a string with a linear density of 0.200 kg/m is described by the following equation: y = 0.08 sin(469t – 28.0x), where x and y are in meters and t is in seconds. What is the tension in the string?
2. A) 99 N
3. B) 5 N
4. C) 56.1 N
5. D) 8 N
6. E) 6 N

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-4

1. A guitar string is plucked and set into vibration. The vibrating string disturbs the surrounding air, resulting in a sound wave.  Which entry in the table below is correct?

wave in the string        sound wave in air

1. A) The wave is transverse. yes                               yes
2. B) The wave speed increases no                                yes

if the temperature rises.

1. C) The wave is longitudinal. yes                               yes
2. D) The wave is transmitted no                                yes

by particle vibrations.

1. E) The wave transports energy. yes                               no

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. A bell is ringing inside of a sealed glass jar that is connected to a vacuum pump. Initially, the jar is filled with air.  What does one hear as the air is slowly removed from the jar by the pump?
2. A) The sound intensity from the bell gradually decreases.
3. B) The frequency of the sound from the bell gradually increases.
4. C) The frequency of the sound from the bell gradually decreases.
5. D) The speed of the sound from the bell gradually increases.
6. E) The intensity of the sound from the bell does not change.

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. A stationary railroad whistle is sounded. An echo is heard 5.0 seconds later by the train’s engineer.  If the speed of sound is 343 m/s, how far away is the reflecting surface?
2. A) 68 m
3. B) 140 m
4. C) 860 m
5. D) 1700 m
6. E) 2000 m

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. The speed of sound in fresh water at 293 K is 1482 m/s. At what temperature is the speed of sound in helium gas the same as that of fresh water at 293 K?  Helium is considered a monatomic ideal gas (g = 1.67 and atomic mass = 4.003 u).
2. A) 313 K
3. B) 377 K
4. C) 442 K
5. D) 525 K
6. E) 633 K

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. Two fans are watching a baseball game from different positions. One fan is located directly behind home plate, 18.3 m from the batter.  The other fan is located in the centerfield bleachers, 127 m from the batter.  Both fans observe the batter strike the ball at the same time (because the speed of light is about a million times faster than that of sound), but the fan behind home plate hears the sound first.  What is the time difference between hearing the sound at the two locations?  Use 345 m/s as the speed of sound.
2. A) 316 s
3. B) 368 s
4. C) 17 s
5. D) 89 s
6. E) 053 s

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. Two children setup a “telephone” by placing a long, slender aluminum (Y = 6.9 × 1010 N/m2) rod that has a length of 6.1-m between their two houses. To communicate, a child taps a coded message on one end.  How long do the sound waves take to reach the other end?  Note: the density of aluminum is 2700 kg/m3.
2. A) 2 × 10–3 s
3. B) 4 × 10–7 s
4. C) 0 × 10–6 s
5. D) 3 × 10–5 s
6. E) 1 × 10–4 s

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. Castor oil has a density of 956 kg/m3. If the speed of sound in castor oil is 1474 m/s, what is its adiabatic bulk modulus?
2. A) 77 × 109 N/m2
3. B) 08 × 109 N/m2
4. C) 5.71 × 109 N/m2
5. D) 90 × 109 N/m2
6. E) 22 × 109 N/m2

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. A physics student is asked to determine the length of a long, slender, copper bar by measuring the time required for a sound pulse to travel the length of the bar. The Young’s modulus of copper is 1.1 × 1011 N/m2; and its density is 8890 kg/m3.  The student finds that the time for the pulse to travel from one end to the other is 5.6 × 10–4 s.  How long is the rod?
2. A) 11 m
3. B) 8 m
4. C) 5 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 45 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. The speaker and two microphones shown in the figure are arranged inside a sealed container filled with neon gas. The wires from the microphones are connected to an oscilloscope (not shown).  The signal from the microphones is monitored beginning at time t = 0 s when a sound pulse is emitted from the speaker.  The pulse is picked up by microphone 1 at t1 = 1.150 × 10–2 s and by microphone 2 at t2 = 1.610 × 10–2 s.  What is the speed of sound in neon gas?
2. A) 124 m/s
3. B) 174 m/s
4. C) 362 m/s
5. D) 435 m/s
6. E) 724 m/s

