Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Editionby Eugene Nester – Test bank

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Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Editionby Eugene Nester – Test bank

Ch02

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In addition to investigations with bacteria that led to him being considered the Father of Microbiology, Pasteur also

A. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers.

 

B. created aspartame.

 

C. separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

D. discovered polarized light.

 

E. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers AND separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

2. The negatively charged component of the atom is the

A. proton.

 

B. nucleus.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. electron.

 

3. The part of the atom that is most involved in chemical reactivity is the

A. proton.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. electron.

 

D. nucleus.

 

4. Electrons

A. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals.

 

B. may gain or lose energy.

 

C. may move from one orbital to another.

 

D. are located farthest from the nucleus and have the least energy.

 

E. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals, may gain or lose energy, and may move from one orbital to another.

 

5. The atomic number for an atom of a specific element is equal to

A. the number of electrons in a single atom of that element.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons in a single atom of that element.

 

C. the number of protons in a single atom of that element.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons in a single atom of that element.

 

6. Sharing of electrons between 2 atoms forms a(n)

A. hydrogen bond.

 

B. ionic bond.

 

C. covalent bond.

 

D. strong bond.

 

E. covalent bond AND strong bond.

 

7. If electrons are gained or lost in the formation of a bond, the bond is termed

A. covalent.

 

B. hydrogen.

 

C. ionic.

 

D. nonpolar.

 

8. Charged atoms are termed

A. ions.

 

B. neutrons.

 

C. molecules.

 

D. polymers.

 

9. Water

A. is a polar molecule.

 

B. is referred to as a universal solvent.

 

C. makes up over 70% (by wt.) of an organism.

 

D. is often a product or reactant in chemical reactions.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

10. pH

A. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration.

 

B. utilizes a scale from 5 to 8.

 

C. is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

D. is an abbreviation for, “power of helium”.

 

E. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration, utilizes a scale from 5 to 8 AND is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

11. The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are

A. nucleotides.

 

B. phospholipids.

 

C. amino acids.

 

D. carbohydrates.

 

12. If the side chains of amino acids contain carboxyl (-COOH) groups, they

A. contribute a positive charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

B. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

C. have no effect on the charge of the amino acid at pH 10.

 

D. are considered acidic amino acids.

 

E. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10 AND are considered acidic amino acids.

 

13. Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups

A. are considered hydrophilic.

 

B. are nonpolar.

 

C. carry a positive charge.

 

D. carry a negative charge.

 

E. are considered hydrophilic AND carry a positive charge.

 

14. D-amino acids are associated with

A. radioactive isotopes.

 

B. human proteins.

 

C. plant proteins.

 

D. bacterial cell walls.

 

15. The most important feature of a protein is its

A. secondary structure.

 

B. side group.

 

C. shape.

 

D. electric charge.

 

16. The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein’s

A. primary structure.

 

B. secondary structure.

 

C. tertiary structure.

 

D. quaternary structure.

 

17. Acidic or basic amino acids are

A. readily soluble in water.

 

B. readily soluble in lipids.

 

C. able to form ions.

 

D. considered hydrophilic.

 

E. readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.

 

18. The N terminal in a protein

A. is the end characterized by a free carboxyl group.

 

B. is the end characterized by a free amino group.

 

C. is typically found in the middle of a protein.

 

D. refers to that area of a protein that is bound to another protein.

 

19. Protein denaturation can

A. occur due to certain chemicals.

 

B. occur due to pH changes.

 

C. occur due to high temperature.

 

D. cause the protein to no longer function.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

20. Which is true of carbohydrates?

A. They may be part of the structure of bacteria.

 

B. They may serve as a source of food.

 

C. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

 

D. They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

21. Carbohydrates

A. form only ring structures.

 

B. form only linear structures.

 

C. may interconvert between ring and linear structures.

 

D. contain both ring and linear portions within the same molecule.

 

22. Structural isomers

A. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements.

 

B. are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

C. are formed by different arrangements of the -COOH groups.

 

D. may be referred to as the -D and -L forms.

 

E. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements AND are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

23. What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?

A. covalent

 

B. hydrogen

 

C. disulfide

 

D. ionic

 

24. The sugars found in nucleic acids consist of

A. 3 carbon atoms.

 

B. 5 carbon atoms.

 

C. 7 carbon atoms.

 

D. 9 carbon atoms.

 

25. Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A. adenine

 

B. ribose

 

C. thymine

 

D. uracil

 

E. ribose AND uracil

 

26. Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?

A. A:T

 

B. G:C

 

C. G:T

 

D. A:U

 

E. A:T, G:C AND A:U

 

27. The components of fats are fatty acids and

A. amino acids.

 

B. nucleotides.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. glycerol.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

28. In general, when saturated fats are compared to unsaturated fats (assuming the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule)

A. they have about the same melting temperature.

 

B. saturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

C. unsaturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

D. No generalizations can be made since melting temperature is strongly influenced by other factors.

 

 

True / False Questions

29. If you placed the molecule in a vertical orientation, then from top to bottom, the two parallel strands of DNA are both oriented in the same, 5′ to 3′, direction.

True    False

 

30. RNA is a long double-stranded helix containing ribose and uracil.

True    False

 

31. Lipids, like nucleic acids and proteins, are made of strings of similar subunits.

True    False

 

32. Steroids are simple lipids.

True    False

 

33. Water soluble substances easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

34. The positively charged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. proton.

 

D. quark.

 

35. The uncharged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. proton.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. muon.

 

36. Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?

A. electron

 

B. neutron

 

C. atomic weight

 

D. atomic number

 

37. The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

A. the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

 

B. the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.

 

C. neutrons neutralize the charges.

 

D. the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

 

38. The atomic weight is equal to

A. the number of electrons.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons.

 

C. the number of protons.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons.

 

39. If electrons are shared unequally, this forms a(n)

A. weak bond.

 

B. nonpolar bond.

 

C. polar bond.

 

D. ionic bond.

 

40. Atoms that gain electrons are now

A. positively charged.

 

B. negatively charged.

 

C. neutral.

 

D. lighter.

 

41. Which of these bonds are weak individually but are much stronger as a group?

A. covalent

 

B. ionic

 

C. neutron

 

D. hydrogen

 

E. ionic AND hydrogen

 

42. The most important molecule(s) in the world is(are)

A. water.

 

B. protein.

 

C. carbohydrates.

 

D. nucleic acids.

 

43. The energy storage form of ATP

A. contains deoxyribose.

 

B. contains ribose.

 

C. contains a pyrimidine base.

 

D. readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

E. contains deoxyribose, contains a pyrimidine base AND readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

44. How many different amino acids are there to choose from when assembling a protein?

A. 5

 

B. 10

 

C. 20

 

D. 25

 

45. If the side chains of amino acids contain the ammonium ion, they readily form ions that

A. are described as acidic amino acids.

 

B. give positive electric charges to the amino acid.

 

C. are described as basic amino acids.

 

D. react with lipids to form lipoproteins.

 

E. give positive electric charges to the amino acid AND are described as basic amino acids.

 

46. L-amino acids occur in proteins and are designated

A. unnatural.

 

B. natural.

 

C. rare.

 

D. left handed.

 

E. natural AND left handed.

 

47. Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the

A. methyl group of one amino acid and a side group of another amino acid.

 

B. carbon atoms of two adjacent amino acids.

 

C. carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

 

D. nitrogen atom and carboxyl ion.

 

48. The primary structure in a protein

A. refers to the helical folding of a protein.

 

B. refers to two or more polypeptides linked to one another.

 

C. refers to the sequence of amino acids.

 

D. refers to the initial folding of a protein.

 

49. Side chains are important to proteins because they

A. help determine protein shape.

 

B. help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

C. are a source of energy for hydration reactions in the cell.

 

D. form the peptide bonds which link amino acids to one another.

 

E. help determine protein shape AND help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

50. A protein

A. assumes any number of equally functional shapes.

 

B. may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

C. consists of a string of hydroxyl acids.

 

D. is always polar.

 

E. assumes any number of equally functional shapes AND may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

51. Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.

A. primary

 

B. secondary

 

C. tertiary

 

D. quarternary

 

E. secondary, tertiary AND quarternary

 

52. Proteins

A. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell.

