Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Editionby Eugene Nester – Test bank

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Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Editionby Eugene Nester – Test bank

Ch02

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In addition to investigations with bacteria that led to him being considered the Father of Microbiology, Pasteur also

A. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers.

 

B. created aspartame.

 

C. separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

D. discovered polarized light.

 

E. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers AND separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

2. The negatively charged component of the atom is the

A. proton.

 

B. nucleus.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. electron.

 

3. The part of the atom that is most involved in chemical reactivity is the

A. proton.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. electron.

 

D. nucleus.

 

4. Electrons

A. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals.

 

B. may gain or lose energy.

 

C. may move from one orbital to another.

 

D. are located farthest from the nucleus and have the least energy.

 

E. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals, may gain or lose energy, and may move from one orbital to another.

 

5. The atomic number for an atom of a specific element is equal to

A. the number of electrons in a single atom of that element.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons in a single atom of that element.

 

C. the number of protons in a single atom of that element.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons in a single atom of that element.

 

6. Sharing of electrons between 2 atoms forms a(n)

A. hydrogen bond.

 

B. ionic bond.

 

C. covalent bond.

 

D. strong bond.

 

E. covalent bond AND strong bond.

 

7. If electrons are gained or lost in the formation of a bond, the bond is termed

A. covalent.

 

B. hydrogen.

 

C. ionic.

 

D. nonpolar.

 

8. Charged atoms are termed

A. ions.

 

B. neutrons.

 

C. molecules.

 

D. polymers.

 

9. Water

A. is a polar molecule.

 

B. is referred to as a universal solvent.

 

C. makes up over 70% (by wt.) of an organism.

 

D. is often a product or reactant in chemical reactions.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

10. pH

A. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration.

 

B. utilizes a scale from 5 to 8.

 

C. is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

D. is an abbreviation for, “power of helium”.

 

E. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration, utilizes a scale from 5 to 8 AND is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

11. The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are

A. nucleotides.

 

B. phospholipids.

 

C. amino acids.

 

D. carbohydrates.

 

12. If the side chains of amino acids contain carboxyl (-COOH) groups, they

A. contribute a positive charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

B. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

C. have no effect on the charge of the amino acid at pH 10.

 

D. are considered acidic amino acids.

 

E. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10 AND are considered acidic amino acids.

 

13. Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups

A. are considered hydrophilic.

 

B. are nonpolar.

 

C. carry a positive charge.

 

D. carry a negative charge.

 

E. are considered hydrophilic AND carry a positive charge.

 

14. D-amino acids are associated with

A. radioactive isotopes.

 

B. human proteins.

 

C. plant proteins.

 

D. bacterial cell walls.

 

15. The most important feature of a protein is its

A. secondary structure.

 

B. side group.

 

C. shape.

 

D. electric charge.

 

16. The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein’s

A. primary structure.

 

B. secondary structure.

 

C. tertiary structure.

 

D. quaternary structure.

 

17. Acidic or basic amino acids are

A. readily soluble in water.

 

B. readily soluble in lipids.

 

C. able to form ions.

 

D. considered hydrophilic.

 

E. readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.

 

18. The N terminal in a protein

A. is the end characterized by a free carboxyl group.

 

B. is the end characterized by a free amino group.

 

C. is typically found in the middle of a protein.

 

D. refers to that area of a protein that is bound to another protein.

 

19. Protein denaturation can

A. occur due to certain chemicals.

 

B. occur due to pH changes.

 

C. occur due to high temperature.

 

D. cause the protein to no longer function.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

20. Which is true of carbohydrates?

A. They may be part of the structure of bacteria.

 

B. They may serve as a source of food.

 

C. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

 

D. They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

21. Carbohydrates

A. form only ring structures.

 

B. form only linear structures.

 

C. may interconvert between ring and linear structures.

 

D. contain both ring and linear portions within the same molecule.

 

22. Structural isomers

A. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements.

 

B. are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

C. are formed by different arrangements of the -COOH groups.

 

D. may be referred to as the -D and -L forms.

 

E. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements AND are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

23. What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?

A. covalent

 

B. hydrogen

 

C. disulfide

 

D. ionic

 

24. The sugars found in nucleic acids consist of

A. 3 carbon atoms.

 

B. 5 carbon atoms.

 

C. 7 carbon atoms.

 

D. 9 carbon atoms.

 

25. Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A. adenine

 

B. ribose

 

C. thymine

 

D. uracil

 

E. ribose AND uracil

 

26. Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?

A. A:T

 

B. G:C

 

C. G:T

 

D. A:U

 

E. A:T, G:C AND A:U

 

27. The components of fats are fatty acids and

A. amino acids.

 

B. nucleotides.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. glycerol.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

28. In general, when saturated fats are compared to unsaturated fats (assuming the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule)

A. they have about the same melting temperature.

 

B. saturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

C. unsaturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

D. No generalizations can be made since melting temperature is strongly influenced by other factors.

 

 

True / False Questions

29. If you placed the molecule in a vertical orientation, then from top to bottom, the two parallel strands of DNA are both oriented in the same, 5′ to 3′, direction.

True    False

 

30. RNA is a long double-stranded helix containing ribose and uracil.

True    False

 

31. Lipids, like nucleic acids and proteins, are made of strings of similar subunits.

True    False

 

32. Steroids are simple lipids.

True    False

 

33. Water soluble substances easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

34. The positively charged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. proton.

 

D. quark.

 

35. The uncharged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. proton.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. muon.

 

36. Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?

A. electron

 

B. neutron

 

C. atomic weight

 

D. atomic number

 

37. The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

A. the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

 

B. the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.

 

C. neutrons neutralize the charges.

 

D. the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

 

38. The atomic weight is equal to

A. the number of electrons.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons.

 

C. the number of protons.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons.

 

39. If electrons are shared unequally, this forms a(n)

A. weak bond.

 

B. nonpolar bond.

 

C. polar bond.

 

D. ionic bond.

 

40. Atoms that gain electrons are now

A. positively charged.

 

B. negatively charged.

 

C. neutral.

 

D. lighter.

 

41. Which of these bonds are weak individually but are much stronger as a group?

A. covalent

 

B. ionic

 

C. neutron

 

D. hydrogen

 

E. ionic AND hydrogen

 

42. The most important molecule(s) in the world is(are)

A. water.

 

B. protein.

 

C. carbohydrates.

 

D. nucleic acids.

 

43. The energy storage form of ATP

A. contains deoxyribose.

 

B. contains ribose.

 

C. contains a pyrimidine base.

 

D. readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

E. contains deoxyribose, contains a pyrimidine base AND readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

44. How many different amino acids are there to choose from when assembling a protein?

A. 5

 

B. 10

 

C. 20

 

D. 25

 

45. If the side chains of amino acids contain the ammonium ion, they readily form ions that

A. are described as acidic amino acids.

 

B. give positive electric charges to the amino acid.

 

C. are described as basic amino acids.

 

D. react with lipids to form lipoproteins.

 

E. give positive electric charges to the amino acid AND are described as basic amino acids.

 

46. L-amino acids occur in proteins and are designated

A. unnatural.

 

B. natural.

 

C. rare.

 

D. left handed.

 

E. natural AND left handed.

 

47. Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the

A. methyl group of one amino acid and a side group of another amino acid.

 

B. carbon atoms of two adjacent amino acids.

 

C. carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

 

D. nitrogen atom and carboxyl ion.

 

48. The primary structure in a protein

A. refers to the helical folding of a protein.

 

B. refers to two or more polypeptides linked to one another.

 

C. refers to the sequence of amino acids.

 

D. refers to the initial folding of a protein.

 

49. Side chains are important to proteins because they

A. help determine protein shape.

 

B. help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

C. are a source of energy for hydration reactions in the cell.

 

D. form the peptide bonds which link amino acids to one another.

 

E. help determine protein shape AND help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

50. A protein

A. assumes any number of equally functional shapes.

 

B. may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

C. consists of a string of hydroxyl acids.

 

D. is always polar.

 

E. assumes any number of equally functional shapes AND may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

51. Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.

