Learning And Memory From Brain To Behavior 2nd Edition by Mark A. Gluc -Test Bank

$25.00

Category:

Description

INSTANT DOWNLOAD WITH ANSWERS

Learning And Memory From Brain To Behavior 2nd Edition by Mark A. Gluc -Test Bank

Chapter 2 Essay Questions

1. Label the four lobes of the cerebral cortex in the figure.

 

 

2. List two brain structures that are especially important for learning and memory. Briefly describe the involvement of each one.

 

 

3. Describe one piece of evidence that shows learning in invertebrates.

 

 

4. Label the parts of the neuron in the figure.

 

 

5. What was one of the problems with phrenology?

 

 

6. What is the difference between structural neuroimaging and functional neuroimaging?

 

 

7. Give an example of a reflex that humans have.

 

 

8. Describe the sensory and motor processes involved in crossing a busy street, including the areas of the brain that are involved.

 

 

9. Describe the process of transmitting messages from one neuron to the next.

 

 

10. Explain why experimental brain lesions in animals allow for greater precision than is typically possible in humans.

 

 

11. Explain what Karl Lashley meant by the engram. How did he attempt to find it? Was he successful? What did his findings teach us about learning in the brain?

 

 

12. Describe the process of single-cell recording. When would a researcher want to use this technique?

 

 

13. Describe the two techniques that can be used to stimulate neural activity.

 

 

14. Suppose one’s roommate wants to take Ritalin (an attention-boosting drug) to help in remembering information for an upcoming exam. What should one tell the person?

 

 

15. Describe the procedures used to elicit long-term potentiation in a neuron.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1.  
2. Grading criteria: There are four structures described in the chapter:

1. Thalamus—receives sensory input from the PNS

2. Basal ganglia—is important for learning skills (movement)

3. Hippocampus—is critical for learning new information and remembering autobiographical information

4. Amygdala—adds emotional content to memories

3. Grading criteria: There are two examples described in the chapter:

1. Octopus—finds its way through a maze, learns to open a jar for a food reward, learns to grab the correct ball by watching another octopus (social learning)

2. Nematodes—learn to approach or avoid tastes/odors

4.  
5. Grading criteria: The main problem is that phrenology assumes that the shape of the skull reflects the shape of the brain, which is not true. Other acceptable answers: Gall studied only the skulls, not the actual brains, of living people; it was misused by quacks trying to make money; it was used to justify mistreatment of criminals and others deemed inferior to the ruling class.
6. Grading criteria: Structural neuroimaging allows one to see the anatomical areas but not their activity; functional neuroimaging allows one to look at the activity of brain areas.
7. Grading criteria: There are numerous possible examples, including eyeblink, knee-jerk, newborns’ sucking, diving reflex, palmar grasp reflex, among others. Answer must not be a learned response (e.g., salivating when driving past one’s favorite restaurant, which is learned, not reflexive).
8. Grading criteria: Some of the key components are as follows: watch for cars; visual input passes from eyes, through thalamus, to visual cortex; frontal cortex helps determine movements such as stepping down off the curb, how quickly to move legs; this information is sent to M1; M1 sends messages down to the brainstem, which connects to the spinal cord, and so the messages travel down spinal cord to muscles; one walks across the street.
9. Grading criteria: Include basic details: presynaptic cell, release of neurotransmitter (and that it is a chemical), postsynaptic receptors bind to neurotransmitter, postsynaptic cell integrates the message and decides to fire if the signal is strong enough. (Ideally, explain that this is all-or-nothing.)
10. Grading criteria: Explain that human brain lesions are usually due to accident/illness and vary from person to person, and can involve many brain areas; in animals, can disable specific single brain regions. Note that a general explanation of why animal research is justified would not be sufficient to answer this question.
11. Grading criteria: The engram is the supposed physical change in the brain that forms the basis of a memory. Lashley tried to find the engram by lesioning different areas of rats’ brains and examining the effect on them of learning to run a maze. He was not successful—no one area appeared to be crucial for remembering the maze. His results revealed that memories are not completely localized in the brain.
12. Grading criteria: Single-cell recording involves implanting a microelectrode into a single neuron and transmitting the signal to speakers that “hear” the response; a stimuli is presented or the animal subject performs a task as changes in the response of the neuron are measured. Researchers would use this technique in order to find out what individual neurons’ roles are in a behavior, which is more precise than determining entire brain areas involved.
13. Grading criteria:

1. Electrical stimulation of individual neurons—use electrodes to deliver electrical stimulation, causing a response in the neuron

2. Transcranial magnetic stimulation—stimulate entire brain areas in humans with a strong magnetic pulse

14. Grading criteria: Attention can improve memory in general; however, no good evidence exists at this time that any attention-boosting drugs improve memory in normal healthy people.
15. Grading criteria: Include the main steps: Stimulate cell A, record from cell B; stimulate A with a burst of high-frequency stimulation; later, stimulate A again with weak stimulation, see that B responds more strongly than it did before.

Chapter 2 The Neuroscience

1. Four people failed a difficult exam and are trying to forget about the experience. Which person will be MOST successful?
  A) Manny, who has been staying awake for the past three nights
  B) Jacob, who keeps thinking about how important this test was
  C) Joan, who has taken up meditation
  D) Bree, who enjoys listening to music, watching TV, and talking to her friends all at once

 

 

2. Early learning and memory researchers focused on behavior, rather than brain function, because:
  A) they did not think the brain was involved in learning and memory.
  B) they were not interested in how the brain was involved in learning and memory.
  C) technology wasn’t yet available for studying the complexities of the brain.
  D) none of them knew how to study physiology.

 

 

3. The nervous system is:
  A) mainly involved in cooling the blood.
  B) considered the seat of learning and memory.
  C) a relatively simple anatomical system.
  D) devoted to the distribution and processing of information.

 

 

4. The central nervous system is made up of:
  A) nerves and muscles.
  B) sensory organs.
  C) sensory and motor neurons.
  D) the brain and the spinal cord.

 

 

5. If a friend pats one on the back, the neurons that carry the information from the touch receptors on one’s back to one’s brain are part of the:
  A) central nervous system.
  B) peripheral nervous system.
  C) left hemisphere.
  D) right hemisphere.

 

 

6. When one reaches to catch a basketball, the neurons that carry the message from one’s brain to the muscles in one’s arms and hands are part of the:
  A) central nervous system.
  B) peripheral nervous system.
  C) left hemisphere.
  D) right hemisphere.

 

 

7. In vertebrates, the nervous system is divided into the:
  A) brain and neurons.
  B) parietal lobe and occipital lobe.
  C) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
  D) cerebellum and brainstem.

 

 

8. The LARGEST structure of the human brain is the:
  A) cerebral cortex.
  B) frontal lobe.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) temporal lobe.

 

 

9. The structure that sits at the base of the brain is known as the:
  A) cerebral cortex.
  B) parietal lobe.
  C) brainstem.
  D) frontal lobe.

 

 

10. If one falls and injures the back of one’s head, which effect would MOST likely be experienced?
  A) difficulty understanding speech
  B) difficulty seeing a friend’s face
  C) difficulty remembering names
  D) difficulty feeling the difference between silk and sandpaper

 

 

11. The part of cerebral cortex that is important for processing visual elements is the:
  A) occipital lobe.
  B) parietal lobe.
  C) brainstem.
  D) frontal lobe.