 

B. comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

C. are composed of a string of nucleotides.

 

D. are characterized by a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen.

 

E. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell AND comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

53. The carbohydrate(s) found in nucleic acids is/are

A. ribose.

 

B. glucose.

 

C. galactose.

 

D. deoxyribose.

 

E. ribose AND deoxyribose.

 

54. The -OH group in a carbohydrate

A. may be found above or below the plane of the ring.

 

B. is involved in the formation of stereoisomers.

 

C. is involved when linking monosaccharides together.

 

D. All of the choices are true.

 

55. Dehydration reactions are involved in

A. the formation of polypeptides.

 

B. the formation of polysaccharides.

 

C. the formation of monosaccharides.

 

D. the formation of nucleotides.

 

E. the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.

 

56. Which is true of nucleotides?

A. They are the building blocks of DNA.

 

B. They carry chemical energy in their bonds.

 

C. They are part of certain enzymes.

 

D. They serve as specific signaling molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

57. The purines of DNA are

A. adenine and guanine.

 

B. thymine and adenine.

 

C. serine and threonine.

 

D. thymine and uracil.

 

E. thymine and adenine AND thymine and uracil.

 

58. The end of the nucleic acid chain that grows by adding more nucleotides is always the

A. 5 prime end.

 

B. C terminal.

 

C. N terminal.

 

D. 3 prime end.

 

59. The characteristic common to all lipids is their

A. solubility in organic solvents.

 

B. hydrophilic nature.

 

C. large size.

 

D. hydrophobic nature.

 

E. solubility in organic solvents AND hydrophobic nature.

 

60. Which is(are) true of lipids?

A. They are a major structural element of all cell membranes.

 

B. They act as gatekeepers of the cell.

 

C. They demark the inside vs. the outside of the cell.

 

D. They are a heterogeneous group of molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

True / False Questions

61. As DNA is always double-stranded, RNA is always single-stranded.

True    False

 

62. Lipids are polar, hydrophilic molecules.

True    False

 

63. Simple lipids contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

True    False

 

64. Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.

True    False

 

65. Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

66. Microorganisms use hydrogen bonds to attach themselves to the surfaces that they live upon.  Many of them lose hold of the surface because of the weak nature of these bonds and end up dying or being washed away.  Why don’t microbes just use covalent bonds instead?

A. Covalent bonds are always permanent bonds-the microbes could never get OFF their surface if they used them.

 

B. Covalent bonds depend on completely giving up or completely accepting an electron to form the bond.  This isn’t possible for many microbes without dramatically altering their basic molecular composition.

 

C. Covalent bonds typically require enzymes to form/break, whereas hydrogen bonds don’t.  If covalent bonds were used, it would require much more energy and molecules to be contributed from the cell.  Hydrogen bonds don’t have these requirements.

 

D. Covalent bonds may have more specific and stringent requirements for what atoms can bond with what.  This makes for stronger bonds, but also decreases the overall potential for bonds that could readily be created between the microbe and its desired surface.

 

E. C and D

 

67. A biologist determined the amounts of several amino acids in two separate samples of pure protein.  His data stated that Protein A possessed: 7% leucine, 12% alanine, 4% histidine, 2% cysteine, and 5% glycine.  Interestingly, Protein B had the same percentages of each of the same amino acids.  He concluded, from this data, that Proteins A and B are the same protein.  Based on this information and his conclusion, determine which of the following is the correct statement regarding his findings:

A. He is correct-they have the same percentages of each amino acid, so they are identical protein molecules.

 

B. He is incorrect-while they may possess the same percentages of each amino acid, his findings say nothing about the order in which the amino acids are put together.  The order will dictate the overall structure of the protein, so the two could be very different in shape-even though the amino acid totals are the same.

 

C. He is correct-order of the amino acids is irrelevant.  It’s only the total number of each molecule that is important to structure.

 

D. He is incorrect-he hasn’t accounted at all for the effects of pH on the composition of the protein and its effects on the individual amino acids.

 

 

 

Ch02 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In addition to investigations with bacteria that led to him being considered the Father of Microbiology, Pasteur also

A. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers.

 

B. created aspartame.

 

C. separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

D. discovered polarized light.

 

E. found that some molecules can exist as stereoisomers AND separated organic acids using a microscope.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

2. The negatively charged component of the atom is the

A. proton.

 

B. nucleus.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. electron.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

3. The part of the atom that is most involved in chemical reactivity is the

A. proton.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. electron.

 

D. nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

4. Electrons

A. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals.

 

B. may gain or lose energy.

 

C. may move from one orbital to another.

 

D. are located farthest from the nucleus and have the least energy.

 

E. are found in areas outside the nucleus known as orbitals, may gain or lose energy, and may move from one orbital to another.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

5. The atomic number for an atom of a specific element is equal to

A. the number of electrons in a single atom of that element.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons in a single atom of that element.

 

C. the number of protons in a single atom of that element.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons in a single atom of that element.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

6. Sharing of electrons between 2 atoms forms a(n)

A. hydrogen bond.

 

B. ionic bond.

 

C. covalent bond.

 

D. strong bond.

 

E. covalent bond AND strong bond.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

7. If electrons are gained or lost in the formation of a bond, the bond is termed

A. covalent.

 

B. hydrogen.

 

C. ionic.

 

D. nonpolar.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

8. Charged atoms are termed

A. ions.

 

B. neutrons.

 

C. molecules.

 

D. polymers.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

9. Water

A. is a polar molecule.

 

B. is referred to as a universal solvent.

 

C. makes up over 70% (by wt.) of an organism.

 

D. is often a product or reactant in chemical reactions.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.05
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

10. pH

A. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration.

 

B. utilizes a scale from 5 to 8.

 

C. is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

D. is an abbreviation for, “power of helium”.

 

E. is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration, utilizes a scale from 5 to 8 AND is a linear (not logarithmic) scale.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.06
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

11. The subunits (building blocks) of proteins are

A. nucleotides.

 

B. phospholipids.

 

C. amino acids.

 

D. carbohydrates.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

12. If the side chains of amino acids contain carboxyl (-COOH) groups, they

A. contribute a positive charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

B. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10.

 

C. have no effect on the charge of the amino acid at pH 10.

 

D. are considered acidic amino acids.

 

E. contribute a negative charge to the amino acid at pH 10 AND are considered acidic amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

13. Amino acids that contain many methyl (-CH3) groups

A. are considered hydrophilic.

 

B. are nonpolar.

 

C. carry a positive charge.

 

D. carry a negative charge.

 

E. are considered hydrophilic AND carry a positive charge.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

14. D-amino acids are associated with

A. radioactive isotopes.

 

B. human proteins.

 

C. plant proteins.

 

D. bacterial cell walls.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

15. The most important feature of a protein is its

A. secondary structure.

 

B. side group.

 

C. shape.

 

D. electric charge.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

16. The helices and sheets of amino acids form a protein’s

A. primary structure.

 

B. secondary structure.

 

C. tertiary structure.

 

D. quaternary structure.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

17. Acidic or basic amino acids are

A. readily soluble in water.

 

B. readily soluble in lipids.

 

C. able to form ions.

 

D. considered hydrophilic.

 

E. readily soluble in water, able to form ions AND considered hydrophilic.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

18. The N terminal in a protein

A. is the end characterized by a free carboxyl group.

 

B. is the end characterized by a free amino group.

 

C. is typically found in the middle of a protein.

 

D. refers to that area of a protein that is bound to another protein.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

19. Protein denaturation can

A. occur due to certain chemicals.

 

B. occur due to pH changes.

 

C. occur due to high temperature.

 

D. cause the protein to no longer function.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

20. Which is true of carbohydrates?

A. They may be part of the structure of bacteria.

 

B. They may serve as a source of food.

 

C. They contain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

 

D. They may be bonded to proteins to form glycoproteins.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.12
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

21. Carbohydrates

A. form only ring structures.

 

B. form only linear structures.

 

C. may interconvert between ring and linear structures.

 

D. contain both ring and linear portions within the same molecule.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

22. Structural isomers

A. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements.