A. primary

 

B. secondary

 

C. tertiary

 

D. quarternary

 

E. secondary, tertiary AND quarternary

 

52. Proteins

A. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell.

 

B. comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

C. are composed of a string of nucleotides.

 

D. are characterized by a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen.

 

E. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell AND comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

53. The carbohydrate(s) found in nucleic acids is/are

A. ribose.

 

B. glucose.

 

C. galactose.

 

D. deoxyribose.

 

E. ribose AND deoxyribose.

 

54. The -OH group in a carbohydrate

A. may be found above or below the plane of the ring.

 

B. is involved in the formation of stereoisomers.

 

C. is involved when linking monosaccharides together.

 

D. All of the choices are true.

 

55. Dehydration reactions are involved in

A. the formation of polypeptides.

 

B. the formation of polysaccharides.

 

C. the formation of monosaccharides.

 

D. the formation of nucleotides.

 

E. the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.

 

56. Which is true of nucleotides?

A. They are the building blocks of DNA.

 

B. They carry chemical energy in their bonds.

 

C. They are part of certain enzymes.

 

D. They serve as specific signaling molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

57. The purines of DNA are

A. adenine and guanine.

 

B. thymine and adenine.

 

C. serine and threonine.

 

D. thymine and uracil.

 

E. thymine and adenine AND thymine and uracil.

 

58. The end of the nucleic acid chain that grows by adding more nucleotides is always the

A. 5 prime end.

 

B. C terminal.

 

C. N terminal.

 

D. 3 prime end.

 

59. The characteristic common to all lipids is their

A. solubility in organic solvents.

 

B. hydrophilic nature.

 

C. large size.

 

D. hydrophobic nature.

 

E. solubility in organic solvents AND hydrophobic nature.

 

60. Which is(are) true of lipids?

A. They are a major structural element of all cell membranes.

 

B. They act as gatekeepers of the cell.

 

C. They demark the inside vs. the outside of the cell.

 

D. They are a heterogeneous group of molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

True / False Questions

61. As DNA is always double-stranded, RNA is always single-stranded.

True    False

 

62. Lipids are polar, hydrophilic molecules.

True    False

 

63. Simple lipids contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

True    False

 

64. Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.

True    False

 

65. Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

66. Microorganisms use hydrogen bonds to attach themselves to the surfaces that they live upon.  Many of them lose hold of the surface because of the weak nature of these bonds and end up dying or being washed away.  Why don’t microbes just use covalent bonds instead?

A. Covalent bonds are always permanent bonds-the microbes could never get OFF their surface if they used them.

 

B. Covalent bonds depend on completely giving up or completely accepting an electron to form the bond.  This isn’t possible for many microbes without dramatically altering their basic molecular composition.

 

C. Covalent bonds typically require enzymes to form/break, whereas hydrogen bonds don’t.  If covalent bonds were used, it would require much more energy and molecules to be contributed from the cell.  Hydrogen bonds don’t have these requirements.

 

D. Covalent bonds may have more specific and stringent requirements for what atoms can bond with what.  This makes for stronger bonds, but also decreases the overall potential for bonds that could readily be created between the microbe and its desired surface.

 

E. C and D

 

67. A biologist determined the amounts of several amino acids in two separate samples of pure protein.  His data stated that Protein A possessed: 7% leucine, 12% alanine, 4% histidine, 2% cysteine, and 5% glycine.  Interestingly, Protein B had the same percentages of each of the same amino acids.  He concluded, from this data, that Proteins A and B are the same protein.  Based on this information and his conclusion, determine which of the following is the correct statement regarding his findings:

A. He is correct-they have the same percentages of each amino acid, so they are identical protein molecules.

 

B. He is incorrect-while they may possess the same percentages of each amino acid, his findings say nothing about the order in which the amino acids are put together.  The order will dictate the overall structure of the protein, so the two could be very different in shape-even though the amino acid totals are the same.

 

C. He is correct-order of the amino acids is irrelevant.  It’s only the total number of each molecule that is important to structure.

 

D. He is incorrect-he hasn’t accounted at all for the effects of pH on the composition of the protein and its effects on the individual amino acids.

 

 

 

Ch02 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In addition to investigations with bacteria that led to him being considered the Father of Microbiology, Pasteur also

A. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers.

 

B. created aspartame.

 

C. separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

D. discovered polarized light.

 

E. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers AND separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

2. The negatively charged component of the atom is the

A. proton.

 

B. nucleus.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. electron.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

3. The part of the atom that is most involved in chemical reactivity is the

A. proton.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. electron.

 

D. nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

4. Electrons

A. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals.

 

B. may gain or lose energy.

 

C. may move from one orbital to another.

 

D. are located farthest from the nucleus and have the least energy.

 

E. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals, may gain or lose energy, and may move from one orbital to another.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

5. The atomic number for an atom of a specific element is equal to

A. the number of electrons in a single atom of that element.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons in a single atom of that element.

 

C. the number of protons in a single atom of that element.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons in a single atom of that element.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

6. Sharing of electrons between 2 atoms forms a(n)

A. hydrogen bond.

 

B. ionic bond.

 

C. covalent bond.

 

D. strong bond.

 

E. covalent bond AND strong bond.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

7. If electrons are gained or lost in the formation of a bond, the bond is termed

A. covalent.

 

B. hydrogen.

 

C. ionic.

 

D. nonpolar.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

8. Charged atoms are termed

A. ions.

 

B. neutrons.

 

C. molecules.

 

D. polymers.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

9. Water

A. is a polar molecule.

 

B. is referred to as a universal solvent.

 

C. makes up over 70% (by wt.) of an organism.

 

D. is often a product or reactant in chemical reactions.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.05
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

10. pH

A. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration.

 

B. utilizes a scale from 5 to 8.

 

C. is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

D. is an abbreviation for, “power of helium”.

 

E. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration, utilizes a scale from 5 to 8 AND is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.06
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

11. The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are

A. nucleotides.

 

B. phospholipids.

 

C. amino acids.

 

D. carbohydrates.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

12. If the side chains of amino acids contain carboxyl (-COOH) groups, they

A. contribute a positive charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

B. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

C. have no effect on the charge of the amino acid at pH 10.

 

D. are considered acidic amino acids.

 

E. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10 AND are considered acidic amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

13. Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups

A. are considered hydrophilic.

 

B. are nonpolar.

 

C. carry a positive charge.

 

D. carry a negative charge.

 

E. are considered hydrophilic AND carry a positive charge.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

14. D-amino acids are associated with

A. radioactive isotopes.

 

B. human proteins.

 

C. plant proteins.

 

D. bacterial cell walls.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

15. The most important feature of a protein is its

A. secondary structure.

 

B. side group.

 

C. shape.

 

D. electric charge.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

16. The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein’s

A. primary structure.

 

B. secondary structure.

 

C. tertiary structure.

 

D. quaternary structure.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

17. Acidic or basic amino acids are

A. readily soluble in water.

 

B. readily soluble in lipids.

 

C. able to form ions.

 

D. considered hydrophilic.

 

E. readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

18. The N terminal in a protein

A. is the end characterized by a free carboxyl group.

 

B. is the end characterized by a free amino group.

 

C. is typically found in the middle of a protein.

 

D. refers to that area of a protein that is bound to another protein.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

19. Protein denaturation can

A. occur due to certain chemicals.

 

B. occur due to pH changes.

 

C. occur due to high temperature.

 

D. cause the protein to no longer function.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

20. Which is true of carbohydrates?

A. They may be part of the structure of bacteria.

 

B. They may serve as a source of food.

 

C. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

 

D. They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.12
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

21. Carbohydrates

A. form only ring structures.

 

B. form only linear structures.

 

C. may interconvert between ring and linear structures.

 

D. contain both ring and linear portions within the same molecule.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

22. Structural isomers

A. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements.