 

 

12. While sitting at the theater, Jonathan feels something crawling up his leg. He is able to realize it before he gets stung. Which part of the cerebral cortex is responsible for this realization?
  A) the temporal lobe
  B) the parietal lobe
  C) the brainstem
  D) the frontal lobe

 

 

13. Mary is having trouble hearing her friends when they speak to her. Which part of her brain might be damaged?
  A) the frontal lobe
  B) the parietal lobe
  C) the temporal lobe
  D) the occipital lobe

 

 

14. Which brain structure is involved in helping one learn the coordinated movements necessary for learning to ride a bike?
  A) the temporal lobe
  B) the brainstem
  C) the thalamus
  D) the cerebellum

 

 

15. Which part of the brain helps regulate autonomic functions such as breathing?
  A) the cerebellum
  B) the brainstem
  C) the hippocampus
  D) the temporal lobe

 

 

16. Which brain structure receives sensory information from the peripheral nervous system and relays this information to other parts of the brain?
  A) the thalamus
  B) the basal ganglia
  C) the amygdala
  D) the hippocampus

 

 

17. Which brain structure is especially important for remembering one’s eighth birthday party?
  A) the thalamus
  B) the basal ganglia
  C) the amygdala
  D) the hippocampus

 

 

18. Remembering what information would be MOST likely to involve the amygdala?
  A) the details of one’s first date
  B) how one felt when graduating from high school
  C) how to perform an intricate sequence of gymnastic moves
  D) the definition of new terms in a psychology class

 

 

19. What is the study of similarities and differences between organisms’ brains?
  A) conditioning
  B) comparative neuroanatomy
  C) neuropsychology
  D) cognitive development

 

 

20. Which statement is TRUE?
  A) Animals must have both a central and peripheral nervous system in order to be able to learn.
  B) Animals with larger brains have higher intelligence than animals with smaller brains.
  C) Only vertebrates have both a central and a peripheral nervous system.
  D) The cerebral cortex takes up about the same percentage of total brain volume in humans as it does in other vertebrates.

 

 

21. The ability of worms and jellyfish to learn is notable because they each have:
  A) a CNS but not a PNS.
  B) no recognizable brain.
  C) no neurons.
  D) very large brainstems.

 

 

22. Studying invertebrate nervous systems is useful because invertebrates:
  A) have more simple nervous systems than vertebrates do.
  B) have clearly defined central and peripheral nervous systems.
  C) are incapable of learning, making it easier to study their other behaviors.
  D) do not have any neurons in their nervous systems.

 

 

23. What is the usual function of dendrites?
  A) receiving signals from other neurons
  B) transmitting information to other neurons
  C) transferring oxygen from the blood to neurons
  D) wrapping neurons in myelin

 

 

24. Which part(s) of a neuron transmit(s) information to other neurons?
  A) dendrites
  B) the cell body
  C) the axon
  D) glia

 

 

25. Which statement is TRUE?
  A) There are more neurons than glia in the brain.
  B) Neurons are all the same shape and size.
  C) Some neurons have no axons.
  D) Glia are not necessary for normal brain functioning.

 

 

26. What is the other name for the cell body?
  A) synapse
  B) soma
  C) axon
  D) dendrite

 

 

27. Which cells provide functional and structural support to neurons?
  A) pyramidal cells
  B) stellate cells
  C) interneurons
  D) glia

 

 

28. Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which _____; this interferes with neural function, leading to jerky muscle movements and impaired coordination, as well as problems with vision and speech.
  A) glia aren’t necessary for function
  B) interneurons are not able to connect two or more neurons
  C) the myelin coating of axons degenerates
  D) dendrites are unable to receive signals

 

 

29. The study of the relationship between the size and shape of different parts of people’s skulls and their personalities and abilities is called:
  A) equipotentiality.
  B) comparative brain anatomy.
  C) phrenology.
  D) neuropsychology.

 

 

30. Phrenology was a systematic study of the brain that was pursued by:
  A) Galen.
  B) Aristotle.
  C) Paul Broca.
  D) Franz Joseph Gall.

 

 

31. Imagine a parent who has two children. The first child has a very large forehead, and the second child’s head is very large at the back. According to the system of phrenology, the first child would excel at _____ and the second would excel at _____.
  A) planning and performing actions; remembering
  B) remembering; seeing the world
  C) seeing the world; planning and performing actions
  D) planning and performing actions; seeing the world

 

 

32. Which neuroimaging technique uses changes in magnetic fields to generate images of internal brain structure?
  A) single-cell recording
  B) lesions
  C) computed tomography (CT)
  D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

 

 

33. Which brain imaging method is especially useful for studying the connections between brain regions?
  A) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
  B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  C) computed tomography (CT)
  D) positron emission tomography (PET)

 

 

34. Which imaging method is particularly useful for physicians trying to assess brain injury, as well as diseases such as multiple sclerosis that specifically target axons?
  A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  B) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
  C) computed tomography (CT)
  D) positron emission tomography (PET)

 

 

35. A doctor is concerned that Martha has dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
  A) positron emission tomography (PET)
  B) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
  C) computed tomography (CT) scan
  D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

 

 

36. If one puts a hand on a hot stove, one will automatically pull it away before realizing what has been done. This is an example of a(n) _____ behavior.
  A) reflexive
  B) voluntary
  C) learned
  D) intentional

 

 

37. Which statement is an example of a reflexive behavior?
  A) Pavlov’s dog salivating in response to a sound that has predicted food
  B) a dog that has learned to sit to obtain a treat
  C) a newborn sucking when encountering a nipple
  D) a rat pressing a bar to obtain a drink of water

 

 

38. According to the Bell-Magendie law of neural specialization:
  A) reflexes are caused by spirits flowing from the brain into the muscles.
  B) the brain plays a major role in reflexes like the “knee-jerk” response to a doctor’s rubber mallet.
  C) the spinal cord has one nerve system for sensing and another nerve system for responding.
  D) spinal reflexes can be combined into complex sequences of movements that are the basis of all behavior.

 

 

39. The Bell-Magendie law:
  A) applies to the brainstem but not to the spinal cord.
  B) proposes one nerve system for sensing and another for responding.
  C) applies to the central nervous system but not to the peripheral nervous system.
  D) proposes that the brain is divided into two hemispheres.

 

 

40. What would occur if the sensory fibers in one’s arm were cut?
  A) One would still automatically jerk one’s hand away from a hot stove.
  B) One would have a limited range of motion in one’s arm.
  C) One would not be able to move one’s arm at all.
  D) One would not be able to feel a sharp poke on one’s arm.

 

 

41. Many basic reflexes:
  A) do not require the brain’s involvement.
  B) use only the sensory neurons.
  C) involve the pumping of spirits or fluids into the muscles.
  D) end with input to the sensory neurons.

 

 

42. Incoming sensory information is passed from the thalamus to the:
  A) spinal cord.
  B) muscles.
  C) primary motor cortex.
  D) primary sensory cortices.

 

 

43. Most sensory information enters the brain through the:
  A) thalamus.
  B) occipital lobe.
  C) primary motor cortex.
  D) primary sensory cortices.

 

 

44. The primary sensory cortices:
  A) process the outputs that control movements.
  B) are responsible for processing the more complex characteristics of stimuli.
  C) are specialized for processing particular sensory stimuli.
  D) send most of their output to the peripheral nervous system.

 

 

45. When one opens a door, which part of the brain is responsible for sending signals to the arm muscles, causing one to open the door?
  A) V1 (visual cortex)
  B) the frontal cortex
  C) M1 (motor cortex)
  D) the basal ganglia and the cerebellum

 

 

46. The primary motor cortex is located in the _____ lobe.
  A) frontal
  B) parietal
  C) occipital
  D) temporal

 

 

47. The motor cortex (M1) sends its output signals to the:
  A) frontal lobes.
  B) basal ganglia.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) brainstem.

 

 

48. Which part of the brain is involved in the high-level planning of the movements involved in picking up and using a pencil?
  A) the frontal lobes
  B) the basal ganglia
  C) the cerebellum
  D) the brainstem

 

 

49. Which parts of the brain help translate the high-level plans into concrete sets of movements?
  A) the frontal lobes and the temporal lobe
  B) the basal ganglia and the cerebellum
  C) the cerebral cortex and the brainstem
  D) the primary motor cortex and the primary somatosensory cortex

 

 

50. If a pot of water is hotter than expected, it could produce a withdrawal response of the hand. This response was studied by Charles Sherrington and is known as a(n):
  A) peripheral response.
  B) autonomic response.
  C) reflex arc.
  D) neural response.