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. The Young’s modulus of aluminum (density = 2700 kg/m3) is 6.9 × 1010 N/m2. Determine the speed of sound in an aluminum rod.
2. A) 4 × 103 m/s
3. B) 5 × 103 m/s
4. C) 1 × 103 m/s
5. D) 3 × 103 m/s
6. E) 0 × 103 m/s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 16-5 and 16-6

1. The intensity of a spherical wave 2.5 m from the source is 120 W/m2. What is the intensity at a point 9.0 m away from the source?
2. A) 3 W/m2
3. B) 24 W/m2
4. C) 53 W/m2
5. D) 80 W/m2
6. E) 270 W/m2

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-7

1. A bell emits sound energy uniformly in all directions at a rate of 4.00 × 10–3 W. What is the intensity of the wave 100.0 m from the bell?
2. A) 18 × 10–8 W/m2
3. B) 14 × 10–7 W/m2
4. C) 02 × 10–2 W/m2
5. D) 02 × 102 W/m2
6. E) 28 × 107 W/m2

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-7

1. How far must one stand from a 5-mW point sound source if the intensity at that location is at the hearing threshold? Assume the sound waves travel to the listener without being disturbed.
2. A) 500 m
3. B) 1 km
4. C) 2 km
5. D) 4 km
6. E) 20 km

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-7

1. During a typical workday (eight hours), the average sound intensity arriving at Larry’s ear is 1.8 × 10–5 W/m2. If the area of Larry’s ear through which the sound passes is 2.1 × 10–3 m2, what is the total energy entering each of Larry’s ears during the workday?
2. A) 8 × 10–5 J
3. B) 2 × 10–4 J
4. C) 4 × 10–4 J
5. D) 1 × 10–3 J
6. E) 1 × 10–3 J

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-7

1. Two boys are whispering in the library. The radiated sound power from one boy’s mouth is 1.2 × 10–9 W; and it spreads out uniformly in all directions.  What is the minimum distance the boys must be away from the librarian so that she will not be able to hear them?  The threshold of hearing for the librarian is 1.00 × 10–12 W/m2.
2. A) 100 m
3. B) 35 m
4. C) 23 m
5. D) 16 m
6. E) 8 m

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-7

1. The decibel level of a jackhammer is 125 dB relative to the threshold of hearing. Determine the sound intensity produced by the jackhammer.
2. A) 0 W/m2
3. B) 2 W/m2
4. C) 8 W/m2
5. D) 12 W/m2
6. E) 88 W/m2

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-8

1. When one person was talking in a small room, the sound intensity level was 60 dB everywhere within the room. Then, there were 14 people talking in similar manner simultaneously in the room, what was the resulting sound intensity level?
2. A) 60 dB
3. B) 79 dB
4. C) 71 dB
5. D) 64 dB
6. E) 69 dB

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-8

1. At a distance of 5.0 m from a point sound source, the sound intensity level is 110 dB. At what distance is the intensity level 95 dB?
2. A) 0 m
3. B) 1 m
4. C) 14 m
5. D) 28 m
6. E) 42 m

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-8

1. The decibel level of a jackhammer is 130 dB relative to the threshold of hearing. Determine the decibel level if three jackhammers operate side by side.
2. A) 65 dB
3. B) 130 dB
4. C) 133 dB
5. D) 148 dB
6. E) 260 dB

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-8

1. According to US government regulations, the maximum sound intensity level in the workplace is 90.0 dB. Within one factory, 32 identical machines produce a sound intensity level of 92.0 dB.  How many machines must be removed to bring the factory into compliance with the regulation?
2. A) 2
3. B) 8
4. C) 12
5. D) 16
6. E) 24