 

B. are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

C. are formed by different arrangements of the -COOH groups.

 

D. may be referred to as the -D and -L forms.

 

E. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements AND are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

23. What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?

A. covalent

 

B. hydrogen

 

C. disulfide

 

D. ionic

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

24. The sugars found in nucleic acids consist of

A. 3 carbon atoms.

 

B. 5 carbon atoms.

 

C. 7 carbon atoms.

 

D. 9 carbon atoms.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

25. Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A. adenine

 

B. ribose

 

C. thymine

 

D. uracil

 

E. ribose AND uracil

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

26. Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?

A. A:T

 

B. G:C

 

C. G:T

 

D. A:U

 

E. A:T, G:C AND A:U

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

27. The components of fats are fatty acids and

A. amino acids.

 

B. nucleotides.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. glycerol.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

28. In general, when saturated fats are compared to unsaturated fats (assuming the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule)

A. they have about the same melting temperature.

 

B. saturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

C. unsaturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

D. No generalizations can be made since melting temperature is strongly influenced by other factors.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

True / False Questions

29. If you placed the molecule in a vertical orientation, then from top to bottom, the two parallel strands of DNA are both oriented in the same, 5′ to 3′, direction.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

30. RNA is a long double-stranded helix containing ribose and uracil.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

31. Lipids, like nucleic acids and proteins, are made of strings of similar subunits.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

32. Steroids are simple lipids.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

33. Water soluble substances easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

34. The positively charged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. proton.

 

D. quark.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

35. The uncharged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. proton.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. muon.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

36. Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?

A. electron

 

B. neutron

 

C. atomic weight

 

D. atomic number

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

37. The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

A. the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

 

B. the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.

 

C. neutrons neutralize the charges.

 

D. the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

38. The atomic weight is equal to

A. the number of electrons.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons.

 

C. the number of protons.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

39. If electrons are shared unequally, this forms a(n)

A. weak bond.

 

B. nonpolar bond.

 

C. polar bond.

 

D. ionic bond.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

40. Atoms that gain electrons are now

A. positively charged.

 

B. negatively charged.

 

C. neutral.

 

D. lighter.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.02
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

41. Which of these bonds are weak individually but are much stronger as a group?

A. covalent

 

B. ionic

 

C. neutron

 

D. hydrogen

 

E. ionic AND hydrogen

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

42. The most important molecule(s) in the world is(are)

A. water.

 

B. protein.

 

C. carbohydrates.

 

D. nucleic acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.08
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

43. The energy storage form of ATP

A. contains deoxyribose.

 

B. contains ribose.

 

C. contains a pyrimidine base.

 

D. readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

E. contains deoxyribose, contains a pyrimidine base AND readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.07
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

44. How many different amino acids are there to choose from when assembling a protein?

A. 5

 

B. 10

 

C. 20

 

D. 25

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

45. If the side chains of amino acids contain the ammonium ion, they readily form ions that

A. are described as acidic amino acids.

 

B. give positive electric charges to the amino acid.

 

C. are described as basic amino acids.

 

D. react with lipids to form lipoproteins.

 

E. give positive electric charges to the amino acid AND are described as basic amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

46. L-amino acids occur in proteins and are designated

A. unnatural.

 

B. natural.

 

C. rare.

 

D. left handed.

 

E. natural AND left handed.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

47. Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the

A. methyl group of one amino acid and a side group of another amino acid.

 

B. carbon atoms of two adjacent amino acids.

 

C. carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

 

D. nitrogen atom and carboxyl ion.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

48. The primary structure in a protein

A. refers to the helical folding of a protein.

 

B. refers to two or more polypeptides linked to one another.

 

C. refers to the sequence of amino acids.

 

D. refers to the initial folding of a protein.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

49. Side chains are important to proteins because they

A. help determine protein shape.

 

B. help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

C. are a source of energy for hydration reactions in the cell.

 

D. form the peptide bonds which link amino acids to one another.

 

E. help determine protein shape AND help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

50. A protein

A. assumes any number of equally functional shapes.

 

B. may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

C. consists of a string of hydroxyl acids.

 

D. is always polar.

 

E. assumes any number of equally functional shapes AND may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

51. Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.

A. primary

 

B. secondary

 

C. tertiary

 

D. quarternary

 

E. secondary, tertiary AND quarternary

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

52. Proteins

A. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell.

 

B. comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

C. are composed of a string of nucleotides.

 

D. are characterized by a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen.

 

E. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell AND comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.09
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

53. The carbohydrate(s) found in nucleic acids is/are

A. ribose.

 

B. glucose.

 

C. galactose.

 

D. deoxyribose.

 

E. ribose AND deoxyribose.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.12
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

54. The -OH group in a carbohydrate

A. may be found above or below the plane of the ring.

 

B. is involved in the formation of stereoisomers.

 

C. is involved when linking monosaccharides together.

 

D. All of the choices are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

55. Dehydration reactions are involved in

A. the formation of polypeptides.

 

B. the formation of polysaccharides.

 

C. the formation of monosaccharides.

 

D. the formation of nucleotides.

 

E. the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

56. Which is true of nucleotides?

A. They are the building blocks of DNA.

 

B. They carry chemical energy in their bonds.

 

C. They are part of certain enzymes.

 

D. They serve as specific signaling molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

57. The purines of DNA are

A. adenine and guanine.

 

B. thymine and adenine.

 

C. serine and threonine.

 

D. thymine and uracil.

 

E. thymine and adenine AND thymine and uracil.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

58. The end of the nucleic acid chain that grows by adding more nucleotides is always the

A. 5 prime end.

 

B. C terminal.

 

C. N terminal.

 

D. 3 prime end.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

59. The characteristic common to all lipids is their

A. solubility in organic solvents.

 

B. hydrophilic nature.

 

C. large size.

 

D. hydrophobic nature.

 

E. solubility in organic solvents AND hydrophobic nature.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

60. Which is(are) true of lipids?

A. They are a major structural element of all cell membranes.

 

B. They act as gatekeepers of the cell.

 

C. They demark the inside vs. the outside of the cell.

 

D. They are a heterogeneous group of molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

True / False Questions

61. As DNA is always double-stranded, RNA is always single-stranded.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

62. Lipids are polar, hydrophilic molecules.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

63. Simple lipids contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

64. Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

65. Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

66. Microorganisms use hydrogen bonds to attach themselves to the surfaces that they live upon.  Many of them lose hold of the surface because of the weak nature of these bonds and end up dying or being washed away.  Why don’t microbes just use covalent bonds instead?

A. Covalent bonds are always permanent bonds-the microbes could never get OFF their surface if they used them.

 

B. Covalent bonds depend on completely giving up or completely accepting an electron to form the bond.  This isn’t possible for many microbes without dramatically altering their basic molecular composition.

 

C. Covalent bonds typically require enzymes to form/break, whereas hydrogen bonds don’t.  If covalent bonds were used, it would require much more energy and molecules to be contributed from the cell.  Hydrogen bonds don’t have these requirements.

 

D. Covalent bonds may have more specific and stringent requirements for what atoms can bond with what.  This makes for stronger bonds, but also decreases the overall potential for bonds that could readily be created between the microbe and its desired surface.

 

E. C and D

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

67. A biologist determined the amounts of several amino acids in two separate samples of pure protein.  His data stated that Protein A possessed: 7% leucine, 12% alanine, 4% histidine, 2% cysteine, and 5% glycine.  Interestingly, Protein B had the same percentages of each of the same amino acids.  He concluded, from this data, that Proteins A and B are the same protein.  Based on this information and his conclusion, determine which of the following is the correct statement regarding his findings:

A. He is correct-they have the same percentages of each amino acid, so they are identical protein molecules.

 

B. He is incorrect-while they may possess the same percentages of each amino acid, his findings say nothing about the order in which the amino acids are put together.  The order will dictate the overall structure of the protein, so the two could be very different in shape-even though the amino acid totals are the same.