 

 

51. What is the name of the narrow gap across which neurons pass chemical messages to each other?
  A) the axon
  B) the dendrite
  C) the synapse
  D) the cell body

 

 

52. Most synapses are between the:
  A) axons of the presynaptic and the postsynaptic neurons.
  B) dendrites of the presynaptic and the postsynaptic neurons.
  C) axon of the presynaptic neuron and the dendrite of the postsynaptic neuron.
  D) dendrite of the presynaptic neuron and the axon of the postsynaptic neuron.

 

 

53. Neurotransmitters are:
  A) chemical substances that carry messages between neurons.
  B) the part of a neuron that receives signals from other neurons.
  C) types of neurons that connect other neurons together.
  D) types of neurons that have pyramid-shaped cell bodies.

 

 

54. Molecules on the surface of the postsynaptic cell that bind with and respond to neurotransmitters are called:
  A) synapses.
  B) receptors.
  C) neuromodulators.
  D) glia.

 

 

55. Most neurons can produce and release _____ neurotransmitter(s) and can receive _____ neurotransmitter(s).
  A) many different; many different
  B) only one; only one
  C) only one; many different
  D) many different; only one

 

 

56. After a neuron fires, there is a brief period during which it is unable to fire again. What is this period called?
  A) refractory
  B) inactivation
  C) postsynaptic
  D) reuptake

 

 

57. Inactivation and reuptake are mechanisms for:
  A) inhibiting neurons from responding.
  B) removing dead neurons from the brain.
  C) increasing the amount of neurotransmitter that is released.
  D) clearing neurotransmitters from the synapse.

 

 

58. Neurotransmitters that affect activity in entire brain areas, rather than just at a single synapse, are called:
  A) neuromodulators.
  B) refractory transmitters.
  C) glia.
  D) reuptake transmitters.

 

 

59. The basic idea behind functional neuroimaging is that:
  A) researchers can learn about brain structures by removing them and observing any changes in behavior.
  B) brain structures change color when they are active.
  C) structures that are more active use more oxygen.
  D) structures that are more active use less oxygen.

 

 

60. In functional neuroimaging, a difference image is used for determining:
  A) how long it takes a person to complete a memory task.
  B) what percentage of the brain is being used at any given moment.
  C) how much neural activity has changed relative to a baseline.
  D) how much neural activity occurs while a person is relaxed.

 

 

61. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI):
  A) directly measures neural activity.
  B) usually picks up more areas of brain activation than does positron emission tomography (PET).
  C) requires injecting radioactive materials into the participant’s bloodstream.
  D) is faster than positron emission tomography (PET).

 

 

62. Which neuroimaging technique uses electrodes to record electrical activity emitted from a person’s scalp?
  A) positron emission tomography (PET)
  B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  C) electroencephalography (EEG)
  D) computed tomography (CT)

 

 

63. If a researcher uses an EEG to measure the brain’s response to a visual stimulus, neurons other than those that respond to visual stimuli will also be active. How do researchers determine which neurons are responding only to the visual stimulus?
  A) They present the visual stimulus at a very high intensity.
  B) They measure the activity of just one neuron at a time.
  C) They make sure to present only a visual stimulus and nothing else.
  D) They take the average of several EEGs.

 

 

64. An event-related potential (ERP) is:
  A) the average of many EEGs across repetitions of an event.
  B) a measure of the amount oxygen being used by brain structures.
  C) a measure of the activity of a single neuron.
  D) the electrical activity emitted from the scalp, recorded on a single trial.

 

 

65. In comparison to the fMRI and the PET, the EEG technique:
  A) is less expensive.
  B) gives less precise information about rapid changes in the brain.
  C) has better spatial precision.
  D) is better at measuring metabolic activity in the brain.

 

 

66. What technique can be used to measure the firing pattern of a single neuron?
  A) positron emission tomography (PET)
  B) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
  C) electroencephalography (EEG)
  D) single-cell recording

 

 

67. Single-cell recordings:
  A) are very uncomfortable for animals when electrodes are implanted into their brains.
  B) have been used to demonstrate cells that are “tuned” to particular body movements.
  C) are taken from the surface of an animal’s brain.
  D) are used to determine the activity in large regions of the brain.

 

 

68. Which field involves the study of patients with specific types of brain damage in order to learn about the relation between brain function and behavior?
  A) neurophysiology
  B) functional neuroimaging
  C) neuropsychology
  D) synaptic plasticity

 

 

69. What is an engram?
  A) a measure of the amount of electrical activity on a person’s scalp
  B) a change in synaptic transmission as a result of recent activity
  C) a physical change in the brain that forms the basis of a memory
  D) a map that shows which part of the body each region of M1 controls

 

 

70. Suppose researchers train a pigeon to peck at a blue disc to obtain food. They then lesion a very small part of its brain and find that the pigeon has forgotten that it needs to peck the blue disc for food. Such a finding would be evidence for:
  A) the theory of equipotentiality.
  B) the Bell-Magendie law of neural specialization.
  C) synaptic plasticity.
  D) the engram.

 

 

71. The idea that memories are stored across the brain as a whole is called the:
  A) engram theory.
  B) theory of equipotentiality.
  C) localization theory.
  D) phrenology theory.

 

 

72. One of the reasons Karl Lashley was unable to find evidence for the engram was that:
  A) he used too simple a task for assessing memory.
  B) he limited his lesions to the cerebral cortex.
  C) he was unable to lesion rat brains due to ethical constraints.
  D) the memories of rats are too different from the memories of humans.

 

 

73. Which statement about the homunculus is FALSE?
  A) It represents the activity of neurons in the hippocampus.
  B) It means “little man.”
  C) It is somewhat different for each individual.
  D) It exaggerates the parts of the body that have more fine motor control.

 

 

74. The technique in which researchers activate parts of the brain by placing a magnet on the skull is called:
  A) single-cell recording.
  B) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS).
  C) functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).
  D) electroencephalography (EEG).

 

 

75. The illusion of feeling that a novel experience has happened before is called:
  A) hebbian learning.
  B) synaptic plasticity.
  C) memory.
  D) déjà vu.

 

 

76. Classically conditioning animals by using one electrode to generate neural firing patterns that would occur during the sensation of a sound and pairing that with stimulation from a second electrode that provokes a reflexive motor response is known as what kind of training?
  A) classical
  B) transcranial magnetic stimulation
  C) virtual reality
  D) operant

 

 

77. _____ are chemical substances that alter the biochemical functioning of the body.
  A) Glutamates
  B) Drugs
  C) GABAs
  D) Acetylcholines

 

 

78. Which mechanism is NOT one by which drugs alter synaptic transmission?
  A) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  B) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to receive neurotransmitter
  C) decreasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  D) altering the mechanisms for clearing neurotransmitter from the synapse

 

 

79. Drugs are able to change the:
  A) behavior of the presynaptic neuron.
  B) behavior of the postsynaptic neuron.
  C) rate at which neurotransmitters are cleared from the synapse.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

80. Which statement is FALSE?
  A) The influence of drugs on learning and memory is usually a side effect.
  B) A given drug usually affects just one neurotransmitter system.
  C) Drugs can alter the ability of postsynaptic receptors to receive neurotransmitters.
  D) Drugs affect the brain by altering synaptic transmission.