 

B. are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

C. are formed by different arrangements of the -COOH groups.

 

D. may be referred to as the -D and -L forms.

 

E. contain the same number of atoms/elements, but in different arrangements AND are exemplified by glucose and galactose.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

23. What type of bonding holds one strand of DNA to the complementary strand of DNA?

A. covalent

 

B. hydrogen

 

C. disulfide

 

D. ionic

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

24. The sugars found in nucleic acids consist of

A. 3 carbon atoms.

 

B. 5 carbon atoms.

 

C. 7 carbon atoms.

 

D. 9 carbon atoms.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

25. Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?

A. adenine

 

B. ribose

 

C. thymine

 

D. uracil

 

E. ribose AND uracil

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

26. Which shows the incorrect complementary base pairing?

A. A:T

 

B. G:C

 

C. G:T

 

D. A:U

 

E. A:T, G:C AND A:U

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

27. The components of fats are fatty acids and

A. amino acids.

 

B. nucleotides.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. glycerol.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

28. In general, when saturated fats are compared to unsaturated fats (assuming the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule)

A. they have about the same melting temperature.

 

B. saturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

C. unsaturated fats have a lower melting temperature.

 

D. No generalizations can be made since melting temperature is strongly influenced by other factors.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

True / False Questions

29. If you placed the molecule in a vertical orientation, then from top to bottom, the two parallel strands of DNA are both oriented in the same, 5′ to 3′, direction.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

30. RNA is a long double-stranded helix containing ribose and uracil.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

31. Lipids, like nucleic acids and proteins, are made of strings of similar subunits.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

32. Steroids are simple lipids.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

33. Water soluble substances easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

34. The positively charged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. neutron.

 

C. proton.

 

D. quark.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

35. The uncharged component of the atom is the

A. electron.

 

B. proton.

 

C. neutron.

 

D. muon.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

36. Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?

A. electron

 

B. neutron

 

C. atomic weight

 

D. atomic number

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

37. The atom, as a whole, is uncharged because

A. the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

 

B. the number of electrons equals the number of neutrons.

 

C. neutrons neutralize the charges.

 

D. the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

38. The atomic weight is equal to

A. the number of electrons.

 

B. the number of electrons plus neutrons.

 

C. the number of protons.

 

D. the number of neutrons and protons.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.01
Section: 02.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

39. If electrons are shared unequally, this forms a(n)

A. weak bond.

 

B. nonpolar bond.

 

C. polar bond.

 

D. ionic bond.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

40. Atoms that gain electrons are now

A. positively charged.

 

B. negatively charged.

 

C. neutral.

 

D. lighter.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.02
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

41. Which of these bonds are weak individually but are much stronger as a group?

A. covalent

 

B. ionic

 

C. neutron

 

D. hydrogen

 

E. ionic AND hydrogen

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

42. The most important molecule(s) in the world is(are)

A. water.

 

B. protein.

 

C. carbohydrates.

 

D. nucleic acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.08
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

43. The energy storage form of ATP

A. contains deoxyribose.

 

B. contains ribose.

 

C. contains a pyrimidine base.

 

D. readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

E. contains deoxyribose, contains a pyrimidine base AND readily releases energy by breaking the bond between the base and the sugar.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.07
Section: 02.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

44. How many different amino acids are there to choose from when assembling a protein?

A. 5

 

B. 10

 

C. 20

 

D. 25

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

45. If the side chains of amino acids contain the ammonium ion, they readily form ions that

A. are described as acidic amino acids.

 

B. give positive electric charges to the amino acid.

 

C. are described as basic amino acids.

 

D. react with lipids to form lipoproteins.

 

E. give positive electric charges to the amino acid AND are described as basic amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

46. L-amino acids occur in proteins and are designated

A. unnatural.

 

B. natural.

 

C. rare.

 

D. left handed.

 

E. natural AND left handed.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

47. Amino acids in proteins are linked to one another by peptide bonds between the

A. methyl group of one amino acid and a side group of another amino acid.

 

B. carbon atoms of two adjacent amino acids.

 

C. carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of another.

 

D. nitrogen atom and carboxyl ion.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

48. The primary structure in a protein

A. refers to the helical folding of a protein.

 

B. refers to two or more polypeptides linked to one another.

 

C. refers to the sequence of amino acids.

 

D. refers to the initial folding of a protein.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

49. Side chains are important to proteins because they

A. help determine protein shape.

 

B. help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

C. are a source of energy for hydration reactions in the cell.

 

D. form the peptide bonds which link amino acids to one another.

 

E. help determine protein shape AND help determine the degree of solubility of the protein in water.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

50. A protein

A. assumes any number of equally functional shapes.

 

B. may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

C. consists of a string of hydroxyl acids.

 

D. is always polar.

 

E. assumes any number of equally functional shapes AND may need help, in the form of chaperones, to assume the correct shape.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

51. Weak bonds are important for the ______________ structure of proteins.

A. primary

 

B. secondary

 

C. tertiary

 

D. quarternary

 

E. secondary, tertiary AND quarternary

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

52. Proteins

A. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell.

 

B. comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

C. are composed of a string of nucleotides.

 

D. are characterized by a 1:2:1 ratio of carbon to hydrogen to oxygen.

 

E. are involved in almost every important function performed by a cell AND comprise more than 50% of the dry weight of a cell.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.09
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

53. The carbohydrate(s) found in nucleic acids is/are

A. ribose.

 

B. glucose.

 

C. galactose.

 

D. deoxyribose.

 

E. ribose AND deoxyribose.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.12
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

54. The -OH group in a carbohydrate

A. may be found above or below the plane of the ring.

 

B. is involved in the formation of stereoisomers.

 

C. is involved when linking monosaccharides together.

 

D. All of the choices are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.13
Section: 02.05
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

55. Dehydration reactions are involved in

A. the formation of polypeptides.

 

B. the formation of polysaccharides.

 

C. the formation of monosaccharides.

 

D. the formation of nucleotides.

 

E. the formation of polypeptides AND the formation of polysaccharides.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.10
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

56. Which is true of nucleotides?

A. They are the building blocks of DNA.

 

B. They carry chemical energy in their bonds.

 

C. They are part of certain enzymes.

 

D. They serve as specific signaling molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

57. The purines of DNA are

A. adenine and guanine.

 

B. thymine and adenine.

 

C. serine and threonine.

 

D. thymine and uracil.

 

E. thymine and adenine AND thymine and uracil.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

58. The end of the nucleic acid chain that grows by adding more nucleotides is always the

A. 5 prime end.

 

B. C terminal.

 

C. N terminal.

 

D. 3 prime end.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

59. The characteristic common to all lipids is their

A. solubility in organic solvents.

 

B. hydrophilic nature.

 

C. large size.

 

D. hydrophobic nature.

 

E. solubility in organic solvents AND hydrophobic nature.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

60. Which is(are) true of lipids?

A. They are a major structural element of all cell membranes.

 

B. They act as gatekeepers of the cell.

 

C. They demark the inside vs. the outside of the cell.

 

D. They are a heterogeneous group of molecules.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

True / False Questions

61. As DNA is always double-stranded, RNA is always single-stranded.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.14
Section: 02.06
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

62. Lipids are polar, hydrophilic molecules.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

63. Simple lipids contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

64. Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

65. Unsaturated fats have lower melting points than saturated fats.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 02.15
Section: 02.07
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

66. Microorganisms use hydrogen bonds to attach themselves to the surfaces that they live upon.  Many of them lose hold of the surface because of the weak nature of these bonds and end up dying or being washed away.  Why don’t microbes just use covalent bonds instead?

A. Covalent bonds are always permanent bonds-the microbes could never get OFF their surface if they used them.

 

B. Covalent bonds depend on completely giving up or completely accepting an electron to form the bond.  This isn’t possible for many microbes without dramatically altering their basic molecular composition.

 

C. Covalent bonds typically require enzymes to form/break, whereas hydrogen bonds don’t.  If covalent bonds were used, it would require much more energy and molecules to be contributed from the cell.  Hydrogen bonds don’t have these requirements.

 

D. Covalent bonds may have more specific and stringent requirements for what atoms can bond with what.  This makes for stronger bonds, but also decreases the overall potential for bonds that could readily be created between the microbe and its desired surface.