 

C. He is correct-order of the amino acids is irrelevant.  It’s only the total number of each molecule that is important to structure.

 

D. He is incorrect-he hasn’t accounted at all for the effects of pH on the composition of the protein and its effects on the individual amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

 

Ch02 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 22
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 34
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 9
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 2
Learning Outcome: 02.01 10
Learning Outcome: 02.02 1
Learning Outcome: 02.03 6
Learning Outcome: 02.05 1
Learning Outcome: 02.06 1
Learning Outcome: 02.07 1
Learning Outcome: 02.08 1
Learning Outcome: 02.09 1
Learning Outcome: 02.10 11
Learning Outcome: 02.11 8
Learning Outcome: 02.12 2
Learning Outcome: 02.13 3
Learning Outcome: 02.14 10
Learning Outcome: 02.15 11
Section: 02.01 10
Section: 02.02 7
Section: 02.03 4
Section: 02.04 20
Section: 02.05 5
Section: 02.06 10
Section: 02.07 11
Topic: Chemistry 67

Ch14

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Phagocytes were first discovered and named by

A. Pasteur.

 

B. Koch.

 

C. Lister.

 

D. Metchnikoff.

 

2. In which organism were phagocytes first reported?

A. bacteria

 

B. amoeba

 

C. red blood cells

 

D. starfish larvae

 

3. Which is not a component of innate immunity?

A. skin

 

B. inflammation

 

C. fever

 

D. antibody

 

4. Which is not involved in specific immunity?

A. antibody

 

B. T cell

 

C. B cell

 

D. tear flow

 

5. Skin and mucous membranes are mostly involved in

A. specific immunity.

 

B. autoimmunity.

 

C. irregular immunity.

 

D. nonspecific immunity.

 

6. Skin and mucous membranes

A. are the first line of innate immunity.

 

B. are the first line of adaptive immunity.

 

C. act as physical barriers to infection.

 

D. contain antimicrobial secretions.

 

E. are the first line of innate immunity, act as physical barriers to infection AND contain antimicrobial secretions.

 

7. Interferons, complement, lysozyme, and lactoferrin are all examples of

A. specific antimicrobial factors.

 

B. immune enzymes.

 

C. nonspecific antimicrobial factors.

 

D. cytokines.

 

8. Normal flora

A. are the organisms that typically reside on your body.

 

B. protect against infection by pathogens.

 

C. enhance infection by pathogens.

 

D. play no role in affecting pathogen growth.

 

E. are the organisms that typically reside on your body AND protect against infection by pathogens.

 

9. Iron

A. is required for growth by some bacteria.

 

B. binds to lactoferrin.

 

C. is necessary for the functioning of some enzymes.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

10. Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as

A. innate immunity.

 

B. specific immunity.

 

C. irregular immunity.

 

D. immune metabolism.

 

11. The cells primarily involved in all immune responses are the

A. erythrocytes.

 

B. platelets.

 

C. osteocytes.

 

D. leukocytes.

 

12. In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the

A. peripheral circulation.

 

B. lymphatic vessels.

 

C. lymph nodes.

 

D. bone marrow.

 

13. All blood cells originate from the

A. erythrocyte.

 

B. leukocytic stem cell.

 

C. eosinophilic stem cell.

 

D. hematopoietic stem cell.

 

14. Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?

A. erythrocyte

 

B. neutrophil

 

C. B cell

 

D. T cell

 

15. The leukocyte that contains histamine is the

A. lymphocyte.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. macrophage.

 

D. basophil.

 

16. Allergic reactions mainly involve

A. macrophages.

 

B. monocytes.

 

C. neutrophils.

 

D. mast cells.

 

17. Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes?

A. lymphocytes and basophils

 

B. mast cells and eosinophils

 

C. basophils and eosinophils

 

D. monocytes and macrophages

 

18. The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the

A. lymphocyte.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. eosinophil.

 

D. neutrophil.

 

19. The “voices” of a cell are

A. surface receptors.

 

B. platelets.

 

C. cytokines.

 

D. antigens.

 

20. Toll-like receptors

A. are cytokines.

 

B. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule.

 

C. transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.

 

D. are part of adaptive immunity.

 

E. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule AND transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.

 

21. Complement

A. may be activated through three pathways.

 

B. disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells.

 

C. is part of the specific defense system.

 

D. is a group of blood proteins.

 

E. may be activated through three pathways, disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells AND is a group of blood proteins.

 

22. The complement pathway that requires antibodies to be activated is the

A. alternate pathway.

 

B. classical pathway.

 

C. properdin pathway.

 

D. inflammatory pathway.

 

23. A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is

A. complement.

 

B. interferon.

 

C. glycoprotein.

 

D. lysozyme.

 

24. The complement pathway that is activated by mannan-binding lectins is the

A. classical pathway.

 

B. alternate pathway.

 

C. C3 pathway.

 

D. lectin pathway.

 

25. The complement pathway that is activated by binding of C3b to cell surfaces is the

A. classical pathway.

 

B. alternate pathway.

 

C. C3 pathway.

 

D. mucociliary pathway.

 

26. The key molecule upon which all complement pathways converge is

A. C1.

 

B. C2.

 

C. C3.

 

D. C6.

 

27. C3a and C5a are involved in

A. inflammation.

 

B. interferon production.

 

C. properdin activation.

 

D. enhancement of phagocytosis.

 

E. inflammation AND enhancement of phagocytosis.

 

28. C3b is involved in

A. opsonization.

 

B. interferon production.

 

C. properdin activation.

 

D. endotoxin production.

 

29. The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the

A. prostaglandin complex.

 

B. leukotriene activating complex.

 

C. membrane attack complex.

 

D. histamine complex.

 

30. Which of the following are most susceptible to complement lysis?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

 

B. Gram-negative bacteria

 

C. bacteriophages

 

D. prions

 

31. The low molecular weight protein produced by animal cells in response to viral infections is

A. complement.

 

B. lysozyme.

 

C. histamine.

 

D. interferon.

 

32. Interleukins are

A. produced by leukocytes.

 

B. important in both innate and adaptive immunity.

 

C. involved in directly killing tumor cells.

 

D. protein molecules.

 

E. produced by leukocytes AND protein molecules.

 

33. The presence of long double-stranded RNA (> 30 bp)

A. indicates infection by an RNA virus other than a retrovirus.

 

B. indicates infection by a virus.

 

C. indicates exposure to mutagens.

 

D. induces synthesis of interferon.

 

E. indicates infection by an RNA virus other than a retrovirus AND induces synthesis of interferon.

 

34. Interferons function to make cells

A. resistant to viral replication.

 

B. lyse when exposed to virus.

 

C. non-motile when infected with virus.

 

D. resistant to phagocytosis.

 

35. Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?

A. interleukin-1

 

B. interleukin-2

 

C. interferon

 

D. lysozyme

 

36. Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect?

A. It only works on a few specific types of virus.

 

B. It makes cells resistant to viral infection.

 

C. It is a species specific molecule.

 

D. It does not directly inactivate viruses.

 

37. Which activity of the virally-invaded cell triggers production of interferon?

A. activation of rRNA

 

B. movement of nuclear proteins to the cytoplasm

 

C. production of glycolipids

 

D. production of dsRNA

 

38. The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the

A. endoplasmic reticulum.

 

B. Golgi apparatus.

 

C. phagolysosome.

 

D. lysosome.

 

39. Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by

A. ingestion.

 

B. exocytosis.

 

C. extrusion.

 

D. budding.

 

40. The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:

A. flare, wheals, fever, cough

 

B. rash, pus, heat, rubor

 

C. heat, pain, vesicles, fever

 

D. redness, heat, swelling, pain

 

41. The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as

A. inflammation.

 

B. reaction.

 

C. antibodies.

 

D. trauma.

 

42. The first kind of leukocyte lured to the site of inflammation is the

A. neutrophil.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. macrophage.

 

D. basophil.

 

43. The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as

A. parasitism.

 

B. infection.

 

C. phototaxis.

 

D. chemotaxis.

 

44. One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is

A. a rash.

 

B. pustules.

 

C. vesicles.

 

D. fever.

 

45. Pyrogens are

A. fever-inducing substances.

 

B. fever-inhibiting substances.

 

C. phagocytosis-enhancing substances.

 

D. complement activators.

 

46. Fever

A. enhances bacterial growth.

 

B. inhibits bacterial growth.

 

C. speeds up the body’s reactions.

 

D. triggers complement.

 

E. inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body’s reactions.

 

 

True / False Questions

47. Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.

True    False

 

48. Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucus membranes and phagocytes.

True    False

 

49. White blood cells called leukocytes are important in immunity.

True    False

 

50. Mast cells are only found in the blood.

True    False

 

51. Lymphocytes are the cells primarily responsible for the specific immune responses.

True    False

 

52. All pathways of complement activation follow the same sequence after C3.

True    False

 

53. Gram-negative bacteria are less susceptible to complement lysis than Gram-positive bacteria.

True    False

 

54. Interferon directly interacts with and destroys viruses.

True    False

 

55. Neutrophils are the second phagocytic cell to respond to an infection.

True    False

 

56. Fever often enhances bacterial survival during an infection.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

57. What 2 functions do phagocytes serve in immune responses?

A. Production of antibodies AND engulfment/destruction of foreign cells.

 

B. Engulfment/destruction of foreign cells AND alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader.

 

C. Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.

 

D. Production of antibodies AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.

 

58. How do cytokines function?

A. They bind directly to microbes to enhance their chance of being ingested (phagocytosed).

 

B. They are secreted in the phagolysosomes of neutrophils to effect killing of ingested microbes.

 

C. They are secreted by one cell type in the vicinity of another cell.  They then bind to a receptor on the 2nd cell, causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response.

 

D. They work as a series of serum proteins to produce a hole in microbes to directly lyse them.

 

59. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind molecules on pathogens.  Why is this helpful to the immune response?

A. It provides a highly specific response to very small and highly unique areas on an individual pathogenic microbe, providing the most specific and selective response possible.

 

B. It provides a general response to broad categories of molecules/cells that should NOT be in our system, as we don’t have these molecules on our own cells.

 

C. These secreted molecules help bind pathogens and then direct them to receptors on the immune system cells that are best capable of eliminating them from our systems.  TLRs are delivery mechanisms for the immune responses.

 

D. TLRs are capable of directly lysing (destroying) the microbes, helping our immune responses by eliminating pathogens.

 

60. Smoking impairs the ciliated cells of the middle portion of the respiratory tract.  Many analgesic drugs (painkillers) impair peristalsis (the churning motion of the digestive tract).  The result of either of these activities leads to an increased risk of infection in their respective areas.  Why?

A. The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens out of the area, serving as a part of the physical barrier system.  When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens have an easier time adhering to the tissues in the area and causing an infection.

 

B. Ciliated cells also line the digestive tract, and these cells secrete strong natural antibacterial compounds.  When they are impaired, bacteria can more easily infect these areas.

 

C. Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair our immune systems, making us generally more predisposed to infections (regardless of the tissue area).

 

D. Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair the ability of our immune system cells to move into areas that are infected.  As such, they can’t perform their job of eliminating microbes as well as they should and infections result more easily.

 

61. A physician is attempting new therapies for HIV patients who are suffering from an impaired immune response.  He decides to try using a recombinant form of colony-stimulating factor cytokine (CSF).  Why?

A. CSF is a strong inducer of antiviral activities in our cells, and may help our immune system fight off the effects of HIV for a longer period of time.

 

B. CSF will hyperstimulate the activities of the macrophages, leading to ingestion and destruction of HIV-infected cells.

 

C. CSF will help to stimulate the production of new lymphocytes-the very cells that are infected and depleted during an HIV infection.  This may help to keep the patients’ immune responses ‘normal’ for a longer period of time before they succumb to full-blown AIDS.

 

D. CSF will drive up the production of lactoferrin, a strong antiviral compound produced in our mucus membrane secretions.

 

62. Syphilis was once treated by intentionally infecting the patient with the parasite that causes malaria, a disease characterized by repeated bouts of fever, shaking, and chills.  Why might this treatment cure syphilis?

A. Malaria parasites produce strong antibacterial compounds (since they’re eukaryotic in nature-they are trying to eliminate their competition for resources).  This helps to eliminate ALL bacteria in and on the human body for a short period of time.

 

B. Malaria parasites track down and feed upon ALL bacterial cells in the human body as a part of their life cycle.  This makes them a ‘natural antibiotic’ of sorts, and highly effective at clearing the bacterial infection of syphilis.

 

C. One of the side effects of malarial infection is a massive overproduction of macrophages-so many that they become the dominant cell type in the blood (even over red blood cells!).  This drives up the ability to ingest and destroy any microbe, including the bacterium that causes syphilis.

 

D. The effect of driving up the body temperature for periods of time can shut down the temperature-sensitive replication of the bacterium that causes syphilis.  This gives the immune system time to eliminate it properly.

 

63. A cell infected by viruses may die due to the actions of interferons.  The same result would occur WITHOUT interferon-any cell infected by a virus would die directly from the virus.  Is there any apparent benefit to the host organism from the interferon action?

A. No-interferon is just an evolutionary leftover from a much earlier form of antiviral activity.  It has no function now.

 

B. Yes-when the interferon acts on a virally-infected cell, it shuts down protein production (which shuts down virus replication).  Without interferon, virus will kill the cell eventually, but only after it has replicated many times over.  Interferons may kill the host cell, but they will also prevent it from being used to replicate virus.

 

C. Yes-by killing host cells, you limit the number of cells that are available targets for viral infection.  This is a good way of preventing viral infection.

 

D. No-viruses will replicate in cells regardless of the effects of interferons, so their action of killing the cell has no benefit to the host organism during the infection process.

 

 

 

Ch14 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Phagocytes were first discovered and named by

A. Pasteur.

 

B. Koch.

 

C. Lister.

 

D. Metchnikoff.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

2. In which organism were phagocytes first reported?

A. bacteria

 

B. amoeba

 

C. red blood cells

 

D. starfish larvae

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

3. Which is not a component of innate immunity?

A. skin

 

B. inflammation

 

C. fever

 

D. antibody

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

4. Which is not involved in specific immunity?

A. antibody

 

B. T cell

 

C. B cell

 

D. tear flow

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

5. Skin and mucous membranes are mostly involved in

A. specific immunity.

 

B. autoimmunity.

 

C. irregular immunity.

 

D. nonspecific immunity.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

6. Skin and mucous membranes

A. are the first line of innate immunity.

 

B. are the first line of adaptive immunity.

 

C. act as physical barriers to infection.

 

D. contain antimicrobial secretions.

 

E. are the first line of innate immunity, act as physical barriers to infection AND contain antimicrobial secretions.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

7. Interferons, complement, lysozyme, and lactoferrin are all examples of

A. specific antimicrobial factors.

 

B. immune enzymes.

 

C. nonspecific antimicrobial factors.

 

D. cytokines.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

8. Normal flora

A. are the organisms that typically reside on your body.

 

B. protect against infection by pathogens.

 

C. enhance infection by pathogens.

 

D. play no role in affecting pathogen growth.

 

E. are the organisms that typically reside on your body AND protect against infection by pathogens.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

9. Iron

A. is required for growth by some bacteria.

 

B. binds to lactoferrin.

 

C. is necessary for the functioning of some enzymes.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

10. Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as

A. innate immunity.

 

B. specific immunity.

 

C. irregular immunity.

 

D. immune metabolism.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

11. The cells primarily involved in all immune responses are the

A. erythrocytes.

 

B. platelets.

 

C. osteocytes.

 

D. leukocytes.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

12. In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the

A. peripheral circulation.

 

B. lymphatic vessels.

 

C. lymph nodes.

 

D. bone marrow.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

13. All blood cells originate from the

A. erythrocyte.

 

B. leukocytic stem cell.

 

C. eosinophilic stem cell.

 

D. hematopoietic stem cell.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

14. Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?

A. erythrocyte

 

B. neutrophil

 

C. B cell

 

D. T cell

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

15. The leukocyte that contains histamine is the

A. lymphocyte.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. macrophage.

 

D. basophil.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

16. Allergic reactions mainly involve

A. macrophages.

 

B. monocytes.

 

C. neutrophils.

 

D. mast cells.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

17. Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes?

A. lymphocytes and basophils

 

B. mast cells and eosinophils

 

C. basophils and eosinophils

 

D. monocytes and macrophages

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

18. The leukocyte responsible for adaptive immunity is the

A. lymphocyte.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. eosinophil.

 

D. neutrophil.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

19. The “voices” of a cell are

A. surface receptors.

 

B. platelets.

 

C. cytokines.

 

D. antigens.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.04
Section: 14.04
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

20. Toll-like receptors

A. are cytokines.

 

B. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule.

 

C. transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.

 

D. are part of adaptive immunity.

 

E. each recognize a specific “danger” molecule AND transmit a message to the cell’s nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

21. Complement

A. may be activated through three pathways.

 

B. disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells.

 

C. is part of the specific defense system.

 

D. is a group of blood proteins.

 

E. may be activated through three pathways, disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells AND is a group of blood proteins.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

22. The complement pathway that requires antibodies to be activated is the

A. alternate pathway.

 

B. classical pathway.

 

C. properdin pathway.

 

D. inflammatory pathway.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

23. A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is

A. complement.

 

B. interferon.

 

C. glycoprotein.

 

D. lysozyme.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

24. The complement pathway that is activated by mannan-binding lectins is the

A. classical pathway.

 

B. alternate pathway.

 

C. C3 pathway.

 

D. lectin pathway.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

25. The complement pathway that is activated by binding of C3b to cell surfaces is the

A. classical pathway.

 

B. alternate pathway.

 

C. C3 pathway.

 

D. mucociliary pathway.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

26. The key molecule upon which all complement pathways converge is

A. C1.

 

B. C2.

 

C. C3.

 

D. C6.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

27. C3a and C5a are involved in

A. inflammation.

 

B. interferon production.

 

C. properdin activation.

 

D. enhancement of phagocytosis.

 

E. inflammation AND enhancement of phagocytosis.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

28. C3b is involved in

A. opsonization.

 

B. interferon production.

 

C. properdin activation.

 

D. endotoxin production.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

29. The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the

A. prostaglandin complex.

 

B. leukotriene activating complex.

 

C. membrane attack complex.

 

D. histamine complex.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

30. Which of the following are most susceptible to complement lysis?

A. Gram-positive bacteria

 

B. Gram-negative bacteria

 

C. bacteriophages

 

D. prions

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

31. The low molecular weight protein produced by animal cells in response to viral infections is

A. complement.

 

B. lysozyme.

 

C. histamine.

 

D. interferon.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

32. Interleukins are

A. produced by leukocytes.

 

B. important in both innate and adaptive immunity.

 

C. involved in directly killing tumor cells.

 

D. protein molecules.

 

E. produced by leukocytes AND protein molecules.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.04
Section: 14.04
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

33. The presence of long double-stranded RNA (> 30 bp)

A. indicates infection by an RNA virus other than a retrovirus.

 

B. indicates infection by a virus.

 

C. indicates exposure to mutagens.

 

D. induces synthesis of interferon.

 

E. indicates infection by an RNA virus other than a retrovirus AND induces synthesis of interferon.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

34. Interferons function to make cells

A. resistant to viral replication.

 

B. lyse when exposed to virus.

 

C. non-motile when infected with virus.

 

D. resistant to phagocytosis.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

35. Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?

A. interleukin-1

 

B. interleukin-2

 

C. interferon

 

D. lysozyme

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.04
Section: 14.04
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

36. Which of the following statements about interferon is incorrect?

A. It only works on a few specific types of virus.

 

B. It makes cells resistant to viral infection.

 

C. It is a species specific molecule.

 

D. It does not directly inactivate viruses.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

37. Which activity of the virally-invaded cell triggers production of interferon?

A. activation of rRNA

 

B. movement of nuclear proteins to the cytoplasm

 

C. production of glycolipids

 

D. production of dsRNA

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

38. The cellular organelle responsible for the digestion of ingested infectious agents is the

A. endoplasmic reticulum.

 

B. Golgi apparatus.

 

C. phagolysosome.

 

D. lysosome.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.07
Section: 14.07
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

39. Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by

A. ingestion.

 

B. exocytosis.

 

C. extrusion.

 

D. budding.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.07
Section: 14.07
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

40. The four cardinal signs of inflammation are:

A. flare, wheals, fever, cough

 

B. rash, pus, heat, rubor

 

C. heat, pain, vesicles, fever

 

D. redness, heat, swelling, pain

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.09
Section: 14.08
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

41. The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as

A. inflammation.

 

B. reaction.

 

C. antibodies.

 

D. trauma.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.09
Section: 14.08
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

42. The first kind of leukocyte lured to the site of inflammation is the

A. neutrophil.

 

B. monocyte.

 

C. macrophage.

 

D. basophil.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.09
Section: 14.08
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

43. The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as

A. parasitism.

 

B. infection.

 

C. phototaxis.

 

D. chemotaxis.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.09
Section: 14.08
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

44. One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is

A. a rash.

 

B. pustules.

 

C. vesicles.

 

D. fever.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.11
Section: 14.09
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

45. Pyrogens are

A. fever-inducing substances.

 

B. fever-inhibiting substances.

 

C. phagocytosis-enhancing substances.

 

D. complement activators.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.11
Section: 14.09
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

46. Fever

A. enhances bacterial growth.

 

B. inhibits bacterial growth.

 

C. speeds up the body’s reactions.

 

D. triggers complement.

 

E. inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body’s reactions.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.11
Section: 14.09
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

True / False Questions

47. Pattern recognition is involved in innate immunity.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

48. Defensins are short antimicrobial peptides found within mucus membranes and phagocytes.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

49. White blood cells called leukocytes are important in immunity.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

50. Mast cells are only found in the blood.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

51. Lymphocytes are the cells primarily responsible for the specific immune responses.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.03
Section: 14.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

52. All pathways of complement activation follow the same sequence after C3.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

53. Gram-negative bacteria are less susceptible to complement lysis than Gram-positive bacteria.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.06
Section: 14.06
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

54. Interferon directly interacts with and destroys viruses.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

55. Neutrophils are the second phagocytic cell to respond to an infection.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.08
Section: 14.07
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

56. Fever often enhances bacterial survival during an infection.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.11
Section: 14.09
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

57. What 2 functions do phagocytes serve in immune responses?

A. Production of antibodies AND engulfment/destruction of foreign cells.

 

B. Engulfment/destruction of foreign cells AND alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader.

 

C. Alerting the other cells of the immune system to an invader AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.

 

D. Production of antibodies AND serving as a physical barrier against microbial invasion.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

58. How do cytokines function?

A. They bind directly to microbes to enhance their chance of being ingested (phagocytosed).

 

B. They are secreted in the phagolysosomes of neutrophils to effect killing of ingested microbes.

 

C. They are secreted by one cell type in the vicinity of another cell.  They then bind to a receptor on the 2nd cell, causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response.