 

 

81. Laci is trying to teach her toddler to use his manners. She gives him a cookie whenever he remembers to say “please.” Which neurotransmitter regulates the toddler’s use of manners to obtain the cookie?
  A) glutamate
  B) dopamine
  C) GABA
  D) acetylcholine

 

 

82. What is synaptic plasticity?
  A) the ability of synapses to change as a result of experience
  B) the finding that neurons are not rigid but can bend to connect with nearby neurons
  C) the ability of neurons to absorb a stain of silver chromate
  D) the finding that drugs can impact the release of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron

 

 

83. Which drugs have been shown to clearly improve memory in healthy individuals?
  A) drugs that increase levels of acetylcholine in Alzheimer’s patients
  B) drugs that improve attention
  C) drugs that treat sleep disorders
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

84. The idea that “neurons that fire together, wire together” was proposed by:
  A) Santiago Ramón y Cajal.
  B) Camillo Golgi.
  C) Donald Hebb.
  D) Ivan Pavlov.

 

 

85. Long-term potentiation is when:
  A) neurons continue to respond long after a stimulus has been removed.
  B) a recent strong stimulus causes a neuron to over-respond to a subsequent stimulus.
  C) neurons respond in the absence of a stimulus.
  D) a strong stimulus leads to a weaker-than-normal response in a neuron.

 

 

86. Long-term potentiation has been shown to occur:
  A) in the hippocampus, but not in other brain areas.
  B) only when the presynaptic neuron is stimulated.
  C) in all brain areas, except for the hippocampus.
  D) when the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are active at the same time.

 

 

87. Which statement has NOT been proposed as a mechanism of LTP?
  A) Postsynaptic receptors become more responsive to inputs.
  B) Presynaptic neurons are changed by a retrograde messenger.
  C) New synapses are built.
  D) Postsynaptic neurons release more neurotransmitters.

 

 

88. Long-term potentiation:
  A) was first observed in the thalamus.
  B) occurs when the postsynaptic neuron is stimulated with a high-frequency burst.
  C) can last for hours or even longer.
  D) involves a weakening in synaptic transmission following recent activity.

 

 

89. When synaptic transmission becomes less effective as a result of recent activity, it is known as:
  A) long-term potentiation.
  B) inhibition.
  C) retrograde potentiation.
  D) long-term depression.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. D
31. D
32. D
33. A
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. D
43. A
44. C
45. C
46. A
47. D
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. C
52. C
53. A
54. B
55. C
56. A
57. D
58. A
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. C
63. D
64. A
65. A
66. D
67. B
68. C
69. C
70. D
71. B
72. B
73. A
74. B
75. D
76. C
77. B
78. B
79. D
80. B
81. B
82. A
83. D
84. C
85. B
86. D
87. D
88. C
89. D

 

Chapter 2 Web Quiz Questions

1. If one stubs one’s toe, the painful sensation is carried to the brain by neurons in the:
  A) occipital lobe.
  B) frontal lobe.
  C) central nervous system.
  D) peripheral nervous system.

 

 

2. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for processing things that one hears?
  A) frontal
  B) temporal
  C) occipital
  D) parietal

 

 

3. Comparative neuroanatomy refers to the examination of the similarities and differences among the:
  A) brains of people of different ages.
  B) cerebral hemispheres.
  C) different lobes of the cerebral cortex.
  D) brains of different organisms.

 

 

4. The ability of worms and jellyfish to learn is notable because they each have:
  A) a CNS but not a PNS.
  B) no recognizable brain.
  C) no neurons.
  D) very large brainstems.

 

 

5. Which part(s) of a neuron send(s) signals to other neurons?
  A) dendrites
  B) the cell body
  C) the axon
  D) glia

 

 

6. Phrenology involves:
  A) scanning the brains of living humans using a magnetic field.
  B) associating deficits in mental abilities with damage to specific brain regions.
  C) associating bumps on the skull with abilities and personality traits.
  D) examining which parts of the brain are damaged after a head injury.

 

 

7. A doctor is concerned that Martha has a dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
  A) phrenology
  B) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
  C) computed tomography (CT) scan
  D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

 

 

8. Which behavior is reflexive?
  A) a dog salivating in response to food
  B) a student studying hard after receiving a poor grade
  C) a pigeon pecking at a light to obtain food
  D) a child saying “please” in order to get a cookie

 

 

9. The Bell-Magendie law:
  A) applies to the brainstem but not to the spinal cord.
  B) proposes one nerve system for sensing and another for responding.
  C) applies to the central nervous system but not to the peripheral nervous system.
  D) proposes that the brain is divided into two hemispheres.

 

 

10. When one recognizes a friend at a party, which brain area is the first to receive the information from one’s visual receptors?
  A) the primary visual cortex (V1)
  B) the primary sensory cortex
  C) the thalamus
  D) the frontal cortex

 

 

11. Suppose researchers train a pigeon to peck at a blue disc to obtain food. They then lesion a very small part of its brain and find that the pigeon has forgotten that it needs to peck the blue disc for food. Such a finding would be evidence for:
  A) the theory of equipotentiality.
  B) the Bell-Magendie law of neural specialization.
  C) synaptic plasticity.
  D) the engram.

 

 

12. In neuroimaging studies, researchers use a(n) _____ to determine how activity at each point in the image has changed relative to a baseline.
  A) engram
  B) event-related potential
  C) lesion
  D) difference image

 

 

13. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI):
  A) directly measures neural activity.
  B) usually picks up more areas of brain activation than does positron emission tomography (PET).
  C) requires injecting radioactive materials into the participant’s bloodstream.
  D) is faster than positron emission tomography (PET).

 

 

14. Which mechanism is NOT one by which drugs alter synaptic transmission?
  A) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  B) increasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to receive neurotransmitter
  C) decreasing the ability of the presynaptic neuron to produce neurotransmitter
  D) altering the mechanisms for clearing neurotransmitter from the synapse

 

 

15. Long-term potentiation:
  A) was first observed in the thalamus.
  B) occurs when the postsynaptic neuron is stimulated with a high-frequency burst.
  C) can last for hours or even longer.
  D) involves a weakening in synaptic transmission following recent activity.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. D
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. C

 

 

Chapter 4 Classical Conditioning

1. Classical conditioning involves learning:
  A) that a particular behavior leads to a reward.
  B) about a stimulus by being repeatedly exposed to it.
  C) that one stimulus predicts an important event.
  D) by observing another person perform a behavior.

 

 

2. Which statement demonstrates classical conditioning?
  A) A child reads more books because her parents praised her for reading.
  B) A toddler copies the behavior of his older brother.
  C) A dog learns that the sound of the treat container being opened indicates a treat for him.
  D) A man gets used to the sound of traffic and eventually learns to sleep through it.

 

 

3. Every day when Jessica returns home from work, her daughter gives her a big hug as soon as she walks through the front door. Now, the sight of the front door makes Jessica feel happy. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is:
  A) the front door.
  B) a big hug.
  C) Jessica’s daughter.
  D) Jessica.

 

 

4. Something that naturally elicits a reflexive response is called a(n):
  A) conditioned stimulus.
  B) unconditioned stimulus.
  C) conditioned response.
  D) unconditioned response.

 

 

5. The unconditioned response occurs:
  A) in response to a neutral stimulus.
  B) after repeated pairings of the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli.
  C) with training or conditioning.
  D) without any training or conditioning.

 

 

6. Jeff’s dog salivates when he goes to the cupboard to get a dog biscuit. What is the unconditioned stimulus?
  A) the cupboard
  B) Jeff
  C) the dog biscuit
  D) salivation

 

 

7. Lightning is usually followed by thunder. Eventually, one can be startled just by the lightning alone. What is the unconditioned response?
  A) being startled by thunder
  B) being startled by lightning
  C) being scared of thunder
  D) being scared of lightning

 

 

8. If someone blows a puff of air into one’s eyes, the person automatically blinks. In this example, the puff of air is a(n):
  A) unconditioned stimulus.
  B) unconditioned response.
  C) conditioned stimulus.
  D) conditioned response.

 

 

9. The conditioned stimulus elicits the:
  A) conditioned stimulus.
  B) conditioned response.
  C) unconditioned stimulus.
  D) unconditioned response.

