Medical Emergencies In the Dental Office 6th Edition by Stanley F. Malamed – Test Bank

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Medical Emergencies In the Dental Office 6th Edition by Stanley F. Malamed – Test Bank

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 2: Prevention

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Dyspnea is:
a. difficulty swallowing
b. an abnormal heart rhythm
c. labored breathing at rest
d. an electrolyte imbalance

 

 

  1. Dental treatment should be postponed for _______ following a myocardial infarction.
a. 2 weeks
b. 1 month
c. 6 weeks
d. 6 months

 

 

  1. When a patient reports a history of scarlet fever:
a. premedication prior to dental treatment involving bleeding is invariably required
b. cardiovascular sequelae such as valvular damage is a common outcome
c. it was produced by group A α-hemolytic streptococci
d. without negative permanent sequelae they are considered an ASA I risk if all other history factors are negative

 

 

  1. According to the author, when a patient reports having a heart pacemaker:
a. they never require premedication
b. they always require premedication
c. the dentist should consult with the patient’s primary care physician
d. the dentist should consult with the patient’s cardiologist or cardiothoracic surgeon

 

 

  1. The term “brain attack” is used by the lay press to mean a/an:

 

a. epileptic seizure
b. stroke
c. diabetic coma
d. episode of orthostatic hypotension

 

 

  1. A dentist should use caution when prescribing ________________ .
  2. epinephrine to hyperthyroid patients
  3. epinephrine to hypothyroid patients
  4. CNS depressants to hyperthyroid patients
  5. CNS depressants to hypothyroid patients
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

 

 

  1. Patients who are HIV positive are considered ASA __ risks depending on the progress of the infection.
a. II, III, IV, or V
b. III, IV or V
c. IV or V
d. V

 

 

  1. A patient who reports orthopnea on the medical history probably suffers from:
a. hypothyroidism
b. anorexia
c. congestive heart failure
d. asthma

 

 

  1. A blood pressure cuff placed too tightly will result in an erroneous _____________ blood pressure reading.
a. depressed diastolic
b. elevated diastolic
c. depressed systolic
d. elevated systolic

 

 

  1. Pulsations of a mercury column or the needle on an aneroid manometer are observed approximately _________ the initial Korotkoff sounds are heard.
a. 10 to 15 mm Hg before
b. 10 to 15 mm Hg after
c. 30 to 35 mm Hg before
d. 30 to 35 mm Hg after

 

 

  1. An asymptomatic hypothyroid patient is ASA category:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV

 

 

  1. An adult with blood pressure of 130/65 mm Hg is ASA category:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

 

 

  1. An adult with blood pressure of 205/97 mm Hg is ASA category:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

 

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 4: Medicolegal Considerations

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following dental scenarios would most likely lead to the largest legal judgment?
a. temporary paresthesia
b. broken needle
c. permanent cosmetic injury
d. brain damage from improperly administered CPR during cardiac arrest

 

 

  1. Plantiffs’ attorneys are usually hired on a ______________ basis, while defense attorneys are hired on a ___________ basis.
a. contingency fee; hourly
b. contingency fee; contingency fee
c. hourly; contingency fee
d. hourly; hourly

 

 

  1. The dentist must file an answer to a complaint or summons within _____ or risk a default judgment.
a. 24 hours
b. 7 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 30 days

 

 

  1. After the dentist’s attorney has filed an answer to a complaint, a process known as __________ begins.
a. a trial
b. discovery
c. a deposition
d. a tort

 

 

  1. The Latin phrase res ipsa loquitur means:
a. the captain of the ship
b. the thing speaks for itself
c. relating to criminal law
d. relating to civil law

 

 

  1. According to the text:
a. negligence is doing something that an ordinary prudent dentist would not do under the same or similar circumstances
b. negligence and malpractice are not to be used synonymously in lawsuits against health care providers
c. negligence is not doing something that a reasonably prudent dentist would do under the same or similar circumstances
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. Dentists should require that patients update their medical history forms:
a. every 3 months
b. every 6 months
c. annually
d. only at the time of their initial appointment

 

 

  1. The more thorough a dentist is in warning patients about possible risks, the more prepared that dentist should be to prevent or treat those risks.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true of Good Samaritan statutes?
a. A national standard has been adopted, meaning Good Samaritan standards are uniform for all states
b. A patient who suffers a medical emergency in a dental office falls under protection of the Good Samaritan statute
c. A nonpatient of the dentist, who happens to be in the waiting room and requires an emergency response, may fall under protection of the Good Samaritan statute
d. Good Samaritan statutes are considered obsolete

 

 

  1. Proactive measures for legal protection include:
a. practicing within the standard of reasonableness
b. maintaining continuing dental education
c. documenting office procedures and patient charts
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 6: Vasodepressor Syncope

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following is the most commonly observed emergency situation in dentistry?
a. cardiac arrest
b. mild (non–life-threatening) allergy
c. angina pectoris
d. seizures
e. vasodepressor syncope

 

 

  1. Which of the following groups of people are most likely to experience vasodepressor syncope?
a. young women (18 to 35)
b. young men (18 to 35)
c. elderly women (over 70)
d. elderly men (over 70)

 

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be encountered as a cause of unconsciousness in a 24-year-old male patient?
a. adrenocorticosteroid deficiency
b. lack of oxygen
c. hyperglycemia
d. cerebrovascular accident
e. cardiac arrest

 

 

  1. “Healthy children do not faint.”  They hide their fears.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

 

 

 

  1. Prodromal manifestations of vasodepressor syncope include:
a. a cool feeling in the neck and face
b. erythema or flush color
c. significantly increased heart rate
d. significantly increased blood pressure

 

 

  1. ___________ is associated with early presyncope and _________ is associated with late presyncope.
a. Tachycardia; tachycardia
b. Bradycardia; bradycardia
c. Tachycardia; bradycardia
d. Bradycardia; tachycardia

 

 

  1. What is the immediate precipitating cause of loss of consciousness in vasodepressor syncope?
a. increased CO2 level in blood
b. decrease in the rate of respiration
c. rapid rise in blood pressure
d. hyperventilation
e. bradycardia

 

 

  1. The first step in the management of a patient who “collapses” at the sight of a dental needle is:
a. administer oxygen via a face mask
b. position the patient supine with feet elevated
c. administer aromatic ammonia
d. place patient in Trendelenburg position
e. administer oxygen via nasal hood

 

 

  1. In the unconscious patient who fails to regain consciousness rapidly after proper positioning, which of the following is strongly recommended?
a. activation of EMS
b. administration of IV dextrose
c. administration of nitroglycerin
d. administration of “sugar” via the appropriate route
e. administration of diazepam

 

 

  1. After recovering from a period of syncope, the victim should:
a. complete the dental treatment planned for that day
b. not undergo additional dental treatment the rest of that day
c. drive himself or herself to a physician
d. drive himself or herself home

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 8: Acute Adrenal Insufficiency

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Cortisol is secreted by the:
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. cortex of the adrenal gland
d. medulla of the adrenal gland

 

 

  1. Hyposecretion of cortisol is associated with:
a. an elevation in blood pressure
b. increased fat deposition in certain areas (truncal obesity and buffalo hump)
c. Addison’s disease
d. Cushing’s syndrome

 

 

  1. ______________________ is/are the usual cause(s) of death with acute adrenal insufficiency.
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Peristalsis
c. Peripheral vascular collapse and ventricular asystole
d. Respiratory depression

 

 

  1. The adrenal cortices of normal adults secrete about ___ mg of cortisol daily.
a. 0.1
b. 2.0
c. 10
d. 20

 

 

  1. Clinical manifestations of adrenal insufficiency include:

 

a. weight gain
b. hypertension
c. hyperpigmentation
d. hypokalemia

 

 

  1. In the dental setting, an acute episode of adrenal insufficiency will be marked most notably by:
a. bradycardia
b. severe mental confusion
c. hypocalcemia
d. hypokalemia

 

 

  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone is released by the:
a. anterior portion of the pituitary gland
b. posterior portion of the pituitary gland
c. cortex of the adrenal gland
d. medulla of the adrenal gland

 

 

  1. A patient with acute adrenal insufficiency usually exhibits:
a. hypotension and tachycardia
b. hypertension and tachycardia
c. hypotension and bradycardia
d. hypertension and bradycardia

 

 

  1. Definitive care for a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency will include administration of:
a. epinephrine
b. a source of “sugar”
c. glucocorticosteroid
d. a vasopressor

 

 

  1. Which of the following will most likely lead to a noticeable improvement of the patient with acute adrenal insufficiency?
a. aromatic spirits of ammonia
b. administration of glucocorticoid
c. oxygen
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 10: Respiratory Distress: General Considerations

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Bronchospasm is associated with:
a. hyperventilation
b. hypoventilation
c. asthma
d. pulmonary edema

 

 

  1. The primary cause of airway obstruction is:
a. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchioles
b. the tongue falling into the hypopharynx as skeletal muscle tone is lost
c. rebound nasal swelling
d. muscular  hypertrophy

 

 

  1. Apnea is defined as:
a. a subjective sense of shortness of breath
b. absence of respiratory movement
c. greater than normal per-minute ventilation
d. inability to breathe except in the upright position

 

 

  1. Normal PaCO2 is _______ torr.
a. 15 to 30
b. 35 to 45
c. 50 to 75
d. 75 to 100

 

 

  1. A torr is a unit of:
a. tension equal to 1 mm Hg

 

b. tension equal to 10 mm Hg
c. pressure equal to 1 mm Hg
d. pressure equal to 10 mm Hg

 

 

  1. Bronchioles are the primary site of:
a. asthma
b. congestive heart failure
c. hyperventilation
d. acute lower-airway obstruction

 

 

  1. The rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation results in elimination of an excessive amount of ___________, leading to the development of respiratory _________.
a. oxygen; acidosis
b. oxygen; alkalosis
c. carbon dioxide; acidosis
d. carbon dioxide; alkalosis

 

 

  1. If a foreign object becomes impacted in the ________, total airway obstruction ensues, a life-threatening situation.
a. right main-stem bronchus
b. left main-stem bronchus
c. trachea
d. larynx

 

 

  1. Immediate management of a conscious patient who experiences respiratory difficulty includes:
a. administration of oxygen-enriched air
b. administration of 100% oxygen
c. placement in the most comfortable position
d. placement in the supine position with feet horizontal
e. placement in the supine position with feet elevated slightly

 

 

  1. Immediate management of an unconscious patient includes:
a. placement on the floor of the treatment room
b. administration of oxygen-enriched air
c. administration of 100% oxygen
d. placement in the supine position

 

 

  1. The patient’s vital signs of blood pressure, pulse, and respiratory rate should be measured every:
a. 1 minute
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 20: Altered Consciousness: Differential Diagnosis

 

           MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. _______________ most often occurs between the ages of 20 and 40.
a. Hyperventilation
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Cerebrovascular disease
d. Drug overdose

 

 

  1. In pediatric patients, the most likely cause of altered consciousness is:
a. hyperventilation due to anxiety
b. hyperglycemia due to excess ingestion of “sugar”
c. hypoglycemia secondary to type 1 diabetes mellitus
d. drug overdose from over-the-counter medication

 

 

  1. Which of the following conditions associated with altered consciousness occurs predominately in females?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperventilation
c. Hyperglycemia
d. CVA

 

 

  1. Which of the following causes of altered consciousness are accompanied by a gradual onset of clinical manifestations?
a. hypoglycemia
b. hyperglycemia
c. hyperthyroidism
d. A and B
e. B and C

 

 

 

  1. The skin of the hyperglycemic diabetic patient is __________ to the touch.
a. cold and wet
b. cold and dry
c. hot and wet
d. hot and dry

 

 

  1. Agitation, perspiration, and possible fine tremor of the extremities (hands) give the appearance of nervousness and are apparent in patients who are:
a. hyperglycemic
b. hypothyroid
c. hyperventilating
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. Tingling, a “cool” sensation about the mouth, finger-tips, and toes, that may progress to carpopedal tetany are noted in which of the following?
a. bronchospasm
b. allergy to Lidocaine
c. local anesthetic overdose
d. hyperventilation
e. acute pulmonary edema

 

 

  1. A TIA may be differentiated from a CVA because:
a. a TIA exhibits unilateral paresthesia, while a CVA exhibits bilateral paresthesia
b. a TIA exhibits bilateral paresthesia, while a CVA exhibits unilateral paresthesia
c. signs and symptoms of TIA commonly subside with 10 minutes, while a CVA continues to progress
d. signs and symptoms of CVA commonly subside with 10 minutes, while a TIA continues to progress

 

 

  1. ______________ is most commonly associated with signs of mental confusion and bizarre behavioral patterns that may lead to a suspicion of alcohol or other drug use.
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hypoglycemia

 

 

  1. Severely ________________ patients may have the characteristic fruity, sweet smell of acetone on their breath.
a. hypoglycemic
b. hyperglycemic
c. hypothyroid
d. hyperthyroid

 

 

  1. The respiratory rate increases when ______________ is present.
a. hyperventilation
b. hyperthyroidism
c. hyperglycemia
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. Elevated blood pressure is associated with:
a. hyperthyroidism
b. hyperglycemia
c. hyperventilation
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

Malamed: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 6th Edition

 

Test Bank

 

Chapter 30: Cardiac Arrest and Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

 

           TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Effective chest compressions can be applied with the victim lying in the dental chair.

 

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Of the victims of cardiac arrest, __% do not exhibit clinical signs or symptoms before the onset of sudden death.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75

 

 

  1. The ultimate goal of emergency cardiac care is:
a. restoring normal sinoatrial rhythm
b. providing cerebral resuscitation
c. preventing ventricular fibrillation
d. preventing atrial fibrillation

 

 

  1. Which of the following is the proper sequence of the “chain of survival”?
a. early BLS à early access à early defibrillation à early ACLS
b. early ACLS à early access à early BLS à early defibrillation
c. early BLS à early defibrillation à early access à early ACLS
d. early defibrillation à early BLS à early ACLS à early access
e. early access à early BLS à early defibrillation à early ACLS

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true concerning early access and CPR?
a. EMS should be notified after 1 minute of BLS in children

 

b. EMS should be notified before the start of BLS in children
c. EMS should be notified before the start of BLS in adults
d. A and C
e. B and C

 

 

  1. An AED:
a. may be used for rapid defibrillation
b. will cause premature ventricular contractions if used to shock a patient who has a normal pulse
c. must be used exclusively by an allopathic or osteopathic physician
d. will relieve an anginal attack

 

 

  1. BLS consists of:
a. airway management
b. artificial ventilation
c. external chest compression
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. Concerning pulmonary and cardiac arrest:
a. cardiac arrest may develop in the absence of respiratory arrest
b. in most instances, respiratory arrest precedes cardiac arrest
c. respiratory arrest may develop in the absence of cardiac arrest
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. Cardiac arrest may result from:
a. pulseless electrical activity
b. ventricular tachycardia
c. ventricular fibrillation
d. A, B, and C
e. A and C

 

 

  1. If cardiac arrest has existed for __ minutes or more, it is unlikely that the victim’s CNS will be restored to its precardiac arrest state.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 10
d. 20

 

 

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