 

E. C and D

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 02.03
Section: 02.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

67. A biologist determined the amounts of several amino acids in two separate samples of pure protein.  His data stated that Protein A possessed: 7% leucine, 12% alanine, 4% histidine, 2% cysteine, and 5% glycine.  Interestingly, Protein B had the same percentages of each of the same amino acids.  He concluded, from this data, that Proteins A and B are the same protein.  Based on this information and his conclusion, determine which of the following is the correct statement regarding his findings:

A. He is correct-they have the same percentages of each amino acid, so they are identical protein molecules.

 

B. He is incorrect-while they may possess the same percentages of each amino acid, his findings say nothing about the order in which the amino acids are put together.  The order will dictate the overall structure of the protein, so the two could be very different in shape-even though the amino acid totals are the same.

 

C. He is correct-order of the amino acids is irrelevant.  It’s only the total number of each molecule that is important to structure.

 

D. He is incorrect-he hasn’t accounted at all for the effects of pH on the composition of the protein and its effects on the individual amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 02.11
Section: 02.04
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

 

Ch02 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 22
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 34
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 9
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 2
Learning Outcome: 02.01 10
Learning Outcome: 02.02 1
Learning Outcome: 02.03 6
Learning Outcome: 02.05 1
Learning Outcome: 02.06 1
Learning Outcome: 02.07 1
Learning Outcome: 02.08 1
Learning Outcome: 02.09 1
Learning Outcome: 02.10 11
Learning Outcome: 02.11 8
Learning Outcome: 02.12 2
Learning Outcome: 02.13 3
Learning Outcome: 02.14 10
Learning Outcome: 02.15 11
Section: 02.01 10
Section: 02.02 7
Section: 02.03 4
Section: 02.04 20
Section: 02.05 5
Section: 02.06 10
Section: 02.07 11
Topic: Chemistry 67

 

Ch16

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by

A. Fracastorius.

 

B. Pasteur.

 

C. Thucydides.

 

D. Leeuwenhoek.

 

2. The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by

A. Fracastorius.

 

B. Pasteur.

 

C. Koch.

 

D. Leeuwenhoek.

 

3. The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as

A. Pasteur’s postulates.

 

B. Lister’s aseptics.

 

C. Linnaeus taxonomics.

 

D. Koch’s postulates.

 

4. The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)

A. dialogue.

 

B. chat room.

 

C. ecosystem.

 

D. relationship.

 

5. The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called

A. abnormal flora.

 

B. transient flora.

 

C. variant flora.

 

D. normal flora.

 

6. The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called

A. abnormal flora.

 

B. transient flora.

 

C. variant flora.

 

D. normal flora.

 

7. Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed

A. mutualism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. symbiosis.

 

D. transient flora.

 

8. The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

9. A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

10. A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

11. The resident microbial population of the human fetus is

A. zero.

 

B. sparse.

 

C. complex.

 

D. symbiotic.

 

12. Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health?

A. They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.

 

B. They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.

 

C. They produce antimicrobial substances.

 

D. They stimulate the immune system.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

13. Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans?

A. E. coli.

 

B. Lactobacillus species.

 

C. Staphylococci species.

 

D. Propionibacterium species.

 

14. The composition of the normal flora may be affected by

A. hormonal changes.

 

B. use of antibiotics.

 

C. obesity level.

 

D. diet.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

15. The “hygiene hypothesis” proposes that

A. lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies.

 

B. cleanliness truly is next to godliness.

 

C. hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection.

 

D. the immune system develops best in a clean environment.

 

16. The infectious dose

A. is the same for all microorganisms.

 

B. may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella.

 

C. is expressed as ID50.

 

D. is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

 

E. is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

 

17. The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the

A. infectious dose.

 

B. fatal number.

 

C. minimum lethal dose.

 

D. pathogenic number.

 

18. Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as

A. colonization.

 

B. infection.

 

C. pathogenism.

 

D. mutualism.

 

19. A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)

A. avirulent infection.

 

B. colony.

 

C. commensal.

 

D. pathogen.

 

20. Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens

A. are usually saprophytes.

 

B. take advantage of special circumstances.

 

C. are usually mutualistic.

 

D. always cause disease.

 

21. The suffix -emia means in the

A. body.

 

B. lymph.

 

C. interstitial tissue.

 

D. blood.

 

22. Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called

A. disease factors.

 

B. colonization factors.

 

C. mutualistic.

 

D. virulence factors.

 

23. Avirulent organisms are

A. more likely to cause disease.

 

B. more likely to cause severe disease.

 

C. unable to cause disease.

 

D. pathogenic.

 

24. Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?

A. adhesins

 

B. capsules

 

C. endotoxins

 

D. proteases

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

25. Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?

A. plasmids

 

B. pili

 

C. flagella

 

D. capsules

 

26. Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?

A. headache

 

B. pain

 

C. nausea

 

D. fever of 39°C

 

27. People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called

A. primary infections.

 

B. secondary infections.

 

C. mutualists.

 

D. carriers.

 

28. The spread of toxin via circulation is called

A. septicemia.

 

B. bacteremia.

 

C. sepsis.

 

D. toxemia.

 

29. If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch’s postulate number

A. 1.

 

B. 2.

 

C. 3.

 

D. 4.

 

30. A more modern equivalent to Koch’s Postulates is termed

A. Pasteur’s Systematics.

 

B. Hoch’s Postulates.

 

C. Atomic Theory.

 

D. Protein Theory.

 

E. Molecular Postulates.

 

31. Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus

A. invade host cells.

 

B. produce a toxin.

 

C. cause ergot poisoning.

 

D. are delivered via flea bites.

 

E. invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

 

32. Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

 

B. E. coli O157:H7

 

C. Clostridium botulinum

 

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

 

E. Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum

 

33. Adhesins are

A. involved in the first step of the infectious process.

 

B. often found at the tip of pili.

 

C. found in flagella.

 

D. endotoxins.

 

E. involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili.

 

34. The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must

A. invade host tissues.

 

B. attach to host cells.

 

C. evade phagocytes.

 

D. produce toxins.

 

35. Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection?

A. adherence

 

B. dose

 

C. toxicity

 

D. virulence factors

 

36. Typically, adhesins

A. are found on pili.

 

B. help bacteria attach to host cells.

 

C. are proteins.

 

D. are found on host cells.

 

E. are found on pili, help bacteria attach to host cells AND are proteins.

 

37. The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the

A. secretion of exotoxins.

 

B. presence of endotoxins.

 

C. action of IL-2.

 

D. lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

 

38. An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be

A. production of a comet’s tail.

 

B. protease production.

 

C. inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.

 

D. changing the pilus type.

 

E. production of a comet’s tail AND protease production.

 

39. Colonization of the body is inhibited by

A. the shedding of skin cells.

 

B. the movement of mucus by cilia.

 

C. peristalsis.

 

D. the flushing action of the urinary tract.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

40. The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed

A. exocytosis.

 

B. pinocytosis.

 

C. endocytosis.

 

D. phagosome fusion.

 

41. Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed

A. carriers.

 

B. serum resistant.

 

C. balanced pathogens.

 

D. mutualistic.

 

E. carriers AND serum resistant.

 

42. C5a peptidase

A. is a virulence factor.

 

B. synthesizes C5a.

 

C. is produced by the host cell in response to infection.

 

D. is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

 

E. is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

 

43. Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by

A. preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome.

 

B. lysing the phagosome.

 

C. producing comet tails.

 

D. preventing fusion of two phagosomes.

 

E. preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

 

44. The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a

A. protein.

 

B. nucleic acid.

 

C. lipid.

 

D. lipopolysaccharide.

 

45. The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a

A. protein.

 

B. carbohydrate.

 

C. lipid.

 

D. lipopolysaccharide.

 

46. Which is true about superantigens?

A. They are a type of exotoxin.

 

B. They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

 

C. They enhance specific antibody production.

 

D. They are processed intracellularly.

 

E. They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

 

47. Which is true about botox?

A. It is an endotoxin.

 

B. It is produced by S. aureus.

 

C. It may cause botulism.

 

D. It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

 

E. It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

 

48. Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?

A. Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.

 

B. The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came.

 

C. The lipid A is immunogenic.

 

D. They are proteins.

 

E. The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

 

49. Which is/are true of viruses?

A. They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein.

 

B. They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein.

 

C. They may prevent cell suicide.

 

D. They may bind to MHC class II antigens.

 

E. They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein, they may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide.