 

 

10. Suppose a child grows up hearing his parents making derogatory comments about African Americans, and eventually the child comes to have negative feelings about African Americans. What is the conditioned stimulus?
  A) the derogatory comments
  B) the negative feelings
  C) the African Americans
  D) the parents

 

 

11. Suppose a child in the hospital gets injections from the nurses, and the child eventually learns to cry as soon as a nurse walks into her room. What is the conditioned response?
  A) crying when getting a shot
  B) crying when the nurse comes in
  C) fear of the nurse
  D) fear of the shot

 

 

12. Frank once ate an orange and shortly afterwards he got the flu. Although the orange did not cause Frank to become ill, he no longer likes to eat oranges. What is the conditioned stimulus?
  A) feeling ill from the flu
  B) feeling ill from the orange
  C) the virus that caused the flu
  D) oranges

 

 

13. Dionne competes on her high school’s track team. She always feels naturally nervous right before a race. She also noticed that, on days when she is not racing, just seeing the track still made her feel nervous. Her nervousness at seeing the track on non-race days is a(n):
  A) unconditioned stimulus.
  B) unconditioned response.
  C) conditioned stimulus.
  D) conditioned response.

 

 

14. Which is an example of appetitive conditioning?
  A) flies being shocked in the presence of a particular odor
  B) rats freezing in response to a tone that predicts a shock
  C) Pavlov’s conditioning of salivation in dogs
  D) eyeblink conditioning

 

 

15. When the US is an unpleasant event such as shock, the conditioning is called _____ conditioning.
  A) aversive
  B) appetitive
  C) delay
  D) trace

 

 

16. The Conditioned Emotional Response was a technique developed to study:
  A) emotional response.
  B) learned fear.
  C) sound response.
  D) influence of surroundings.

 

 

17. Studies of _____ have been enormously important for understanding the biology.
  A) Drosophila (fruit flies)
  B) ornithology (birds)
  C) ctenocephalides (fleas)
  D) apiology (bees)

 

 

18. The _____ prepares the organism for the expected _____.
  A) unconditioned response; conditioned stimulus
  B) conditioned response; unconditioned stimulus
  C) unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response
  D) conditioned response; conditioned stimulus

 

 

19. When the eyeblink reflex is conditioned using a tone, the conditioned response is:
  A) blinking in response to a puff of air.
  B) blinking in response to the tone.
  C) the puff of air.
  D) the tone.

 

 

20. When the eyeblink reflex is conditioned using a tone, the puff of air is the:
  A) conditioned stimulus.
  B) conditioned response.
  C) unconditioned stimulus.
  D) unconditioned response.

 

 

21. The eyeblink CR seems to:
  A) gradually increase in strength over several trials.
  B) gradually decrease in strength over several trials.
  C) start out strong on the first trial and remain strong.
  D) remain about the same strength across trials.

 

 

22. With repeated administration of a drug, an organism will require larger and larger doses of the drug in order to achieve the same effect. This is known as:
  A) homeostasis.
  B) blocking.
  C) extinction.
  D) tolerance.

 

 

23. The conditioned compensatory response occurs in response to the _____ in order to prepare the organism for the _____.
  A) CS; CR
  B) US; UR
  C) CS; UR
  D) US; CR

 

 

24. When a conditioned compensatory response occurs, the:
  A) CR is the opposite of the UR.
  B) CR is the same as the UR.
  C) US is the same as the CS.
  D) US is the same as the CR.

 

 

25. According to the phenomenon of conditioned compensatory response, drug addicts develop a tolerance to their drug because:
  A) the drug elicits a UR that becomes weaker over time.
  B) environmental cues elicit URs that enhance the effect of the drug.
  C) the drug elicits a CR that enhances the effect of the drug.
  D) environmental cues elicit CRs that counteract the effect of the drug.

 

 

26. The tendency of the body to gravitate toward a state of equilibrium or balance is known as:
  A) association.
  B) compensatory response.
  C) tolerance.
  D) homeostasis.

 

 

27. When a previously acquired association is diminished through repeated presentation of the CS in the absence of the US, it is known as:
  A) aversive conditioning.
  B) appetitive conditioning.
  C) extinction.
  D) homeostasis.

 

 

28. In order to get Pavlov’s dog to experience extinction, one would:
  A) give the dog a little extra food on each trial.
  B) play the tone more loudly on each trial.
  C) present the food repeatedly without playing the tone.
  D) play the tone repeatedly without any food.

 

 

29. While driving to work one day, Jennifer heard her favorite song on the radio. Soon after the song started playing, she was rear-ended by another car. Now, her favorite song causes her to feel nervous and tense. If she wishes to use extinction to stop these unpleasant feelings from occurring when her favorite song comes on, she should:
  A) play the song in a safe and pleasant environment such as her room.
  B) listen to music other than her favorite song whenever she drives.
  C) play her favorite song whenever she drives anywhere without getting in an accident.
  D) try to get in an accident while a different song is playing on the radio.

 

 

30. The spontaneous recovery of a CR suggests that:
  A) the body tends to gravitate toward a state of equilibrium.
  B) any stimulus can be a CS.
  C) any stimulus can be a US.
  D) the CR is not gone after extinction.

 

 

31. The simultaneous conditioning of two cues, usually presented at the same time, is referred to as _____ conditioning.
  A) classical
  B) compound
  C) aversive
  D) appetitive

 

 

32. When a more salient cue within a compound acquires more of the share of the attention and learning than the less salient cue, it is known as:
  A) compound conditioning
  B) classical conditioning.
  C) overshadowing.
  D) aversive conditioning.

 

 

33. If one pairs a tone with a shock, a rat can learn that the tone predicts the shock. If one then pairs a tone and light with a shock, the person finds that the rat gives a:
  A) CR only to the tone.
  B) CR only to the light.
  C) UR only to the tone.
  D) CR to the tone and light together.

 

 

34. The phenomenon of blocking demonstrates that:
  A) a compound CS cannot be learned.
  B) a compound US cannot be learned.
  C) the US must provide nonredundant information.
  D) the CS must provide nonredundant information.

 

 

35. Suppose one conditions a dog to salivate in response to a tone (by pairing the tone with food). Then, the person presents both the tone and a light together, followed by the food. The dog will:
  A) salivate only in response to the tone.
  B) salivate only in response to the light.
  C) salivate in response to both the tone and light.
  D) not salivate to the tone or the light.

 

 

36. Suppose one conditions a rabbit to give an eyeblink response to a tone. If one then presents both a tone and a light together followed by a puff of air to the eyes, the rabbit will not blink in response to the light. This demonstrates:
  A) homeostasis.
  B) extinction.
  C) spontaneous recovery.
  D) blocking.

 

 

37. Suppose a rat has been conditioned by presenting a loud buzzing sound followed by shock. According to the Rescorla-Wagner model, if one then presents several trials of the buzzing sound alone, without any shock, the association between the buzzing sound and the shock will:
  A) stay the same.
  B) increase.
  C) decrease.
  D) increase and then decrease.

 

 

38. The difference between whether an animal expects the US and whether the US actually occurs is known as:
  A) homeostasis.
  B) a prediction error.
  C) an error-correction rule.
  D) latent inhibition.

 

 

39. In the Rescorla-Wagner model, if a novel CS is followed by an unexpected US, the prediction error is:
  A) positive.
  B) negative.
  C) zero.
  D) either positive or negative.

 

 

40. Which statement is suggested by the Rescorla-Wagner model?
  A) When the CS predicts the US and the expected US occurs, the association between the CS and the US is increased.
  B) When the CS predicts nothing and an unexpected US occurs, no learning occurs.
  C) When the CS predicts the US and the expected US does not occur, no learning occurs.
  D) When the CS predicts the US and the expected US does not occur, the association between the CS and the US is decreased.