 

D. They work as a series of serum proteins to produce a hole in microbes to directly lyse them.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 14.01
Section: 14.01
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

59. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind molecules on pathogens.  Why is this helpful to the immune response?

A. It provides a highly specific response to very small and highly unique areas on an individual pathogenic microbe, providing the most specific and selective response possible.

 

B. It provides a general response to broad categories of molecules/cells that should NOT be in our system, as we don’t have these molecules on our own cells.

 

C. These secreted molecules help bind pathogens and then direct them to receptors on the immune system cells that are best capable of eliminating them from our systems.  TLRs are delivery mechanisms for the immune responses.

 

D. TLRs are capable of directly lysing (destroying) the microbes, helping our immune responses by eliminating pathogens.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

60. Smoking impairs the ciliated cells of the middle portion of the respiratory tract.  Many analgesic drugs (painkillers) impair peristalsis (the churning motion of the digestive tract).  The result of either of these activities leads to an increased risk of infection in their respective areas.  Why?

A. The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens out of the area, serving as a part of the physical barrier system.  When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens have an easier time adhering to the tissues in the area and causing an infection.

 

B. Ciliated cells also line the digestive tract, and these cells secrete strong natural antibacterial compounds.  When they are impaired, bacteria can more easily infect these areas.

 

C. Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair our immune systems, making us generally more predisposed to infections (regardless of the tissue area).

 

D. Chemicals in cigarette smoke and the chemicals in painkillers impair the ability of our immune system cells to move into areas that are infected.  As such, they can’t perform their job of eliminating microbes as well as they should and infections result more easily.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 14.02
Section: 14.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

61. A physician is attempting new therapies for HIV patients who are suffering from an impaired immune response.  He decides to try using a recombinant form of colony-stimulating factor cytokine (CSF).  Why?

A. CSF is a strong inducer of antiviral activities in our cells, and may help our immune system fight off the effects of HIV for a longer period of time.

 

B. CSF will hyperstimulate the activities of the macrophages, leading to ingestion and destruction of HIV-infected cells.

 

C. CSF will help to stimulate the production of new lymphocytes-the very cells that are infected and depleted during an HIV infection.  This may help to keep the patients’ immune responses ‘normal’ for a longer period of time before they succumb to full-blown AIDS.

 

D. CSF will drive up the production of lactoferrin, a strong antiviral compound produced in our mucus membrane secretions.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 14.04
Section: 14.04
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

62. Syphilis was once treated by intentionally infecting the patient with the parasite that causes malaria, a disease characterized by repeated bouts of fever, shaking, and chills.  Why might this treatment cure syphilis?

A. Malaria parasites produce strong antibacterial compounds (since they’re eukaryotic in nature-they are trying to eliminate their competition for resources).  This helps to eliminate ALL bacteria in and on the human body for a short period of time.

 

B. Malaria parasites track down and feed upon ALL bacterial cells in the human body as a part of their life cycle.  This makes them a ‘natural antibiotic’ of sorts, and highly effective at clearing the bacterial infection of syphilis.

 

C. One of the side effects of malarial infection is a massive overproduction of macrophages-so many that they become the dominant cell type in the blood (even over red blood cells!).  This drives up the ability to ingest and destroy any microbe, including the bacterium that causes syphilis.

 

D. The effect of driving up the body temperature for periods of time can shut down the temperature-sensitive replication of the bacterium that causes syphilis.  This gives the immune system time to eliminate it properly.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 14.11
Section: 14.09
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

63. A cell infected by viruses may die due to the actions of interferons.  The same result would occur WITHOUT interferon-any cell infected by a virus would die directly from the virus.  Is there any apparent benefit to the host organism from the interferon action?

A. No-interferon is just an evolutionary leftover from a much earlier form of antiviral activity.  It has no function now.

 

B. Yes-when the interferon acts on a virally-infected cell, it shuts down protein production (which shuts down virus replication).  Without interferon, virus will kill the cell eventually, but only after it has replicated many times over.  Interferons may kill the host cell, but they will also prevent it from being used to replicate virus.

 

C. Yes-by killing host cells, you limit the number of cells that are available targets for viral infection.  This is a good way of preventing viral infection.

 

D. No-viruses will replicate in cells regardless of the effects of interferons, so their action of killing the cell has no benefit to the host organism during the infection process.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 14.05
Section: 14.05
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

 

Ch14 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 23
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 35
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 1
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 4
Learning Outcome: 14.01 7
Learning Outcome: 14.02 7
Learning Outcome: 14.03 11
Learning Outcome: 14.04 4
Learning Outcome: 14.05 10
Learning Outcome: 14.06 12
Learning Outcome: 14.07 2
Learning Outcome: 14.08 1
Learning Outcome: 14.09 4
Learning Outcome: 14.11 5
Section: 14.01 7
Section: 14.02 7
Section: 14.03 11
Section: 14.04 4
Section: 14.05 10
Section: 14.06 12
Section: 14.07 3
Section: 14.08 4
Section: 14.09 5
Topic: Immunity and Immunization 63

Ch30

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An effective means used early in the 19th century to clear water of the majority of bacteria was the use of

A. chlorine.

 

B. iodine.

 

C. alcohol.

 

D. sand filters.

 

2. Vibrio cholera is most often associated with

A. breathing air.

 

B. eating food.

 

C. drinking water.

 

D. touching animals.

 

3. The term “potable water” refers to water that is

A. safe to swim in but not drink.

 

B. safe to drink.

 

C. only good for irrigation.

 

D. contaminated with chemicals.

 

4. A high BOD value means

A. a large amount of oxygen has been used.

 

B. a small amount of oxygen has been used.

 

C. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

D. a small number of viruses are present.

 

E. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

5. Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n)

A. lower BOD.

 

B. higher BOD.

 

C. unchanging BOD.

 

D. increase in sulfur.

 

6. In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

7. In sewage treatment, the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. advanced treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

8. Advanced treatment of sewage

A. is done to prevent nutrient enrichment.

 

B. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms.

 

C. involves the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

9. The activated sludge process

A. is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

 

B. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter.

 

C. is meant to increase the BOD.

 

D. removes large objects from the sewage.

 

E. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD.

 

10. The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s)

A. oxygen.

 

B. nitrogen.

 

C. carbon monoxide.

 

D. methane.

 

E. nitrogen AND carbon monoxide.

 

11. The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term

A. lagooning.

 

B. stabilization.

 

C. activation.

 

D. biochemical oxygen demand.

 

12. The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is

A. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter.

 

B. 500-800 grams per milliliter.

 

C. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

 

D. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

 

13. In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used?

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

14. Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment?

A. activated sludge

 

B. trickling filter

 

C. septic tank

 

D. lagooning

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

15. The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the

A. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants.

 

B. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

C. inhibitory effect it has on plant growth.

 

D. stimulatory effect it has on methane production.

 

E. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

16. Sludge

A. is a byproduct of sewage treatment.

 

B. may be a source of pollution.

 

C. takes up space in a landfill.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

17. Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of

A. biodegradable carbon.

 

B. ammonia and nitrate.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. pathogens.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

18. Water treatment processes for drinking water

A. are similar to wastewater treatment.

 

B. are only necessary when using recycled water.

 

C. includes disinfection but not filtration.

 

D. has no biological treatment phase.

 

19. Which of the following is used to cause flocculation?

A. charcoal

 

B. methane

 

C. chlorine

 

D. aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

 

20. The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of

A. Streptococci.

 

B. coliforms.

 

C. Staphylococci.

 

D. Streptomyces.

 

21. Coliforms are

A. Gram-negative.

 

B. rod-shaped.

 

C. non-spore forming.

 

D. lactose-fermenting with acid and gas formation.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

22. Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be

A. Clostridia.

 

B. Enterococci.

 

C. bacteriophages.

 

D. Bacteroides.

 

E. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages.

 

23. Which of the following statements about landfills is false?

A. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

 

B. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater.

 

C. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills.

 

D. Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate.

 

24. Which of the following cannot be used in composting?

A. grass clippings

 

B. nutrient-poor potting soil

 

C. meats and fats

 

D. vegetable peelings

 

25. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in

A. 1 day.

 

B. 1 month.

 

C. six weeks.

 

D. six months.

 

26. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about

A. 20-30ºC.

 

B. 55-66ºC.

 

C. 62-75ºC.

 

D. 90-100ºC.

 

27. Bioremediation

A. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants.

 

B. may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

 

C. has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.

 

D. produces xenobiotics.

 

E. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimuation or bioaugmentation.

 

28. Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by

A. providing sufficient moisture.

 

B. providing adequate nutrients.

 

C. maintaining pH near neutrality.

 

D. raising the temperature.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

29. Bioaugmentation

A. adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site.

 

B. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes.

 

C. usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

D. is typically done offsite.

 

E. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes AND usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

 

True / False Questions

30. The term “potable water” refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.

True    False

 

31. Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water.

True    False

 

32. High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.

True    False

 

33. The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.

True    False

 

34. The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes.

True    False

 

35. As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment.

True    False

 

36. Trickling filters may be used in place of activated sludge in secondary sewage treatment.

True    False

 

37. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC.

True    False

 

38. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.

True    False

 

39. Pseudomonas and Bacillus are able to reduce nitrates to nitrogen.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

40. Which would be more likely to cause illness-a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7?

A. Both would be equally capable of causing illness-all coliforms cause illness.

 

B. The coliform positive sample would be more likely to cause illness.  Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.

 

C. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness.  This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

 

D. Neither-there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water.

 

41. Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile?

A. The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile.

 

B. Without adding soil and water, no decomposition of the material can take place.  The material would simply sit there.

 

C. Water is the medium that photosynthetic organisms use to break down the organic materials in the compost pile.

 

D. Soil spreads out the material in the pile.  If the material is too close together, natural aeration cannot occur and decomposition stops.

 

42. Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill?

A. The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it.

 

B. The bacteria can’t be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground.  Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity.

 

C. The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater.  Underground, they lack this salt level.

 

D. It IS degraded underground-but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature.  This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water’s surface.

 

 

 

Ch30 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An effective means used early in the 19th century to clear water of the majority of bacteria was the use of

A. chlorine.

 

B. iodine.

 

C. alcohol.

 

D. sand filters.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

2. Vibrio cholera is most often associated with

A. breathing air.

 

B. eating food.

 

C. drinking water.

 

D. touching animals.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

3. The term “potable water” refers to water that is

A. safe to swim in but not drink.

 

B. safe to drink.

 

C. only good for irrigation.

 

D. contaminated with chemicals.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

4. A high BOD value means

A. a large amount of oxygen has been used.

 

B. a small amount of oxygen has been used.

 

C. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

D. a small number of viruses are present.

 

E. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

5. Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n)

A. lower BOD.

 

B. higher BOD.

 

C. unchanging BOD.

 

D. increase in sulfur.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

6. In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

7. In sewage treatment, the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. advanced treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

8. Advanced treatment of sewage

A. is done to prevent nutrient enrichment.

 

B. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms.

 

C. involves the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

9. The activated sludge process

A. is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

 

B. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter.

 

C. is meant to increase the BOD.

 

D. removes large objects from the sewage.

 

E. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

10. The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s)

A. oxygen.

 

B. nitrogen.

 

C. carbon monoxide.

 

D. methane.

 

E. nitrogen AND carbon monoxide.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

11. The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term

A. lagooning.

 

B. stabilization.

 

C. activation.

 

D. biochemical oxygen demand.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

12. The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is

A. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter.

 

B. 500-800 grams per milliliter.

 

C. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

 

D. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

13. In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used?

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

14. Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment?

A. activated sludge

 

B. trickling filter

 

C. septic tank

 

D. lagooning

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

15. The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the

A. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants.

 

B. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

C. inhibitory effect it has on plant growth.

 

D. stimulatory effect it has on methane production.

 

E. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

16. Sludge

A. is a byproduct of sewage treatment.

 

B. may be a source of pollution.

 

C. takes up space in a landfill.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

17. Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of

A. biodegradable carbon.

 

B. ammonia and nitrate.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. pathogens.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

18. Water treatment processes for drinking water

A. are similar to wastewater treatment.

 

B. are only necessary when using recycled water.

 

C. includes disinfection but not filtration.

 

D. has no biological treatment phase.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.04
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

19. Which of the following is used to cause flocculation?

A. charcoal

 

B. methane

 

C. chlorine

 

D. aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.04
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

20. The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of

A. Streptococci.

 

B. coliforms.

 

C. Staphylococci.

 

D. Streptomyces.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

21. Coliforms are

A. Gram-negative.

 

B. rod-shaped.

 

C. non-spore forming.

 

D. lactose-fermenting with acid and gas formation.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

22. Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be

A. Clostridia.

 

B. Enterococci.

 

C. bacteriophages.

 

D. Bacteroides.

 

E. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

23. Which of the following statements about landfills is false?

A. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

 

B. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater.

 

C. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills.

 

D. Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

24. Which of the following cannot be used in composting?

A. grass clippings

 

B. nutrient-poor potting soil

 

C. meats and fats

 

D. vegetable peelings

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

25. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in

A. 1 day.

 

B. 1 month.

 

C. six weeks.

 

D. six months.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

26. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about

A. 20-30ºC.

 

B. 55-66ºC.

 

C. 62-75ºC.

 

D. 90-100ºC.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

27. Bioremediation

A. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants.

 

B. may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

 

C. has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.

 

D. produces xenobiotics.

 

E. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimuation or bioaugmentation.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

28. Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by

A. providing sufficient moisture.

 

B. providing adequate nutrients.

 

C. maintaining pH near neutrality.

 

D. raising the temperature.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.07
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

29. Bioaugmentation

A. adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site.

 

B. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes.

 

C. usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

D. is typically done offsite.

 

E. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes AND usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

True / False Questions

30. The term “potable water” refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

31. Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

32. High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

33. The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

34. The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

35. As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

36. Trickling filters may be used in place of activated sludge in secondary sewage treatment.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

37. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

38. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

39. Pseudomonas and Bacillus are able to reduce nitrates to nitrogen.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

40. Which would be more likely to cause illness-a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7?

A. Both would be equally capable of causing illness-all coliforms cause illness.

 

B. The coliform positive sample would be more likely to cause illness.  Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.

 

C. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness.  This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

 

D. Neither-there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

41. Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile?

A. The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile.

 

B. Without adding soil and water, no decomposition of the material can take place.  The material would simply sit there.

 

C. Water is the medium that photosynthetic organisms use to break down the organic materials in the compost pile.

 

D. Soil spreads out the material in the pile.  If the material is too close together, natural aeration cannot occur and decomposition stops.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

42. Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill?

A. The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it.

 

B. The bacteria can’t be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground.  Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity.

 

C. The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater.  Underground, they lack this salt level.

 

D. It IS degraded underground-but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature.  This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water’s surface.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

 

Ch30 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 14
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 22
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 4
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 2
Learning Outcome: 30.01 9
Learning Outcome: 30.02 14
Learning Outcome: 30.04 2
Learning Outcome: 30.05 5
Learning Outcome: 30.06 7
Learning Outcome: 30.07 1
Learning Outcome: 30.08 4
Section: 30.01 23
Section: 30.02 7
Section: 30.03 9
Section: 30.04 3
Topic: Environmental Microbiology 42

 

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