 

50. Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are

A. cold sores.

 

B. genital herpes.

 

C. typhus.

 

D. shingles.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

51. The damage caused by parasites may be due to

A. competition for nutrients.

 

B. the physical blocking of organs.

 

C. the direct digestion of host tissue.

 

D. the host’s immune response.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

 

True / False Questions

52. The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

True    False

 

53. A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

True    False

 

54. Infection always leads to disease.

True    False

 

55. A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

True    False

 

56. Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

True    False

 

57. During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

True    False

 

58. The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

True    False

 

59. A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

True    False

 

60. High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.

True    False

 

61. Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

62. The normal microbiota provides protection against potentially harmful organisms and stimulates the immune system.  Why would the immune responses to members of the normal microbiota cross-react with pathogens?

A. Because one person’s normal microbiota is another person’s pathogen-when we pick up ‘normal’ microbes from a different person, they will always cause infection within us.

 

B. Because pathogens are oftentimes more virulent strains of our own normal microbial flora, so they will ‘look’ roughly the same to our immune system (and be acted upon by our immune responses).

 

C. Because the normal flora keeps the adaptive immune responses tuned-up, active, and ready to respond to broad, general categories of microbes (i.e. Gram positive vs. Gram negative microbes, viruses, etc.).

 

D. Because the immune system is a ‘use it or lose it’ system.  If it isn’t used on a regular basis, we completely lose the ability to respond to pathogens.  The normal flora keeps the system going so that it can be ready to respond to such pathogens when we’re exposed to them.

 

63. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason why diseases caused by opportunists are becoming more frequent in the US population?

A. HIV individuals (with impaired immune systems) survive longer due to more effective therapies-but this allows them a longer period of time to be infected by opportunists.

 

B. Individuals in the US are living longer than ever before-but they’re living with a number of chronic health issues that can impair the immune system.  This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections.

 

C. Cancer treatments have improved significantly in the last 30 years-but they often suppress the immune system.  This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections in such individuals.

 

D. Travel into and out of the United States has increased significantly.  This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause new infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals.

 

64. In two of Koch’s postulates (#2 and #3), a pure culture of the organism is required.  Which of the following would NOT be a possible consequence of using a contaminated culture?

A. You can’t necessarily attribute the illness directly to the microbe in question-it may in fact be caused by the contaminating microbe.

 

B. There’s the possibility that the test animal might be acutely susceptible to the contaminating microbe, but completely resistant to the microbe you suspect causes the illness of interest.  As such, when you introduce it into the test animal, it could confuse your final results.

 

C. The problem is that one microbe may be toxic to the other.  It may have killed all of your suspect microbe in the culture.  Therefore, you can’t be sure that you’re infecting your test animals with the microbe you suspect is causing the illness, or if it’s only the 2nd (contaminating) microbe.

 

D. Even though there’s a contaminating microbe present, so long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals.  It should also still be recoverable from test animals following infection.  As such, there’s really no consequence to using a contaminated culture.

 

65. Why is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell?

A. It ISN’T a good strategy-host cells could shift to a backup receptor and shut down production of the main receptor, preventing infection.

 

B. If it’s a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn’t have a backup system in place to switch to-so, even though it makes it susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there.  This benefits the microbe.

 

C. Microbes want to evade detection and elimination by the immune system-the closer they can adhere to host cells, the less likely they are to trigger destructive immune responses.  This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation.

 

D. It ISN’T a good strategy-by binding to receptors, microbes will be phagocytosed by cells and destroyed within them.

 

66. Home-canned foods should be boiled before consumption to prevent botulism.  Considering that this treatment does NOT destroy endospores, why would it be helpful in preventing the disease?

A. Because it would destroy the vegetative cells, and only the vegetative cells cause the disease.

 

B. Because it would at least weaken the endospores, making them more susceptible to elimination by our immune system.

 

C. Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it.  The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

 

D. Because the heat would denature the botulism endotoxin and inactivate it.  The endotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

 

67. A number of viruses often include a similar set of symptoms when they cause an infectious disease state (fever, headache, fatigue, runny nose).  Why would they all cause the same symptoms if they’re different viruses?

A. They all possess the same basic virulence genes and molecules, so they all trigger the same responses.

 

B. The symptoms are associated with the immune system’s response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves.  Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar.

 

C. Most viruses infect the upper respiratory tract-this leads to the common set of symptoms listed above.  Only a few viruses infect areas away from this region.

 

D. Viruses specifically infect mainly epithelial membranes.  As such, the virally-induced reaction is similar in different areas of the body due to the same basic cell types (epithelial cells) being infected in each area.

 

 

 

Ch16 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The idea that communicable diseases were caused by the passage of living things from one person to another was first put forth by

A. Fracastorius.

 

B. Pasteur.

 

C. Thucydides.

 

D. Leeuwenhoek.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: History of Microbiology
 

 

2. The connection between a particular organism and a specific disease was first made by

A. Fracastorius.

 

B. Pasteur.

 

C. Koch.

 

D. Leeuwenhoek.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: History of Microbiology
 

 

3. The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as

A. Pasteur’s postulates.

 

B. Lister’s aseptics.

 

C. Linnaeus taxonomics.

 

D. Koch’s postulates.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: History of Microbiology
 

 

4. The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n)

A. dialogue.

 

B. chat room.

 

C. ecosystem.

 

D. relationship.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

5. The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called

A. abnormal flora.

 

B. transient flora.

 

C. variant flora.

 

D. normal flora.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.02
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

6. The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called

A. abnormal flora.

 

B. transient flora.

 

C. variant flora.

 

D. normal flora.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.02
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

7. Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed

A. mutualism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. symbiosis.

 

D. transient flora.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

8. The symbiotic relationship wherein both partners benefit is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

9. A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

10. A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is harmed is termed

A. commensalism.

 

B. parasitism.

 

C. independence.

 

D. mutualism.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.01
Section: 16.01
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

11. The resident microbial population of the human fetus is

A. zero.

 

B. sparse.

 

C. complex.

 

D. symbiotic.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.03
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

12. Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health?

A. They provide a surface that is incompatible for attachment of an invader.

 

B. They establish competition for nutrients and vitamins.

 

C. They produce antimicrobial substances.

 

D. They stimulate the immune system.

 

E. All of the choices are true.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.02
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

13. Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans?

A. E. coli.

 

B. Lactobacillus species.

 

C. Staphylococci species.

 

D. Propionibacterium species.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.03
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

14. The composition of the normal flora may be affected by

A. hormonal changes.

 

B. use of antibiotics.

 

C. obesity level.

 

D. diet.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.03
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

15. The “hygiene hypothesis” proposes that

A. lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies.

 

B. cleanliness truly is next to godliness.

 

C. hand washing is the best preventative measure against infection.

 

D. the immune system develops best in a clean environment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.03
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

16. The infectious dose

A. is the same for all microorganisms.

 

B. may be 10-100 cells for Salmonella.

 

C. is expressed as ID50.

 

D. is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

 

E. is expressed as ID50 AND is defined as the number of microbes necessary to ensure infection.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

17. The number of organisms necessary to insure infection is termed the

A. infectious dose.

 

B. fatal number.

 

C. minimum lethal dose.

 

D. pathogenic number.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

18. Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as

A. colonization.

 

B. infection.

 

C. pathogenism.

 

D. mutualism.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

19. A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n)

A. avirulent infection.

 

B. colony.

 

C. commensal.

 

D. pathogen.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

20. Opportunists or opportunistic pathogens

A. are usually saprophytes.

 

B. take advantage of special circumstances.

 

C. are usually mutualistic.

 

D. always cause disease.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

21. The suffix -emia means in the

A. body.

 

B. lymph.

 

C. interstitial tissue.

 

D. blood.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

22. Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called

A. disease factors.

 

B. colonization factors.

 

C. mutualistic.

 

D. virulence factors.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

23. Avirulent organisms are

A. more likely to cause disease.

 

B. more likely to cause severe disease.

 

C. unable to cause disease.

 

D. pathogenic.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

24. Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)?

A. adhesins

 

B. capsules

 

C. endotoxins

 

D. proteases

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

25. Which of the following does S. pneumoniae use to survive in the host?

A. plasmids

 

B. pili

 

C. flagella

 

D. capsules

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.06
Section: 16.04
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

26. Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease?

A. headache

 

B. pain

 

C. nausea

 

D. fever of 39°C

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

27. People who carry and may spread pathogenic organisms without any overt symptoms of illness are called

A. primary infections.

 

B. secondary infections.

 

C. mutualists.

 

D. carriers.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

28. The spread of toxin via circulation is called

A. septicemia.

 

B. bacteremia.

 

C. sepsis.

 

D. toxemia.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

29. If a disease affects only a human and not an animal, then it would be difficult to fulfill Koch’s postulate number

A. 1.

 

B. 2.

 

C. 3.

 

D. 4.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 16.06
Section: 16.04
Topic: Infection and Disease
 

 

30. A more modern equivalent to Koch’s Postulates is termed

A. Pasteur’s Systematics.

 

B. Hoch’s Postulates.

 

C. Atomic Theory.

 

D. Protein Theory.

 

E. Molecular Postulates.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.06
Section: 16.04
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

31. Species of both Shigella and Streptococcus

A. invade host cells.

 

B. produce a toxin.

 

C. cause ergot poisoning.

 

D. are delivered via flea bites.

 

E. invade host cells AND produce a toxin.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

32. Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

 

B. E. coli O157:H7

 

C. Clostridium botulinum

 

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

 

E. Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.06
Section: 16.04
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

33. Adhesins are

A. involved in the first step of the infectious process.

 

B. often found at the tip of pili.

 

C. found in flagella.

 

D. endotoxins.

 

E. involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

34. The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must

A. invade host tissues.

 

B. attach to host cells.

 

C. evade phagocytes.

 

D. produce toxins.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

35. Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection?

A. adherence

 

B. dose

 

C. toxicity

 

D. virulence factors

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

36. Typically, adhesins

A. are found on pili.

 

B. help bacteria attach to host cells.

 

C. are proteins.

 

D. are found on host cells.

 

E. are found on pili, help bacteria attach to host cells AND are proteins.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

37. The lack of susceptibility to diseases of other species in humans may be due to the

A. secretion of exotoxins.

 

B. presence of endotoxins.

 

C. action of IL-2.

 

D. lack of receptors that are recognized by adherence factors.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

38. An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be

A. production of a comet’s tail.

 

B. protease production.

 

C. inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.

 

D. changing the pilus type.

 

E. production of a comet’s tail AND protease production.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.10
Section: 16.07
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

39. Colonization of the body is inhibited by

A. the shedding of skin cells.

 

B. the movement of mucus by cilia.

 

C. peristalsis.

 

D. the flushing action of the urinary tract.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

40. The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed

A. exocytosis.

 

B. pinocytosis.

 

C. endocytosis.

 

D. phagosome fusion.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.10
Section: 16.07
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

41. Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed

A. carriers.

 

B. serum resistant.

 

C. balanced pathogens.

 

D. mutualistic.

 

E. carriers AND serum resistant.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.10
Section: 16.07
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

42. C5a peptidase

A. is a virulence factor.

 

B. synthesizes C5a.

 

C. is produced by the host cell in response to infection.

 

D. is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

 

E. is a virulence factor AND is a molecule promoting chemotaxis.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

43. Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by

A. preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome.

 

B. lysing the phagosome.

 

C. producing comet tails.

 

D. preventing fusion of two phagosomes.

 

E. preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.10
Section: 16.07
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

44. The chemical nature of endotoxins is that of a

A. protein.

 

B. nucleic acid.

 

C. lipid.

 

D. lipopolysaccharide.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.11
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

45. The chemical nature of exotoxins is that of a

A. protein.

 

B. carbohydrate.

 

C. lipid.

 

D. lipopolysaccharide.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.11
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

46. Which is true about superantigens?

A. They are a type of exotoxin.

 

B. They bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

 

C. They enhance specific antibody production.

 

D. They are processed intracellularly.

 

E. They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind to MHC class II antigen on T cells.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.12
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

47. Which is true about botox?

A. It is an endotoxin.

 

B. It is produced by S. aureus.

 

C. It may cause botulism.

 

D. It is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

 

E. It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.12
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

48. Which of the following is/are true about endotoxins?

A. Lipid A is the toxic portion of the molecule.

 

B. The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came.

 

C. The lipid A is immunogenic.

 

D. They are proteins.

 

E. The toxic effects depend on the bacteria from which it came AND they are proteins.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.11
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

49. Which is/are true of viruses?

A. They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein.

 

B. They may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein.

 

C. They may prevent cell suicide.

 

D. They may bind to MHC class II antigens.

 

E. They may suppress the production of MHC Class I protein, they may produce an MHC Class I mimic protein AND they may prevent cell suicide.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.15
Section: 16.09
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

50. Disease(s) in which the causative agent becomes latent is/are

A. cold sores.

 

B. genital herpes.

 

C. typhus.

 

D. shingles.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

51. The damage caused by parasites may be due to

A. competition for nutrients.

 

B. the physical blocking of organs.

 

C. the direct digestion of host tissue.

 

D. the host’s immune response.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.17
Section: 16.10
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

True / False Questions

52. The most successful parasites are the ones that live in harmony with their hosts.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.17
Section: 16.10
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

53. A human fetus has no resident microbial population.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.03
Section: 16.02
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

54. Infection always leads to disease.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

55. A disease is an infection that impairs the normal state of health.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Infection and Disease
 

 

56. Obligate intracellular parasites may be grown in special synthetic media.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.14
Section: 16.09
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

57. During incubation and convalescence a person may still spread infectious organisms.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.05
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

58. The infectious dose of most pathogens is about equal.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

59. A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

60. High concentrations of some bacteria are necessary for successful invasion because only at high density are their virulence genes expressed.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

61. Only Gram-positive bacteria produce exotoxins.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 16.11
Section: 16.08
Topic: Pathogenesis
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

62. The normal microbiota provides protection against potentially harmful organisms and stimulates the immune system.  Why would the immune responses to members of the normal microbiota cross-react with pathogens?

A. Because one person’s normal microbiota is another person’s pathogen-when we pick up ‘normal’ microbes from a different person, they will always cause infection within us.

 

B. Because pathogens are oftentimes more virulent strains of our own normal microbial flora, so they will ‘look’ roughly the same to our immune system (and be acted upon by our immune responses).

 

C. Because the normal flora keeps the adaptive immune responses tuned-up, active, and ready to respond to broad, general categories of microbes (i.e. Gram positive vs. Gram negative microbes, viruses, etc.).

 

D. Because the immune system is a ‘use it or lose it’ system.  If it isn’t used on a regular basis, we completely lose the ability to respond to pathogens.  The normal flora keeps the system going so that it can be ready to respond to such pathogens when we’re exposed to them.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.02
Section: 16.02
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

63. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason why diseases caused by opportunists are becoming more frequent in the US population?

A. HIV individuals (with impaired immune systems) survive longer due to more effective therapies-but this allows them a longer period of time to be infected by opportunists.

 

B. Individuals in the US are living longer than ever before-but they’re living with a number of chronic health issues that can impair the immune system.  This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections.

 

C. Cancer treatments have improved significantly in the last 30 years-but they often suppress the immune system.  This leads to a greater likelihood of opportunistic infections in such individuals.

 

D. Travel into and out of the United States has increased significantly.  This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause new infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.04
Section: 16.03
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

64. In two of Koch’s postulates (#2 and #3), a pure culture of the organism is required.  Which of the following would NOT be a possible consequence of using a contaminated culture?

A. You can’t necessarily attribute the illness directly to the microbe in question-it may in fact be caused by the contaminating microbe.

 

B. There’s the possibility that the test animal might be acutely susceptible to the contaminating microbe, but completely resistant to the microbe you suspect causes the illness of interest.  As such, when you introduce it into the test animal, it could confuse your final results.

 

C. The problem is that one microbe may be toxic to the other.  It may have killed all of your suspect microbe in the culture.  Therefore, you can’t be sure that you’re infecting your test animals with the microbe you suspect is causing the illness, or if it’s only the 2nd (contaminating) microbe.

 

D. Even though there’s a contaminating microbe present, so long as the original suspect microbe is also present, the disease should still manifest in test animals.  It should also still be recoverable from test animals following infection.  As such, there’s really no consequence to using a contaminated culture.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.06
Section: 16.04
Topic: Infection and Disease
 

 

65. Why is it a good strategy for a microbe to adhere to a receptor that plays a critical function for a host cell?

A. It ISN’T a good strategy-host cells could shift to a backup receptor and shut down production of the main receptor, preventing infection.

 

B. If it’s a receptor the cell MUST use, it doesn’t have a backup system in place to switch to-so, even though it makes it susceptible to infection, it HAS to put that target out there.  This benefits the microbe.

 

C. Microbes want to evade detection and elimination by the immune system-the closer they can adhere to host cells, the less likely they are to trigger destructive immune responses.  This would be similar to using a hostage as a shield in a police-standoff situation.

 

D. It ISN’T a good strategy-by binding to receptors, microbes will be phagocytosed by cells and destroyed within them.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.07
Section: 16.05
Topic: Infection and Disease
 

 

66. Home-canned foods should be boiled before consumption to prevent botulism.  Considering that this treatment does NOT destroy endospores, why would it be helpful in preventing the disease?

A. Because it would destroy the vegetative cells, and only the vegetative cells cause the disease.

 

B. Because it would at least weaken the endospores, making them more susceptible to elimination by our immune system.

 

C. Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it.  The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

 

D. Because the heat would denature the botulism endotoxin and inactivate it.  The endotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.12
Section: 16.08
Topic: Infection and Disease
 

 

67. A number of viruses often include a similar set of symptoms when they cause an infectious disease state (fever, headache, fatigue, runny nose).  Why would they all cause the same symptoms if they’re different viruses?

A. They all possess the same basic virulence genes and molecules, so they all trigger the same responses.

 

B. The symptoms are associated with the immune system’s response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves.  Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar.

 

C. Most viruses infect the upper respiratory tract-this leads to the common set of symptoms listed above.  Only a few viruses infect areas away from this region.

 

D. Viruses specifically infect mainly epithelial membranes.  As such, the virally-induced reaction is similar in different areas of the body due to the same basic cell types (epithelial cells) being infected in each area.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 16.13
Section: 16.08
Topic: Immunity and Immunization
 

 

 

Ch16 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 29
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 31
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 1
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 6
Learning Outcome: 16.01 8
Learning Outcome: 16.02 4
Learning Outcome: 16.03 5
Learning Outcome: 16.04 13
Learning Outcome: 16.05 6
Learning Outcome: 16.06 5
Learning Outcome: 16.07 10
Learning Outcome: 16.10 4
Learning Outcome: 16.11 4
Learning Outcome: 16.12 3
Learning Outcome: 16.13 1
Learning Outcome: 16.14 1
Learning Outcome: 16.15 1
Learning Outcome: 16.17 2
Section: 16.01 8
Section: 16.02 9
Section: 16.03 19
Section: 16.04 5
Section: 16.05 10
Section: 16.07 4
Section: 16.08 8
Section: 16.09 2
Section: 16.10 2
Topic: History of Microbiology 3
Topic: Immunity and Immunization 3
Topic: Infection and Disease 5
Topic: Pathogenesis 56

 

 

Ch30

 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An effective means used early in the 19th century to clear water of the majority of bacteria was the use of

A. chlorine.

 

B. iodine.

 

C. alcohol.

 

D. sand filters.

 

2. Vibrio cholera is most often associated with

A. breathing air.

 

B. eating food.

 

C. drinking water.

 

D. touching animals.

 

3. The term “potable water” refers to water that is

A. safe to swim in but not drink.

 

B. safe to drink.

 

C. only good for irrigation.

 

D. contaminated with chemicals.

 

4. A high BOD value means

A. a large amount of oxygen has been used.

 

B. a small amount of oxygen has been used.

 

C. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

D. a small number of viruses are present.

 

E. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

5. Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n)

A. lower BOD.

 

B. higher BOD.

 

C. unchanging BOD.

 

D. increase in sulfur.

 

6. In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

7. In sewage treatment, the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. advanced treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

8. Advanced treatment of sewage

A. is done to prevent nutrient enrichment.

 

B. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms.

 

C. involves the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

9. The activated sludge process

A. is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

 

B. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter.

 

C. is meant to increase the BOD.

 

D. removes large objects from the sewage.

 

E. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD.

 

10. The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s)

A. oxygen.

 

B. nitrogen.

 

C. carbon monoxide.

 

D. methane.

 

E. nitrogen AND carbon monoxide.

 

11. The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term

A. lagooning.

 

B. stabilization.

 

C. activation.

 

D. biochemical oxygen demand.

 

12. The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is

A. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter.

 

B. 500-800 grams per milliliter.

 

C. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

 

D. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

 

13. In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used?

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

14. Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment?

A. activated sludge

 

B. trickling filter

 

C. septic tank

 

D. lagooning

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

15. The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the

A. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants.

 

B. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

C. inhibitory effect it has on plant growth.

 

D. stimulatory effect it has on methane production.

 

E. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

16. Sludge

A. is a byproduct of sewage treatment.

 

B. may be a source of pollution.

 

C. takes up space in a landfill.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

17. Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of

A. biodegradable carbon.

 

B. ammonia and nitrate.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. pathogens.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

18. Water treatment processes for drinking water

A. are similar to wastewater treatment.

 

B. are only necessary when using recycled water.

 

C. includes disinfection but not filtration.

 

D. has no biological treatment phase.

 

19. Which of the following is used to cause flocculation?

A. charcoal

 

B. methane

 

C. chlorine

 

D. aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

 

20. The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of

A. Streptococci.

 

B. coliforms.

 

C. Staphylococci.

 

D. Streptomyces.

 

21. Coliforms are

A. Gram-negative.

 

B. rod-shaped.

 

C. non-spore forming.

 

D. lactose-fermenting with acid and gas formation.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

22. Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be

A. Clostridia.

 

B. Enterococci.

 

C. bacteriophages.

 

D. Bacteroides.

 

E. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages.

 

23. Which of the following statements about landfills is false?

A. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

 

B. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater.

 

C. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills.

 

D. Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate.

 

24. Which of the following cannot be used in composting?

A. grass clippings

 

B. nutrient-poor potting soil

 

C. meats and fats

 

D. vegetable peelings

 

25. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in

A. 1 day.

 

B. 1 month.

 

C. six weeks.

 

D. six months.

 

26. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about

A. 20-30ºC.

 

B. 55-66ºC.

 

C. 62-75ºC.

 

D. 90-100ºC.

 

27. Bioremediation

A. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants.

 

B. may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

 

C. has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.

 

D. produces xenobiotics.

 

E. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimuation or bioaugmentation.

 

28. Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by

A. providing sufficient moisture.

 

B. providing adequate nutrients.

 

C. maintaining pH near neutrality.

 

D. raising the temperature.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

29. Bioaugmentation

A. adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site.

 

B. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes.

 

C. usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

D. is typically done offsite.

 

E. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes AND usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

 

True / False Questions

30. The term “potable water” refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.

True    False

 

31. Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water.

True    False

 

32. High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.

True    False

 

33. The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.

True    False

 

34. The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes.

True    False

 

35. As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment.

True    False

 

36. Trickling filters may be used in place of activated sludge in secondary sewage treatment.

True    False

 

37. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC.

True    False

 

38. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.

True    False

 

39. Pseudomonas and Bacillus are able to reduce nitrates to nitrogen.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

40. Which would be more likely to cause illness-a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7?

A. Both would be equally capable of causing illness-all coliforms cause illness.

 

B. The coliform positive sample would be more likely to cause illness.  Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.

 

C. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness.  This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

 

D. Neither-there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water.

 

41. Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile?

A. The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile.

 

B. Without adding soil and water, no decomposition of the material can take place.  The material would simply sit there.

 

C. Water is the medium that photosynthetic organisms use to break down the organic materials in the compost pile.

 

D. Soil spreads out the material in the pile.  If the material is too close together, natural aeration cannot occur and decomposition stops.

 

42. Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill?

A. The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it.

 

B. The bacteria can’t be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground.  Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity.

 

C. The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater.  Underground, they lack this salt level.

 

D. It IS degraded underground-but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature.  This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water’s surface.

 

 

 

Ch30 Key
 

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An effective means used early in the 19th century to clear water of the majority of bacteria was the use of

A. chlorine.

 

B. iodine.

 

C. alcohol.

 

D. sand filters.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

2. Vibrio cholera is most often associated with

A. breathing air.

 

B. eating food.

 

C. drinking water.

 

D. touching animals.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

3. The term “potable water” refers to water that is

A. safe to swim in but not drink.

 

B. safe to drink.

 

C. only good for irrigation.

 

D. contaminated with chemicals.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

4. A high BOD value means

A. a large amount of oxygen has been used.

 

B. a small amount of oxygen has been used.

 

C. a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

D. a small number of viruses are present.

 

E. a large amount of oxygen has been used AND a large amount of degradable organic matter is present.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

5. Effective treatment of wastewater/sewage is reflected in a(n)

A. lower BOD.

 

B. higher BOD.

 

C. unchanging BOD.

 

D. increase in sulfur.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

6. In sewage treatment, the removal of large objects and particulate matter is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

7. In sewage treatment, the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds is achieved during

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. advanced treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

8. Advanced treatment of sewage

A. is done to prevent nutrient enrichment.

 

B. is done to prevent possible overproduction of algae and other organisms.

 

C. involves the removal of phosphates and nitrogen compounds.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

9. The activated sludge process

A. is used during secondary treatment of sewage.

 

B. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter.

 

C. is meant to increase the BOD.

 

D. removes large objects from the sewage.

 

E. is meant to convert inorganic to organic matter AND is meant to increase the BOD.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

10. The anaerobic organisms used in sewage treatment may produce the useful product(s)

A. oxygen.

 

B. nitrogen.

 

C. carbon monoxide.

 

D. methane.

 

E. nitrogen AND carbon monoxide.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

11. The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term

A. lagooning.

 

B. stabilization.

 

C. activation.

 

D. biochemical oxygen demand.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

12. The approximate BOD value for raw sewage is

A. 2000-7000 milligrams per milliliter.

 

B. 500-800 grams per milliliter.

 

C. 0-50 kilograms per milliliter.

 

D. 300-400 milligrams per liter.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

13. In which phase of sewage treatment are trickling filters sometimes used?

A. primary treatment.

 

B. secondary treatment.

 

C. tertiary treatment.

 

D. quaternary treatment.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

14. Which of the following play some role in sewage treatment?

A. activated sludge

 

B. trickling filter

 

C. septic tank

 

D. lagooning

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

15. The problem(s) with using sludge as a fertilizer is/are the

A. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants.

 

B. presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

C. inhibitory effect it has on plant growth.

 

D. stimulatory effect it has on methane production.

 

E. presence of heavy metals and similar pollutants AND presence of pathogenic organisms and viruses.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

16. Sludge

A. is a byproduct of sewage treatment.

 

B. may be a source of pollution.

 

C. takes up space in a landfill.

 

D. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

17. Wastewater treatment decreases the amount of

A. biodegradable carbon.

 

B. ammonia and nitrate.

 

C. phosphate.

 

D. pathogens.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

18. Water treatment processes for drinking water

A. are similar to wastewater treatment.

 

B. are only necessary when using recycled water.

 

C. includes disinfection but not filtration.

 

D. has no biological treatment phase.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.04
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

19. Which of the following is used to cause flocculation?

A. charcoal

 

B. methane

 

C. chlorine

 

D. aluminum potassium phosphate (alum)

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.04
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

20. The accepted method of testing water supplies for the possible presence of pathogens is to determine the presence of

A. Streptococci.

 

B. coliforms.

 

C. Staphylococci.

 

D. Streptomyces.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

21. Coliforms are

A. Gram-negative.

 

B. rod-shaped.

 

C. non-spore forming.

 

D. lactose-fermenting with acid and gas formation.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

22. Other microorganisms besides coliforms that have been used as indicators of fecal contamination may be

A. Clostridia.

 

B. Enterococci.

 

C. bacteriophages.

 

D. Bacteroides.

 

E. Clostridia, Enterococci AND bacteriophages.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

23. Which of the following statements about landfills is false?

A. Degradation of wastes is rapid and inexpensive.

 

B. The excavated site has a plastic liner to prevent wastes from leaching into groundwater.

 

C. Recycling greatly reduces the amount of wastes sent to landfills.

 

D. Dangerous levels of methane gas can accumulate.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

24. Which of the following cannot be used in composting?

A. grass clippings

 

B. nutrient-poor potting soil

 

C. meats and fats

 

D. vegetable peelings

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

25. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in

A. 1 day.

 

B. 1 month.

 

C. six weeks.

 

D. six months.

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

26. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about

A. 20-30ºC.

 

B. 55-66ºC.

 

C. 62-75ºC.

 

D. 90-100ºC.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

27. Bioremediation

A. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants.

 

B. may involve biostimulation or bioaugmentation.

 

C. has as its goal the elimination of pathogens.

 

D. produces xenobiotics.

 

E. is the use of biological agents to degrade/detoxify pollutants AND may involve biostimuation or bioaugmentation.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

28. Pollutant degradation may be enhanced by

A. providing sufficient moisture.

 

B. providing adequate nutrients.

 

C. maintaining pH near neutrality.

 

D. raising the temperature.

 

E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.07
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

29. Bioaugmentation

A. adds specific microorganisms to the polluted site.

 

B. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes.

 

C. usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

D. is typically done offsite.

 

E. only enhances the growth, onsite, of the resident population of microbes AND usually utilizes genetically engineered bacteria.

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

True / False Questions

30. The term “potable water” refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

31. Zero coliforms per 100 ml of water is considered safe for treated potable water.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

32. High BOD values reflect small amounts of degradable organic matter in a sample of wastewater or other material.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.01
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

33. The conversion of organic to inorganic matter is called co-metabolism.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

34. The activated sludge method can be stopped by the presence of toxic industrial wastes.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

35. As much as 95% of BOD can be removed during secondary treatment.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

36. Trickling filters may be used in place of activated sludge in secondary sewage treatment.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 30.02
Section: 30.01
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

37. The compost pile temperature at which pathogens, but not thermophiles, are killed is about 20-30ºC.

FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

38. If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

39. Pseudomonas and Bacillus are able to reduce nitrates to nitrogen.

TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

40. Which would be more likely to cause illness-a water sample that tested positive for coliforms or one that tested positive for E. coli O157:H7?

A. Both would be equally capable of causing illness-all coliforms cause illness.

 

B. The coliform positive sample would be more likely to cause illness.  Coliforms are inherently more pathogenic than the weak O157:H7 lab strain of E. coli.

 

C. The E. coli O157:H7 sample would be more likely to cause illness.  This strain of bacterium is highly pathogenic and capable of causing kidney damage.

 

D. Neither-there is usually a small amount of coliforms (including E. coli O157:H7) in all water.

 

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 30.05
Section: 30.02
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

41. Why would soil and water be added to a compost pile?

A. The organisms in the soil, along with the moisture from the water, would facilitate the natural decomposition of the material in the compost pile.

 

B. Without adding soil and water, no decomposition of the material can take place.  The material would simply sit there.

 

C. Water is the medium that photosynthetic organisms use to break down the organic materials in the compost pile.

 

D. Soil spreads out the material in the pile.  If the material is too close together, natural aeration cannot occur and decomposition stops.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 30.06
Section: 30.03
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

42. Why is oil not degraded when in a natural habitat underground, yet susceptible to bioremediation in an oil spill?

A. The high pressure the oil is subjected to underground prevents bacteria from growing and consuming it.

 

B. The bacteria can’t be given the right amounts or types of nutrients to foster an increase in their number deep underground.  Nearer the surface, human intervention can increase the factors that will raise the microbe quantity.

 

C. The bacteria that degrade the oil require a higher than normal salt content, much like what is found in seawater.  Underground, they lack this salt level.

 

D. It IS degraded underground-but it happens at a much slower rate because a portion of the cycle is photosynthetic in nature.  This process is dramatically increased nearer to the water’s surface.

 

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 30.08
Section: 30.04
Topic: Environmental Microbiology
 

 

 

Ch30 Summary

Category # of Questions
Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember 14
Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand 22
Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply 4
Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate 2
Learning Outcome: 30.01 9
Learning Outcome: 30.02 14
Learning Outcome: 30.04 2
Learning Outcome: 30.05 5
Learning Outcome: 30.06 7
Learning Outcome: 30.07 1
Learning Outcome: 30.08 4
Section: 30.01 23
Section: 30.02 7
Section: 30.03 9
Section: 30.04 3
Topic: Environmental Microbiology 42

 

 

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