 

 

41. In the Rescorla-Wagner model, the expectation of the US is described by the:
  A) association weight for the CS–US association at the end of training.
  B) association weight for the CS–US association at the start of training.
  C) sum of the association weights of all the cues in a trial.
  D) difference of the association weights of all the cues in a trial.

 

 

42. According to the Rescorla-Wagner model, blocking occurs because:
  A) both conditioned stimuli perfectly predict the unconditioned stimulus.
  B) neither CS perfectly predicts the unconditioned stimulus.
  C) the CS that is trained in the first phase does not provide any new or predictive information.
  D) the CS that is added in the second phase does not provide any new or predictive information.

 

 

43. Which statement is TRUE about the Rescorla-Wagner model?
  A) It is considered the most influential formal model of learning.
  B) It explains only a small handful of experimental findings.
  C) It explains existing findings but does not make any predictions.
  D) Its complexity is a primary reason for its attractiveness.

 

 

44. Which statement is considered to be TRUE about a successful model?
  A) The predictions made by the model should be able to be tested and provide new data.
  B) It should be applicable to every possible situation.
  C) It should illustrate data that has already been presented before.
  D) All of the statements are true.

 

 

45. In Bower and Trabasso’s study of blocking in humans, students were trained to categorize geometric figures based on shape. Blocking was demonstrated when the students could:
  A) not use a redundant cue to classify a new figure.
  B) not learn to categorize the figures based on shape.
  C) use a redundant cue to classify a new figure.
  D) learn to categorize the figures based on shape.

 

 

46. When Gluck and Bower applied their neural network model of learning to study how humans learn to form categories, they treated:
  A) the input nodes as CSs and the output nodes as USs.
  B) the input nodes as USs and the output nodes as CSs.
  C) both the input and output nodes as CSs.
  D) both the input and output nodes as USs.

 

 

47. For humans performing a category-learning task, Gluck and Bower’s neural network model can:
  A) account for people’s ability to actively focus attention on one feature.
  B) account for people’s ability to shift their attention to different features.
  C) predict how the timing of presentation of the CS and the US will affect learning.
  D) predict how often a particular categorization will be made.

 

 

48. If a US occurs just as often without the tone as it does in the presence of the tone, then little or no conditioning will accrue to the tone. This would suggest that animals are sensitive to _____ of the potential CS and the US.
  A) causality
  B) contingency
  C) cue–outcome
  D) frequency

 

 

49. A reduction in learning about a CS to which there has been prior exposure without any US is called:
  A) blocking.
  B) prediction error.
  C) extinction.
  D) latent inhibition.

 

 

50. In a latent-inhibition paradigm, the animals in the experimental group:
  A) sit in the chamber quietly.
  B) are pre-exposed to the CS.
  C) are pre-exposed to the US.
  D) are pre-exposed to a compound CS.

 

 

51. According to the idea of latent inhibition, pre-exposing a rat to a light by itself will make it:
  A) easier for the rat to learn to associate the light with food.
  B) easier for the rat to learn to associate the light with a tone.
  C) harder for the rat to learn to associate the light with food.
  D) harder for the rat to learn to associate a tone with food.

 

 

52. Latent inhibition is problematic for the Rescorla-Wagner model because the model predicts that there will be:
  A) learning in the pre-exposure phase (phase 1).
  B) learning in the training phase (phase 2).
  C) no learning in the pre-exposure phase (phase 1).
  D) no learning in the training phase (phase 2).

 

 

53. The Rescorla-Wagner model is a(n) _____ theory of learning.
  A) US modulation
  B) CS modulation
  C) attentional
  D) latent

 

 

54. Consider a blocking experiment in which an animal is first conditioned to associate a light with shock and then is presented with a tone and light together followed by shock. According to CS modulation theories such as that of Mackintosh, blocking would occur because the:
  A) tone is ignored.
  B) light is ignored.
  C) shock is surprising.
  D) shock is predictable.

 

 

55. According to CS modulation theories such as that of Mackintosh, latent inhibition occurs because the:
  A) CS is ignored because it doesn’t predict anything reliably.
  B) US is ignored because it doesn’t predict anything reliably.
  C) CS also includes the context.
  D) CS does not include the context.

 

 

56. Regarding CS modulation theories versus US modulation theories, it seems to be that _____ is/are correct.
  A) CS modulation theories
  B) US modulation theories
  C) both theories
  D) neither theory

 

 

57. A theory of learning in which all of the cues that occur during a trial and all of the changes that result is considered a single event is known as:
  A) interstimulus interval.
  B) trial-level model.
  C) delay conditioning.
  D) trace conditioning.

 

 

58. In delay conditioning, the:
  A) CS begins before the US and stays on until the US has occurred.
  B) US begins before the CS and stays on until the CS has occurred.
  C) CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.
  D) US begins before the CS and ends before the onset of the CS.

 

 

59. In trace conditioning, the:
  A) CS begins before the US and stays on until the US has occurred.
  B) US begins before the CS and stays on until the CS has occurred.
  C) CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.
  D) US begins before the CS and ends before the onset of the CS.

 

 

60. The temporal gap between the onset of CS and the onset of the US is known as:
  A) trial-level model
  B) delay conditioning.
  C) trace conditioning.
  D) interstimulus interval.

 

 

61. In Garcia and Koelling’s taste-aversion studies, it was found that rats in:
  A) the poison group were more likely to associate a taste with their illness than a tone with their illness.
  B) the poison group were more likely to associate a tone with their illness than a taste with their illness.
  C) the shock group were more likely to fear a taste than a tone.
  D) both groups feared tastes more than tones.

 

 

62. The results of Garcia and Koelling’s taste-aversion studies demonstrate that animals can:
  A) not learn to associate tones with feeling sick.
  B) learn most associations equally easily.
  C) not learn to associate food with shock.
  D) learn some associations more readily than others.

 

 

63. Which does NOT require the cerebellum in a classical conditioning experiment?
  A) the unconditioned stimulus
  B) the conditioned stimulus
  C) the unconditioned response
  D) the conditioned response

 

 

64. In mammals, the two sites where information about the CS–US association can be stored in the cerebellum are the _____ and the _____.
  A) pontine nuclei; interpositus nucleus
  B) pontine nuclei; inferior olive
  C) Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex; inferior olive
  D) Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex; interpositus nucleus

 

 

65. The _____ has/have different subregions for each kind of sensory stimulation.
  A) cerebellar cortex
  B) interpositus nucleus
  C) inferior olive
  D) pontine nuclei

 

 

66. A nucleus of cells with connections to the thalamus, cerebellum, and spinal cord is the:
  A) complex of parallel fibers.
  B) Purkinje cell.
  C) inferior olive.
  D) granule cell.

 

 

67. The final exit point of CR information from the cerebellum is/are the:
  A) Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex.
  B) interpositus nucleus.
  C) inferior olive.
  D) motor cortex.

 

 

68. If an air-puff US is delivered to an untrained rabbit, what happens in the cerebellum?
  A) There is no activity in the interpositus nucleus and no UR to the air puff.
  B) There is no activity in the interpositus nucleus, but there is a UR to the air puff.
  C) There is activity in the interpositus nucleus, and there is a UR to the air puff.
  D) There is activity in the interpositus nucleus, but there is no UR to the air puff.

 

 

69. After a rabbit has been trained with eyeblink conditioning, _____ is observed when the CS is presented.
  A) decreased neural activity in Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex
  B) increased neural activity in Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex
  C) decreased neural activity in the interpositus nucleus
  D) no change in neural activity in the interpositus nucleus

 

 

70. A conditioned eyeblink response can be produced by stimulating:
  A) the inferior olive as the CS.
  B) the inferior olive as the US.
  C) the pontine nuclei as the CS.
  D) both the inferior olive and the pontine nuclei as the CS.

 

 

71. When a conditioned eyeblink response is learned using brain stimulation, the CR is:
  A) learned more quickly than when an air puff is used.
  B) learned more slowly than when an air puff is used.
  C) learned at the same rate as when an air puff is used.
  D) not able to be learned at all.