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-8

1. A train moving at a constant speed is passing a stationary observer on a platform. On one of the train cars, a flute player is continually playing the note known as concert A (f = 440 Hz).  After the flute has passed, the observer hears the sound with a frequency of 415 Hz.  What is the speed of the train?  The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s.
2. A) 3 m/s
3. B) 12 m/s
4. C) 21 m/s
5. D) 37 m/s
6. E) 42 m/s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. A car moving at 35 m/s approaches a stationary whistle that emits a 220 Hz sound. The speed of sound is 343 m/s.  What is the speed of the sound relative to the driver of the car?
2. A) 300 m/s
3. B) 308 m/s
4. C) 340 m/s
5. D) 365 m/s
6. E) 378 m/s

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. A car moving at 35 m/s approaches a stationary whistle that emits a 220 Hz sound. The speed of sound is 343 m/s.  What is the frequency of sound heard by the driver of the car?
2. A) 198 Hz
3. B) 220 Hz
4. C) 245 Hz
5. D) 282 Hz
6. E) 340 Hz

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. A source moving through water at 10.0 m/s generates water waves with a frequency of 5.0 Hz. The speed of these water waves relative to the water surface is 20.0 m/s.  The source approaches an observer who is at rest in the water.  What wavelength would be measured for these waves by the stationary observer?
2. A) 0 m
3. B) 0 m
4. C) 0 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. Two golf carts have horns that emit sound with a frequency of 394 Hz. The golf carts are traveling toward one another, each traveling with a speed of 9.5 m/s with respect to the ground.  If one of the drivers sounds her horn, what frequency does the other driver hear?  The speed of sound at the golf course is 345 m/s.
2. A) 378 Hz
3. B) 394 Hz
4. C) 408 Hz
5. D) 416 Hz
6. E) 424 Hz

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. Two motorcycles are traveling in opposite directions at the same speed when one of the cyclists blasts his horn, which has frequency of 544 Hz. The other cyclist hears the frequency as 522 Hz.  If the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is the speed of the motorcycles?
2. A) 90 m/s
3. B) 24 m/s
4. C) 19 m/s
5. D) 0 m/s
6. E) 6 m/s

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. A loudspeaker at the base of a cliff emits a pure tone of frequency 3000.0 Hz. A man jumps from rest from the top of the cliff and safely falls into a net below.  How far has the man fallen at the instant he hears the frequency of the tone as 3218.0 Hz?  The speed of sound is 343 m/s.
2. A) 2 m
3. B) 3 m
4. C) 7 m
5. D) 8 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

Reference:  Ref 16-2

The diagram shows the various positions of a child in motion on a swing.  Somewhere in front of the child a stationary whistle is blowing.

1. At which position(s) will the child hear the highest frequency for the sound from the whistle?
2. A) at both A and D
3. B) at B when moving toward A
4. C) at B when moving toward C
5. D) at C when moving toward B
6. E) at C when moving toward D

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 16-2

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. At which position(s) will the child hear the lowest frequency for the sound from the whistle?
2. A) at both A and D
3. B) at B when moving toward A
4. C) at B when moving toward C
5. D) at C when moving toward B
6. E) at C when moving toward D

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 16-2

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. At which position(s) will the child hear the same frequency as that heard by a stationary observer standing next to the whistle?
2. A) at both A and D
3. B) at B when moving toward A
4. C) at B when moving toward C
5. D) at C when moving toward B
6. E) at C when moving toward D

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 16-2

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

Reference:  Ref 16-3

The car in the drawing is moving to the left at 35 m/s.  The car’s horn continuously emits a 2.20 × 102 Hz sound.  The figure also shows the first two regions of compression of the emitted sound waves.  The speed of sound is 343 m/s.

1. How far does the car move in one period of the sound emitted from the horn?
2. A) 08 m
3. B) 16 m
4. C) 8 m
5. D) 16 m
6. E) 35 m

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 16-3

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. How far has the initial compression traveled when the second compression is emitted?
2. A) 77 m
3. B) 56 m
4. C) 7 m
5. D) 5 m
6. E) 35 m

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 16-3

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. What is the wavelength of the sound in the direction of motion of the car?
2. A) 40 m
3. B) 56 m
4. C) 70 m
5. D) 93 m
6. E) 35 m

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 16-3

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. What is the frequency heard by a stationary observer standing in front of the car?
2. A) 7 Hz
3. B) 176 Hz
4. C) 200 Hz
5. D) 219 Hz
6. E) 245 Hz

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 16-3

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 16-9

1. An unstretched spring has a length of 0.30 m. When the spring is stretched to a total length of 0.60 m, it supports traveling waves moving at 4.5 m/s.  How fast will waves travel on this spring if it is stretched to 0.90 m?
2. A) 3 m/s
3. B) 5 m/s
4. C) 4 m/s
5. D) 0 m/s
6. E) 8 m/s

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

Reference:  Ref 16-4

A periodic transverse wave is established on a string such that there are exactly two cycles traveling along a 3.0-m section of the string.  The crests move at 20.0 m/s.

1. What is the frequency of the wave?
2. A) 67 Hz
3. B) 33 Hz
4. C) 13 Hz
5. D) 30 Hz
6. E) 57 Hz

Ans:  C

Refer To:  Ref 16-4

Difficulty:  Medium

1. What is the shortest horizontal distance from a crest to a point of zero acceleration?
2. A) 38 m
3. B) 75 m
4. C) 5 m
5. D) 0 m
6. E) 0 m

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 16-4

Difficulty:  Hard

1. How long does it take a particle at the top of a crest to reach the bottom of an adjacent trough?
2. A) 018 s
3. B) 038 s
4. C) 075 s
5. D) 150 s
6. E) 30 s

Ans:  B

Refer To:  Ref 16-4

Difficulty:  Medium

1. How could the speed of the wave be increased?
2. A) by increasing the period
3. B) by decreasing the amplitude
4. C) by decreasing the frequency
5. D) by increasing the tension in the string
6. E) by increasing amplitude

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 16-4

Difficulty:  Easy

Reference:  Ref 16-5

A periodic traveling wave is generated on a string of linear density 8.0 × 10–4 kg/m.  Figure A shows the displacements of the particles in the string as a function of the position x along the string at t = 0 s.  Figure B shows the displacement of the particle at x = 0 m as a function of time. The particle positions are measured from the left end of the string (x = 0 m) and the wave pulses move to the right.

1. What is the wavelength of the wave?
2. A) 005 m
3. B) 010 m
4. C) 015 m
5. D) 020 m
6. E) 025 m

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 16-5

Difficulty:  Easy

1. What is the minimum time required for the particles to return to their respective positions at t = 0 s?
2. A) 1 s
3. B) 2 s
4. C) 3 s
5. D) 4 s
6. E) 7 s

Ans:  D

Refer To:  Ref 16-5

Difficulty:  Medium

1. What is the amplitude of the wave?
2. A) 01 m
3. B) 02 m
4. C) 04 m
5. D) 07 m
6. E) 7 m

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 16-5

Difficulty:  Easy

1. Determine the speed of the wave.
2. A) 01 m/s
3. B) 02 m/s
4. C) 03 m/s
5. D) 04 m/s
6. E) 05 m/s

Ans:  E

Refer To:  Ref 16-5

Difficulty:  Medium

1. What is the tension in the string?
2. A) 2 × 10–6 N
3. B) 4 × 10–6 N
4. C) 4 × 10–5 N
5. D) 5 × 10–5 N
6. E) 6 × 10–5 N

Ans:  A

Refer To:  Ref 16-5

Difficulty:  Medium

Import Settings:

Base Settings: Brownstone Default

Information Field: Difficulty

Information Field: SectionDef

Multiple Keywords in Same Paragraph: No

Chapter: Chapter 32

Multiple Choice

1. Complete the following statement: The term ionizing radiation does not apply to
2. A) alpha particles.
3. B)
4. C) X-ray photons.
5. D)

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. What absorbed dose of protons with an RBE of 17 will cause the same damage to biological tissue as a 200 rd dose of neutrons that have an RBE of 2.6?
2. A) 8 rd
3. B) 12 rd
4. C) 26 rd
5. D) 52 rd
6. E) 520 rd

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A radiologist absorbs 4.0 × 10–5 J of radiation. Determine the absorbed dose if his mass is 74.0 kg.
2. A) 8 × 10–7 Gy
3. B) 6.3 × 10–7 Gy
4. C) 4 × 10–7 Gy
5. D) 4.6 × 10–7 Gy
6. E) 1 × 10–7 Gy

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A physicist wishes to measure the exposure of a beam of gamma rays. The beam is passed through 2.00 × 10–2 kg of dry air at STP.  The beam produces positive ions in the air which have a total charge of 3.87 × 10–6 C.  What is the exposure (in roentgens) of the beam?
2. A) 74 × 10–8 R
3. B) 94 × 10–4 R
4. C) 25 × 10–2 R
5. D) 750 R
6. E) 25 R

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. Complete the following statement: The average biologically equivalent dose of radiation from consumer products received by a resident of the United States is about
2. A) 10 mrem/yr.
3. B) 15 mrem/yr.
4. C) 20 mrem/yr.
5. D) 50 mrem/yr.
6. E) 200 mrem/yr.

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. Which source of radiation contributes most to the average biological equivalent dose received by a United States resident?
3. B) cosmic rays
4. C) consumer products
5. D) medical diagnostics

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A medical researcher wishes to compare the tissue damage produced by slow neutrons, which have a relative biological effectiveness (RBE) of 2.2, to that produced by fast neutrons with an RBE of 8.8. For the slow neutrons, the absorbed dose is 560 rd.  What absorbed dose (in rd) of fast neutrons will produce the same biologically equivalent dose (in rem) as that for the slow neutrons?
2. A) 140 rd
3. B) 29 rd
4. C) 560 rd
5. D) 310 rd
6. E) 2240 rd

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A single, whole-body dose of 450 rem is considered a lethal dose for approximately fifty percent of all individuals receiving such a dose. If a 62-kg person were exposed to such a dose of radiation that has an RBE of 0.845, how much energy has the person absorbed?
2. A) 480 J
3. B) 3 J
4. C) 75 J
5. D) 120 J
6. E) 330 J

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A beam of 4.5-MeV neutrons is directed at a 0.030-kg tissue sample. Each second, 1.5 × 106 neutrons strike the sample.  If the relative biological effectiveness of these neutrons is 7.0, what biologically equivalent dose (in rem) is received by the sample in 65 seconds?
2. A) 23 rem
3. B) 55 rem
4. C) 6 rem
5. D) 19 rem
6. E) 33 rem

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A biological tissue is irradiated with neutrons. The biologically equivalent dose of the neutrons is 2.6 × 102 rem.  Determine the RBE of the neutrons if the absorbed dose is 130 rd.
2. A) 5
3. B) 0
4. C) 0
5. D) 0
6. E) 25

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. What radiation absorbed dose of slow neutrons (RBE = 2.5) is equivalent to a dose of 35.0 rad of fast neutrons (RBE = 9.0)?

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. A 75-kg worker is accidentally exposed to a 44-rad dose of gamma radiation. How much energy does the worker absorb?
2. A) 25 J
3. B) 17 J
4. C) 74 J
5. D) 59 J
6. E) 33 J

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-1

1. Consider the following nuclear reaction: . Which one of the following correctly identifies X and represents the reaction?
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E)

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Complete the following nuclear reaction:
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E)

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Consider the nuclear reaction: . The symbol “d” indicates a deuterium nucleus .  Which one of the following statements is true concerning X?
2. A) X could be a proton.
3. B) X could be a gamma ray.
4. C) X must contain 2 neutrons.
5. D) X must have mass number 2.
6. E) X must have atomic number 4.

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Consider the following reaction: where has a mass of 14.003 074 u;  has a mass of 12.000 000 u; d has a mass of 2.014 102 u; and a has a mass of 4.002 603 u.  How much energy is released in this reaction  (Note: 1 u = 931.5 MeV)?
2. A) 2 MeV
3. B) 3 MeV
4. C) 6 MeV
5. D) 4 MeV
6. E) 3 MeV

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Which one of the following quantities is not necessarily conserved in nuclear reactions?
2. A) electric charge
3. B) number of protons
4. C) linear momentum
5. D) angular momentum
6. E) number of protons and neutrons

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Determine the atomic number Z and the nucleon number A in the following reaction:

.

 Z A

1. A)
 12 23

1. B)
 12 24

1. C)
 11 24

1. D)
 11 23

1. E)
 11 22

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. Consider the reaction: where the masses are  = 1.007 825 u;

= 4.002 603 u;  = 149.917 276 u;  = 146.915 108 u.  How much energy is released in the reaction?

1. A) 14 MeV
2. B) 88 MeV
3. C) 6 MeV
4. D) 8 MeV
5. E) 2 MeV

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. The first induced nuclear reaction, , in a laboratory was studied by Rutherford in 1919. How much energy is absorbed in this reaction if the atomic masses are: = 14.003 074 u,   = 16.999 133 u, a = 4.002 603 u, and p = 1.007 825 u?  Note: 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
2. A) 193 MeV
3. B) 338 MeV
4. C) 603 MeV
5. D) 08 MeV
6. E) 91 MeV

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. In the induced nuclear reaction, , the reaction produces neon in an excited state, which subsequently decays into a nucleus X and a particle Y. Which one of the following X and Y pairs is not possible?

 X Y

1. A)

1. B)

1. C)
 g

1. D)

1. E)

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-2

1. What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes?
2. A) Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission.
3. B) Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.
4. C) Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium.
5. D) Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.
6. E) Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. Which one of the following energy values would be characteristic of a thermal neutron?
2. A) 03 eV
3. B) 4 eV
4. C) 3 eV
5. D) 100 eV
6. E) 04 MeV

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. A particular nuclear fission reaction produces 1.50 × 102 MeV per fission. How many fissions per second are required to generate 3.00 × 108 W of power?
2. A) 00 × 1016
3. B) 25 × 1017
4. C) 20 × 1018
5. D) 25 × 1019
6. E) 02 × 1023

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. A nuclear reaction that uses one nucleus of generates 170 MeV.  How much energy is released when 5.0 kg of this isotope are used?
2. A) 4 × 1010 J
3. B) 9 × 1013 J
4. C) 5 × 1014 J
5. D) 9 × 1014 J
6. E) 2 × 1016 J

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. How many neutrons are produced in the reaction: ?
2. A) 1
3. B) 2
4. C) 3
5. D) 4
6. E) 5

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. Identify X in the following nuclear fission reaction: .
2. A) one alpha particle
3. B) two alpha particles
4. C) three protons
5. D) three neutrons
6. E) six neutrons

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. One example of a nuclear fission reaction involving slowly moving neutrons is

What is the total kinetic energy (in eV) of the products of the reaction?  The relevant masses are:

= 235.043 924 u,  = 94.9058 u,  = 138.9061 u, and  = 1.0087 u.

1. A) 0 MeV
2. B) 4 MeV
3. C) 1879 MeV
4. D) 4102 MeV
5. E) 219 700 MeV

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. Which one of the following processes causes the explosion of a nuclear bomb?
2. A) beta decay
3. B) alpha decay
4. C) moderation
5. D) photon absorption
6. E) chain reaction

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. How many neutrons are produced in the following reaction:
2. A) 11
3. B) 12
4. C) 22
5. D) 24
6. E) 48

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. What is the function of the moderator in a fission reactor?
2. A) The moderator absorbs gamma rays.
3. B) The moderator absorbs slow neutrons.
4. C) The moderator decreases the speeds of fast neutrons.
5. D) The moderator prevents heat loss from the reactor core.
6. E) The moderator prevents the reactor from reaching a critical state.

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. A nuclear reactor continuously generates 150 MW of power through the fissioning of uranium. Suppose that each fission releases 190 MeV. If one mole of uranium (6.023 × 1023 nuclei) has a mass of 0.235 kg, what mass of uranium has undergone fission in a 4.0 day period?
2. A) 33 kg
3. B) 67 kg
4. C) 3 kg
5. D) 6 kg
6. E) 2 kg

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-3

1. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction: .  Use the following information for your calculation: has a mass of 2.014 102 u, has a mass of 4.002 603 u, and 1 u = 931.5 MeV.
2. A) 20 MeV
3. B) 9 MeV
4. C) 8 MeV
5. D) 257 MeV
6. E) 7480 MeV

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the reaction where has a mass of 2.014 u; has a mass of 4.003 u; has a mass of 6.015 u; and 1 u = 931.5 MeV?
2. A) The reaction releases 14 MeV.
3. B) The reaction releases 21 MeV.
4. C) The reaction releases 36 MeV.
5. D) The reaction requires 14 MeV to occur.
6. E) The reaction requires 21 MeV to occur.

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction: where  = 4.002 603 u and  = 12.000 000 u.
2. A) 27 MeV
3. B) 01 MeV
4. C) 73 MeV
5. D) 37 MeV
6. E) 27 MeV

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Which one of the following statements is the best explanation as to why nuclear fusion is not at present used to generate electric power?
2. A) Fusion produces too much radiation.
3. B) Fusion requires isotopes that are scarce.
4. C) Fusion processes can result in nuclear explosions.
5. D) Fusion results in large amounts of radioactive waste.
6. E) Fusion requires very high temperatures that are difficult to contain.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Determine the amount of energy released in the following reaction:

where the masses are

1. A) 02 eV
2. B) 03 eV
3. C) 02 MeV
4. D) 03 MeV
5. E) 00 MeV

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Determine the nucleon number A in the following nuclear fusion reaction: .
2. A) 11
3. B) 16
4. C) 14
5. D) 15
6. E) 13

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. How many kilowatt × hours of energy are released from 25 g of deuterium fuel in the fusion reaction:  where the masses are  = 2.014 102 u and  = 4.002 603 u.

Notes:  Ignore the energy carried off by the gamma ray.

Conversion factors: 1 kWh = 3.600 × 106 J; 1 eV = 1.602 × 10–19 J.

1. A) 1 × 106 kWh
2. B) 2 × 106 kWh
3. C) 3 × 106 kWh
4. D) 4 × 106 kWh
5. E) 5 × 106 kWh

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. One of the nuclear fusion reactions that occurs in stars is: where the masses are  = 20.993 849 u;  = 4.002 603 u;  = 23.985 042 u; and  = 1.008 665 u.  How much energy is released in this reaction?
2. A) 557 MeV
3. B) 572 MeV
4. C) 452 MeV
5. D) 493 MeV
6. E) 370 MeV

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-5

1. Note the forces:
 (1) weak nuclear force (3) gravitational force (2) strong nuclear force (4) electromagnetic force

Through which force(s) can leptons interact?

1. A) only 1
2. B) only 2
3. C) only 1 and 2
4. D) only 2, 3 and 4
5. E) only 1, 3, and 4

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. In the medical diagnostic technique known as positron emission tomography (PET), a positron and an electron annihilate each other and two g–ray photons are emitted. What is the angle between the momentum vectors of the two photons?
2. A) zero degrees
3. B) 45°
4. C) 90°
5. D) 180°
6. E) Any angle is possible.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Of the reactions listed below, which will not proceed via the strong interaction?
2. A)
3. B)
4. C)
5. D)
6. E)

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. A sigma particle, initially at rest, decays into a lambda particle and a photon: . Determine the kinetic energy of the lambda particle if the energy of the photon is 74 MeV. The rest energies are 1192 MeV and 1116 MeV for the sigma and lambda particles, respectively.
2. A) 2 MeV
3. B) 9 MeV
4. C) 74 MeV
5. D) 248 MeV
6. E) 1118 MeV

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. In the reaction , the proton was initially at rest. The final kinetic energies of the neutron and the pion are 0.4 MeV and 2.9 MeV, respectively.  Determine the initial kinetic energy of the p .  The rest energies are: p = 139.6 MeV; p0 = 135.0 MeV; p = 938.3 MeV; and n = 939.6 MeV.
2. A) 5 MeV
3. B) 4 MeV
4. C) 6 MeV
5. D) 2 MeV
6. E) zero electron volts

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following particles completes the reaction:
2. A) p+
3. B) p
4. C) p0
5. D) K0
6. E) h0

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Hard

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the proton?
2. A) The proton cannot be further subdivided.
3. B) The proton is composed of two up quarks and a down quark.
4. C) The proton is composed of two down quarks and an up quark.
5. D) The proton is composed of a down quark and an up antiquark.
6. E) The proton is composed of an up quark and a down antiquark.

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following particles is not a baryon?
2. A) proton
3. B) neutron
4. C) pion
5. D) sigma particle
6. E) lambda particle

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following particles is not a member of the hadron family?
2. A) pion
3. B) neutron
4. C) muon
5. D) kaon
6. E) proton

Ans:  C

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following particles is not composed of quarks?
2. A) neutron
3. B) muon
4. C) pion
5. D) kaon
6. E) proton

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. How many members are in the photon family?
2. A) 1
3. B) 2
4. C) 3
5. D) 4
6. E) 5

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following statements concerning pions is true?
2. A) They are stable particles.
3. B) They belong to the lepton family.
4. C) They are composed of three quarks.
5. D) They only exist in two charge states.
6. E) They interact with protons via the strong interaction.

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. What is the antiparticle of an electron?
2. A) p+
3. B) n+
4. C) electron (self)
5. D) photon
6. E) b+

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following names is not one that is used to name quarks?
2. A) charm
3. B) top
4. C) strange
5. D) exotic
6. E) down

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Easy

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Which one of the following statements about the standard model is false?
2. A) The weak nuclear force and the electromagnetic force are manifestations of a more fundamental interaction called the electroweak interaction.
3. B) The strong nuclear force between quarks is described in terms of the concept of color.
4. C) The standard model provides an explanation for the strong nuclear and weak nuclear forces.
5. D) The gravitational force and the strong nuclear force are manifestations of a more fundamental interaction called the quark interaction.
6. E) Nucleons are composed of quarks.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-6

1. Astronomers studying the light from calcium atoms located in a galaxy in the constellation Boötes find that the spectral lines are shifted toward the red end of the spectrum. The redshift indicates that the galaxy is moving away at a speed of 3.9 × 106 m/s.  What is the distance (in light × years) to the galaxy?
2. A) 7 × 109 light × years
3. B) 3 × 108 light × years
4. C) 1 × 107 light × years
5. D) 4 × 106 light × years
6. E) 6 × 104 light × years

Ans:  B

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-7

1. Which one of the following statements concerning the standard cosmological model is false?
2. A) Shortly after the Big Bang, all of the fundamental forces behaved as a single force.
3. B) About 0.5 million years after the Big Bang, hydrogen and helium atoms began to form.
4. C) The first distinguishable particles in existence after the Big Bang were quarks and leptons.
5. D) The Grand Unified Theory describes the universe immediately before and shortly after the Big Bang.
6. E) At 10–43 s after the Big Bang, the gravitational force was distinguishable from the other fundamental forces.

Ans:  D

Difficulty:  Medium

SectionDef:  Section 32-7

1. Nucleus A has Z protons and N neutrons. Nucleus B has 2Z protons and 2N neutrons.  Nucleus A has a smaller binding energy per nucleon than B.  Which entry in the table below is correct?
 The fusion of two A’s to form B The fission of B to form two A’s

1. A)
 process releases energy process absorbs energy

1. B)
 process absorbs energy process absorbs energy

1. C)
 process releases energy process releases energy

1. D)
 process absorbs energy process releases energy

1. E)
 process is not possible process releases energy

Ans:  A

Difficulty:  Medium

1. Consider the nuclear reaction and the masses:  = 235.0439 u;  = 93.9063 u; n = 1.008 67 u.  If 208.66 MeV of energy is released in this reaction, determine the mass of X.
2. A) 970 u
3. B) 962 u
4. C) 962 u
5. D) 589 u
6. E) 905 u

Ans:  E

Difficulty:  Hard

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