 

 

72. Removing the _____ abolishes conditioned responses.
  A) pontine nuclei
  B) cerebellar cortex
  C) interpositus nucleus
  D) inferior olive

 

 

73. Lesion studies suggest that the interpositus nucleus is involved in _____, while the cerebellar cortex is involved in _____.
  A) response timing; formation and execution of the CR
  B) formation and execution of the CR; response timing
  C) computing the degree to which the US is unexpected; formation and execution of the CR
  D) response timing; computing the degree to which the US is unexpected

 

 

74. Patients with damage to the cerebellum:
  A) have trouble learning tasks involving verbal associations.
  B) are slower in learning a CR.
  C) produce CRs that are relatively normal in terms of frequency and timing.
  D) suffer from memory loss.

 

 

75. Which factor has been implicated in implementing the Rescorla-Wagner error-correction mechanism?
  A) Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex
  B) inhibitory connections between the interpositus nucleus and the Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex
  C) pontine nuclei in the brain stem
  D) inhibitory connections between the interpositus nucleus and the inferior olive

 

 

76. Which statement has been viewed as evidence of an error-correction mechanism in the brain?
  A) The hippocampus is highly active during conditioning.
  B) Activity in the inferior olive is high at the start of training and diminishes with successive trials.
  C) Blocking occurs when the connection from the inferior olive to the interpositus nucleus is disabled.
  D) People with cerebellar damage have difficulty learning a CR.

 

 

77. Which result suggests that the hippocampus is critical for CS modulation effects?
  A) Hippocampal lesions eliminate latent inhibition in rabbit eyeblink conditioning.
  B) The hippocampus is not necessary for acquiring basic conditioned responses.
  C) The hippocampus is highly active during conditioning.
  D) The hippocampus is not necessary for eyeblink conditioning to occur.

 

 

78. Which statement is TRUE regarding the Rescorla-Wagner model?
  A) It provides a good account of learning in the hippocampus but not in the cerebellum.
  B) It provides a good account of learning in the cerebellum but not in the hippocampus.
  C) It provides a good account of learning in the cerebellum and in the hippocampus.
  D) It does not provide a good account of learning in either the cerebellum or in the hippocampus.

 

 

79. In what way is classical conditioning different from sensitization in Aplysia?
  A) Sensitization is specific to touching the siphon, while classical conditioning generalizes to stimulation of other areas.
  B) Sensitization is due to changes in the number of synapses, whereas classical conditioning is due to changes within the cells.
  C) The siphon-withdrawal response is larger following classical conditioning than it is after sensitization training.
  D) Sensitization involves an increase in glutamate release, whereas classical conditioning involves a decrease in glutamate release.

 

 

80. Classical conditioning in Aplysia occurs when the:
  A) CS precedes the US by about 4 seconds.
  B) US precedes the CS by about 4 seconds.
  C) CS precedes the US by about one-half second.
  D) US precedes the CS by about one-half second.

 

 

81. Classical conditioning in Aplysia appears to involve:
  A) short-term changes in the number of synapses and long-term intracellular changes.
  B) long-term changes in the number of synapses and short-term intracellular changes.
  C) short-term changes both in the number of synapses and within the cells.
  D) long-term changes both in the number of synapses and within the cells.

 

 

82. If the CREB-1 gene is inactivated:
  A) no associative learning occurs.
  B) associative learning is enhanced.
  C) long-lasting associative learning is normal.
  D) short-lasting associative learning is normal.

 

 

83. Anatomical changes in neural circuits (such as growth or loss of synapses) seem to be responsible for _____ forms of memory; intracellular changes (such as an increase or decrease in neurotransmitter vesicles) seem to be responsible for _____ forms of memory.
  A) long-term; short-term
  B) short-term; long-term
  C) short-term; short-term
  D) long-term; long-term

 

 

84. A regular drug user can have an elevated reaction to his usual drug if he takes that drug in a new environment. In this example, the familiar environment in which the drug is normally taken is a:
  A) CS.
  B) US.
  C) CR.
  D) UR.

 

 

85. Drug users sometimes experience an elevated reaction to their drug when they take it in a new environment because the:
  A) UR is not present to counteract the CR.
  B) CR is not present to counteract the UR.
  C) UR has become stronger through repeated exposure.
  D) UR has become weaker through repeated exposure.

 

 

86. In Siegel et al.’s study of heroin tolerance in rats, which group experienced the LOWEST mortality rate when given a large dose of heroin?
  A) the group that had not previously been exposed to heroin
  B) the group that received the large dose in the same environment as the group that had received smaller doses
  C) the group that received the large dose in a different environment from where the group had received smaller doses
  D) All groups had about the same mortality rate.

 

 

87. When researchers gave animals an injection of an inert placebo to pre-expose them to the contextual cues associated with drug use, they found that the animals:
  A) formed an association between the context and drug use more quickly than normal.
  B) formed an association between the context and drug use more slowly than normal.
  C) formed an association between the context and drug use more at the normal rate.
  D) did not form an association between the context and drug use.

 

 

88. When a drug addict is in the environment where she usually takes her drugs, she will typically feel a craving for the drugs. This craving is a:
  A) CS.
  B) US.
  C) CR.
  D) UR.

 

 

89. To use extinction to prevent relapses in a recovering drug addict, one would:
  A) reward the addict for every day he stays off drugs.
  B) keep the addict in a rehabilitation center for as long as possible.
  C) keep the addict away from the places where he normally takes drugs.
  D) put the addict in his normal drug-taking environment without the drugs present.

 

 

90. Bouton’s work suggests that cue–exposure therapy should:
  A) be conducted in a single location.
  B) be spread out over time.
  C) be done in a new, unfamiliar setting.
  D) not include any actual drugs.

 

 

91. It has been suggested that drug addicts should use small amounts of their drug during therapy to extinguish their habit. This is because:
  A) the addict will experience less withdrawal.
  B) drug use is part of the context.
  C) drug use has become a US.
  D) the addict will experience fewer cravings.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. C
15. A
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. A
25. D
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. D
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. D
41. C
42. D
43. A
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. B
49. D
50. B
51. C
52. C
53. A
54. A
55. A
56. C
57. B
58. A
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. D
63. C
64. D
65. D
66. C
67. B
68. B
69. A
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. B
74. B
75. D
76. B
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. C
81. B
82. D
83. A
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. B
88. C
89. D
90. B
91. B

 

 

Chapter 4 Essay Questions

1. Suppose a parent loves jazz music. Describe how she could use classical conditioning principles to increase the likelihood that her child will also like jazz music. Be sure to identify the CS, US, CR, and UR in the description.

 

 

2. Some pet owners use a “clicker” device to train their pets. For example, if a cat owner wants her cat to stay off the bed, she might make a “click” sound with a clicker whenever the cat gets on the bed, and follow it shortly by a squirt of water to the cat. In this example, identify the CS, US, CR, and UR.

 

 

3. What is a conditioned compensatory response? Explain what purpose it serves.

 

 

4. Describe an experimental procedure one could use to study blocking in humans (other than the category-learning procedure discussed in the text). Be sure to indicate what outcome would signal that blocking had occurred.

 

 

5. Explain why the Rescorla-Wagner model is considered to be one of the most influential models of learning.

 

 

6. Define each of the components of classical conditioning. And provide an example applying it to one’s daily life. Explain the answer in detail using each of the components.

 

 

7. Describe and define an example of spontaneous recovery using Pavlov’s conditioning model.

 

 

8. Explain how a specific phobia could be acquired through classical conditioning, being sure to identify the unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, and conditioned response in the example. Also, indicate how the phobia could be extinguished using classical conditioning.

 

 

9. What is latent inhibition and why is it a problem for the Rescorla-Wagner model of learning?

 

 

10. Explain how a child might develop a conditioned taste aversion to pizza. Be sure to identify the CS, US, CR, and UR.

 

 

11. Describe what happens in the interpositus nucleus as a rabbit is exposed to eyeblink conditioning.

 

 

12. What is the role of the Purkinje cells in the cerebellar cortex? Discuss the evidence that suggests this.

 

 

13. Describe the contribution of the hippocampus to CS modulation.

 

 

14. Describe the neuronal changes that occur during classical conditioning of the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia.

 

 

15. Describe the Siegel et al. study (1982) of heroin tolerance in rats. How are the findings explained by classical conditioning?

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. Grading criteria: The basic idea is to play jazz music (CS) just before the child experiences a positive US, such as a favorite treat or game. The CR—positive feelings toward jazz and the UR—positive feelings about the treat, game, and so forth. The discussion should clearly focus on classical conditioning, and not on “rewarding” the child for listening to jazz.
2. Grading criteria: CS—the click sound, US—water squirt, CR—the cat jumping off the bed in response to click, and UR—the cat jumping off bed in response to water squirt.
3. Grading criteria: The definition should involve the CR being a response that is the opposite of the UR; it serves the purpose of preparing the animal for the US, maintaining homeostasis.
4. Grading criteria: The procedure should follow the typical blocking paradigm, involving the three usual phases (1—pair CS1 with the US; 2—pair CS1 + CS2 with the US; 3—test response to CS2); the outcome that demonstrates blocking must involve little or no response to the redundant CS (CS2).
5. Grading criteria: The main reasons include that it is elegant/simple, can explain a wide range of empirical findings, and makes (sometimes surprising) predictions.
6. Grading criteria: Define unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response, conditioned stimulus, conditioned response. One example that could be used is setting the alarm clock to ring to get up for class or forgetting to set it and still getting up on time.
7. Grading criteria: Define spontaneous recovery and how it relates to Pavlov’s salivation experiment, specifically how the dog can still respond to the conditioned stimulus, even if there has been a long delay.
8. Grading criteria: Using what has been learned from the chapter and Pavlov’s classical conditioning model and all of its components (US, UR, CS, CR), explain how fear can be learned and unlearned.
9. Grading criteria: Provide a brief description of the phenomenon (pre-exposure to a cue makes it harder to use that cue as a CS); convey an understanding that the Rescorla-Wagner model predicts no learning during the pre-exposure phase, and therefore latent inhibition shouldn’t occur; for example, the model predicts that pre-exposure should have no impact on conditioning.
10. Grading criteria: Describe a pairing of the pizza (CS) with something aversive, such as having the flu as a child (US). The UR—feeling sick as a result of the flu and the CR—feeling sick when encountering pizza. There must be a US—answer cannot just describe the child getting sick as a direct result of eating pizza (such as food poisoning).
11. Grading criteria: Describe the activation of the interpositus during the CR, projection of a signal to the motor cortex to produce the CR, and inhibition of the inferior olive to contribute to error correction.
12. Grading criteria: The role involves mediating response timing. The evidence—lesions lead to smaller and poorly timed CRs, mice with degeneration of Purkinje cells are slow to learn eyeblink conditioning, and individuals with autism have reduced numbers of Purkinje cells and abnormally timed CRs.
13. Grading criteria: The hippocampus does not seem to be involved in basic CR acquisition, but it does seem to be involved in determining how salient the CSs are. Discuss latent inhibition as an example—latent inhibition is absent if hippocampus is lesioned.
14. Grading criteria: Discuss activity-dependent enhancement of the sensory synapse, postsynaptic changes in motor neuron receptors, and growth of new synapses.
15. Grading criteria: Describe the study that involved administering heroin to addicts in the same versus different environments; tie in classical conditioning principles by discussing the environment (context) as a CS that produces a compensatory CR.

 

 

Chapter 4 Web Quiz Questions

1. Every day when Isabelle returns home from work, her son gives her a big hug as soon as she walks through the front door. Now, the sight of the front door makes Isabelle feel happy. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is:
  A) Isabelle’s son.
  B) the front door.
  C) a big hug.
  D) Isabelle.

 

 

2. In eyeblink conditioning the puff of air is the:
  A) CS.
  B) US.
  C) CR.
  D) UR.

 

 

3. Suppose a child acquired a fear of the doctor’s office because the office came to be associated with getting shots. To remove this fear, the child’s parents decide to bring the child to the doctor’s office several times each week without the child getting a shot. What technique are the parents using to eliminate the child’s fear?
  A) extinction
  B) blocking
  C) trace conditioning
  D) latent inhibition

 

 

4. Because Carrie’s friend Emily often brings home-baked goodies when she visits, Carrie feels her mouth water at the sight of Emily. For one week Emily, brought her cousin Michelle with her whenever she visited Carrie. A few weeks later, Carrie bumped into Michelle at the store. In this scenario, blocking would be demonstrated if Carrie:
  A) no longer feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
  B) still feels her mouth water when she sees Emily.
  C) does not feel her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.
  D) feels her mouth water when she sees Michelle at the store.

 

 

5. According to the Rescorla-Wagner model, an increase in the association between the CS and US occurs when:
  A) the prediction error is zero.
  B) an unexpected US follows a CS.
  C) the prediction error is negative.
  D) a predicted US follows a CS.

 

 

6. If a US occurs just as often without the tone as it does in the presence of the tone, then little or no conditioning will accrue to the tone. This would suggest that animals are sensitive to _____ of the potential CS and US.
  A) causality
  B) contingency
  C) cue-outcome
  D) frequency

 

 

7. A theory of learning in which all of the cues that occur during a trial and all of the changes that result are considered a single event is known as:
  A) interstimulus interval.
  B) trial-level model.
  C) delay conditioning.
  D) trace conditioning.

 

 

8. In trace conditioning, the:
  A) CS begins before the US and ends before the onset of the US.
  B) US begins before the CS and ends before the onset of the CS.
  C) CS begins before the US and stays on until the US has occurred.
  D) US begins before the CS and stays on until the CS has occurred.

 

 

9. In Garcia and Koelling’s taste-aversion studies, which was an unconditioned stimulus?
  A) a tone
  B) an unfamiliar taste
  C) a shock
  D) feeling sick

 

 

10. The US first activates which brain area?
  A) inferior olive
  B) pontine nuclei
  C) cerebellar cortex
  D) interpositus nucleus

 

 

11. Recordings of activity in the _____ during eyeblink conditioning in rabbits show activity that occurs _____ the response is made.
  A) cerebellar cortex; a few milliseconds before
  B) cerebellar cortex; at the same time as
  C) interpositus nucleus; a few milliseconds before
  D) interpositus nucleus; at the same time as

 

 

12. Removing the interpositus nucleus results in:
  A) small, poorly timed conditioned responses.
  B) complete loss of conditioned responses.
  C) small, poorly timed unconditioned responses.
  D) complete loss of unconditioned responses.

 

 

13. The hippocampus:
  A) must be intact for normal eyeblink conditioning to occur.
  B) is especially active during the early phases of classical conditioning.
  C) is important in mediating response timing.
  D) computes the degree to which the US is unexpected.

 

 

14. The mechanisms for classical conditioning in Aplysia involve _____ changes in the neural circuits that connect the _____.
  A) presynaptic; CS and UR
  B) postsynaptic; CS and UR
  C) presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and UR
  D) presynaptic and postsynaptic; CS and CR

 

 

15. It has been suggested that drug addicts should use small amounts of their drug during therapy to extinguish their habit. This is because:
  A) the addict will experience less withdrawal.
  B) drug use is part of the context.
  C) drug use has become a US.
  D) the addict will experience fewer cravings.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. B

 

 

 

Reviews

There are no reviews yet.

Be the first to review “Learning And Memory From Brain To Behavior 2nd Edition by Mark A. Gluc -Test Bank”

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *