An Introduction To Brain And Behavior 5Th Ed By Kolb – Test Bank

$25.00

Category:

Description

INSTANT DOWNLOAD WITH ANSWERS
An Introduction To Brain And Behavior 5Th Ed By Kolb – Test Bank

chapter 2

Name: __________________________  Date: _____________

 

 

1. The cerebellum contains _____ of all the neurons in the adult human brain.
  A) 20%
  B) 50%
  C) 10%
  D) 80%

 

 

2. Neural agenesis refers to:
  A) an injury to a brain structure.
  B) the degeneration of a structure.
  C) the failure of a structure to develop.
  D) the creation of a brain structure.

 

 

3. If a tree falls in the forest, does it make a sound if no one is present?
  A) Yes, because sound is a physical phenomenon.
  B) Yes, because if you record the noise and play it again later you will hear it.
  C) No, because sound is a fabrication of your brain.
  D) This is an unanswerable philosophical question.

 

 

4. Phenotypic plasticity refers to:
  A) how an organism’s genotype can be influenced by environmental factors.
  B) how an organism’s genetics can be influenced by its nervous system.
  C) the study of nervous system plasticity.
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

5. The CNS includes the _____, whereas the PNS includes the _____.
  A) brain and autonomic nervous system; spinal cord and somatic nervous system
  B) spinal cord and autonomic nervous system; brain and somatic nervous system
  C) spinal cord and brain; autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system
  D) somatic nervous system and brain; spinal cord and autonomic nervous system

 

 

6. The somatic nervous system includes the _____, whereas the autonomic nervous system includes the _____.
  A) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; cranial nerves and spinal nerves
  B) brain and spinal cord; cranial nerves and spinal nerves
  C) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions; brain and spinal cord
  D) cranial nerves and spinal nerves; sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

 

 

7. The subdivision of the nervous system that controls the gut is called the:
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) enteric nervous system.
  C) digestive nervous system.
  D) autonomic nervous system.

 

 

8. The term afferent refers to _____ signals.
  A) incoming
  B) outgoing
  C) different
  D) similar

 

 

9. Efferent is to afferent as:
  A) brain is to spinal cord.
  B) sensory is to motor.
  C) motor is to sensory.
  D) incoming is to outgoing.

 

 

10. Afferent is to efferent as:
  A) out is to in.
  B) top is to bottom.
  C) in is to out.
  D) bottom is to top.

 

 

11. Moving from superficial layers to deep layers, in what order are the meninges found?
  A) dura mater, arachnoid layer, pia mater
  B) pia mater, arachnoid layer, dura mater
  C) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid layer
  D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid layer

 

 

12. Brain nomenclature can be very confusing. This is because:
  A) many structures have several names.
  B) research on brain includes scientists of many nationalities and languages
  C) some structures were named by numbers.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

13. Structures atop the brain or a structure within the brain are_____:
  A) lateral.
  B) ventral.
  C) medial.
  D) dorsal.

 

 

14. The ventral portion of a structure is sometimes called:
  A) superior.
  B) inferior.
  C) dorsal.
  D) medial.

 

 

15. Rostral is to caudal as:
  A) superior is to inferior.
  B) dorsal is to ventral.
  C) medial is to lateral.
  D) anterior is to posterior.

 

 

16. Coronal section is to horizontal section as:
  A) frontal view is to dorsal view.
  B) medial view is to frontal view.
  C) frontal view is to medial view.
  D) dorsal view is to medial view.

 

 

17. What best characterizes the composition of cerebrospinal fluid?
  A) sodium chloride and other salts
  B) essential amino acids
  C) glucocorticoids
  D) simple sugars and small lipids

 

 

18. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows between:
  A) the arachnoid layer and pia mater.
  B) the dura mater and pia mater.
  C) the dura mater and arachnoid layer.
  D) the superficial layer and deep layer.

 

 

19. The functions of the temporal lobes lie mainly in:
  A) decision making.
  B) hearing, language, and music.
  C) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.
  D) vision.

 

 

20. Following a brain injury Greg has difficulty in understanding language and music. He is most likely to have suffered damage to his:
  A) frontal lobe.
  B) temporal lobe.
  C) occipital lobe.
  D) parietal lobe.

 

 

21. The frontal lobes are responsible for controlling:
  A) decision making.
  B) hearing, language, and music.
  C) vision.
  D) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.

 

 

22. Following a brain injury Suzanne experiences difficulty with problem solving and decision making. She is most likely to have suffered an injury to her:
  A) parietal lobe.
  B) occipital lobe.
  C) frontal lobe.
  D) temporal lobe.

 

 

23. The parietal lobes primarily control:
  A) vision.
  B) hearing, language, and music.
  C) decision making.
  D) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.

 

 

24. Following a recent stroke Jim experiences difficulty with directing movements toward objects. The stroke is most likely to have occurred in his:
  A) frontal lobe.
  B) temporal lobe.
  C) occipital lobe.
  D) parietal lobe.

 

 

25. The occipital lobes are responsible for:
  A) sensory processing and directing movements toward objects.
  B) decision making.
  C) visual processing.
  D) hearing, language, and music.

 

 

26. During a recent car accident Allison suffered a brain injury that left her blind even though her eyes are working fine. She is most likely to have suffered damage to her:
  A) occipital lobe.
  B) frontal lobe.
  C) temporal lobe.
  D) parietal lobe.

 

 

27. Sulci are:
  A) found only in the cerebellum.
  B) found only in the cerebrum.
  C) the cracks between the bumps on the brain.
  D) the bumps on the surface of the brain.

 

 

28. Gyri are:
  A) bumps on the surface of the cortex.
  B) cracks on the surface of the cortex.
  C) deformities on the surface of the cortex.
  D) only found in the spinal cord.

 

 

29. Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with meningitis?
  A) severe headache
  B) stiff neck
  C) aggressiveness
  D) convulsions

 

 

30. Sulcus is to gyrus as:
  A) crack is to bump.
  B) bump is to crack.
  C) ridge is to mountain.
  D) crack is to crevasse.

 

 

31. The symptoms of the “sleeping sickness” that arose during World War I are caused by lesions to the:
  A) putamen.
  B) globus pallidus.
  C) substantia nigra.
  D) amygdala.

 

 

32. Which of the following arteries does NOT act as a major supplier to the cerebrum?
  A) anterior
  B) superior
  C) middle
  D) posterior

 

 

33. The artery that provides blood to the lateral, temporal, and frontal lobes is the _____ cerebral artery.
  A) anterior
  B) middle
  C) posterior
  D) inferior

 

 

34. The artery that provides blood to the occipital lobes is the _____ cerebral artery.
  A) anterior
  B) middle
  C) posterior
  D) inferior

 

 

35. A disruption of the blood supply to a brain region causes:
  A) meningitis.
  B) encephalitis.
  C) a stroke.
  D) cerebral agenesis.

 

 

36. _____ is mainly composed of cell bodies and capillaries.
  A) Reticular matter
  B) Gray matter
  C) The corpus callosum
  D) White matter

 

 

37. _____ is(are) mainly composed of nerve fibers with fatty coverings.
  A) Cerebral aqueducts
  B) Ventricles
  C) White matter
  D) Gray matter

 

 

38. CSF is made in:
  A) the pia mater.
  B) the dura mater.
  C) the ventricles.
  D) the arachnoid layer.

 

 

39. The large cavities inside the brain are known as:
  A) ventricles and are filled with CSF.
  B) ventricles and are filled with blood.
  C) the arachnoid layer and are filled with CSF.
  D) the arachnoid layer and are filled with blood.

 

 

40. What is the most unlikely function of CSF?
  A) aiding cell transmission in the brain
  B) acting as a shock absorber to the brain
  C) allowing certain compounds access
  D) helping the brain excrete metabolic wastes from the brain

 

 

41. Ischemic stroke is caused by:
  A) a clot.
  B) a broken blood vessel.
  C) meningitis.
  D) encephalitis.

 

 

42. A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by:
  A) a blood clot.
  B) a ruptured blood vessel.
  C) an embolism.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

43. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is effective for treating:
  A) ischemic stroke.
  B) hemorrhagic stroke.
  C) meningitis.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

44. When observing a sagittal brain section at the midline, what is the prominent feature composed of white matter?
  A) corpus callosum
  B) ventricles
  C) cingulate cortex
  D) hippocampus

 

 

45. Cutting the brain from front to back will give:
  A) a coronal view.
  B) a frontal view.
  C) a horizontal view.
  D) a sagittal view.

 

 

46. According to Descartes, the seat of the mind was located in the:
  A) frontal lobes.
  B) thalamus.
  C) pineal gland.
  D) temporal lobes.

 

 

47. The role of glial cells is primarily:
  A) to carry out information processing in the brain.
  B) to send signals from one brain region to another.
  C) to modulate the activity of neurons.
  D) to process sensory input.

 

 

48. CNS is to PNS as:
  A) neuron is to glia.
  B) gray matter is to white matter.
  C) nerve is to tract.
  D) tract is to nerve.

 

 

49. The prosencephalon is sometimes referred to as:
  A) the hindbrain.
  B) the middle brain.
  C) the auxiliary brain.
  D) the front brain.

 

 

50. In the human brain the basal ganglia, limbic system, and olfactory bulbs are considered part of the:
  A) telencephalon.
  B) metencephalon.
  C) diencephalon.
  D) mesencephalon.

 

 

51. In the human brain the mesencephalon contains:
  A) the neocortex.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) tectum and tegmentum.
  D) medulla.

 

 

52. The thalamus and hypothalamus are considered part of the:
  A) myelencephalon.
  B) telencephalon.
  C) metencephalon.
  D) diencephalon.

 

 

53. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the metencephalon?
  A) the cerebellum
  B) the pons
  C) the medulla
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

54. Which of the following is NOT part of the hindbrain?
  A) the pons
  B) the tegmentum
  C) the reticular formation
  D) the medulla oblongata

 

 

55. Awakening from sleep is a function of:
  A) the pons.
  B) the medulla.
  C) the cerebellum.
  D) the reticular formation.

 

 

56. The reticular formation is primarily made up of:
  A) gray matter only.
  B) white matter only.
  C) gray matter and white matter.
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

57. The primary function of the cerebellum is:
  A) control of sleeping and waking.
  B) control of movement.
  C) control of heart rate and respiration.
  D) sensory processing.

 

 

58. Orienting responses (e.g., turning your head to locate the source of a sound) are controlled by:
  A) the pons.
  B) the superior and inferior colliculi.
  C) the cerebellum.
  D) the diencephalon.

 

 

59. The red nucleus, substantia nigra, and periaqueductal gray matter are parts of the:
  A) tectum.
  B) pons.
  C) tegmentum.
  D) reticular formation.

 

 

60. Regulation of breathing and the cardiovascular system is primarily controlled by:
  A) the pons.
  B) the reticular activating system.
  C) the medulla.
  D) the cerebellum.

 

 

61. What are the functions of the superior and inferior colliculi respectively?
  A) auditory and visual
  B) visual and auditory
  C) tactile and visual
  D) visual and tactile

 

 

62. Which of the following is part of the tegmentum?
  A) the tectum
  B) the substantia nigra
  C) the inferior colliculus
  D) the superior colliculus

 

 

63. The hypothalamus is NOT primarily involved in:
  A) motor movements.
  B) sleeping.
  C) emotional behavior.
  D) sensory input.

 

 

64. Sexual behavior is a primary function of:
  A) the thalamus.
  B) the hypothalamus.
  C) the gyrus fornicutus.
  D) the red nucleus.

 

 

65. The _____ acts as a sensory relay station for signals arriving from sensory receptors that are being sent to the cortex.
  A) pituitary
  B) pons
  C) hypothalamus
  D) thalamus

 

 

66. Thalamus is to hypothalamus as:
  A) sensory input is to body maintenance.
  B) body maintenance is to sensory input.
  C) sexual behavior is to sleeping.
  D) feeding is to endocrine function.

 

 

67. The lateral geniculate nucleus deals with:
  A) touch.
  B) hearing.
  C) olfaction.
  D) vision.

 

 

68. The primary function of the thalamus is:
  A) transmission of sensory inputs to the cortex.
  B) regulation of hormone function.
  C) regulation of sleeping and waking.
  D) control of orienting responses.

 

 

69. Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?
  A) the cortex
  B) the tectum
  C) the basal ganglia
  D) the limbic system

 

 

70. The basal ganglia primarily controls:
  A) decision making.
  B) voluntary movement.
  C) learning and memory.
  D) processing of sound.

 

 

71. Cognition is usually attributed to:
  A) the limbic cortex.
  B) the cingulate cortex.
  C) the neocortex.
  D) the parahippocampal cortex.

 

 

72. Deficits in processing basic visual information (e.g., luminance) are caused by damage to the:
  A) frontal lobe.
  B) parietal lobe.
  C) occipital lobe.
  D) temporal lobe.

 

 

73. A person who has trouble locating the source of stimulation on the skin most likely has damage to the:
  A) temporal lobe.
  B) parietal lobe.
  C) occipital lobe.
  D) frontal lobe.

 

 

74. Trouble recognizing sounds is most commonly associated with damage to the:
  A) parietal lobe.
  B) frontal lobe.
  C) occipital lobe.
  D) temporal lobe.

 

 

75. Following a brain injury Steven has trouble organizing himself and has difficulty formulating plans to accomplish goals. Steven is most likely to have damaged his:
  A) frontal lobe.
  B) temporal lobe.
  C) parietal lobe.
  D) occipital lobe.

 

 

76. Six layers of gray matter on top of a layer of white matter would describe:
  A) the limbic cortex.
  B) the basal ganglia.
  C) the neocortex.
  D) the cingulate cortex.

 

 

77. Cortical regions:
  A) have the same density of cell layers.
  B) have different specific chemical characteristics.
  C) when stained look the same across the various areas.
  D) have very specific functions and rarely interrelate.

 

 

78. Motor output signals are sent through layer(s) _____ of the cortex.
  A) V and VI
  B) I to III
  C) IV
  D) II

 

 

79. Integrative functions are processed by layer(s) _____ of the cortex.
  A) V and VI
  B) I to III
  C) IV
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

80. Sensory inputs are transmitted through layer(s) _____ of the cortex.
  A) I to III
  B) V and VI
  C) IV
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

81. Memory and emotion are processed by the:
  A) limbic system.
  B) basal ganglia.
  C) thalamus.
  D) parietal lobe.

 

 

82. The caudate nucleus and the putamen are part of the:
  A) basal ganglia.
  B) limbic system.
  C) olfactory system.
  D) hindbrain.

 

 

83. Parkinson disease and Tourette syndrome are neurological diseases associated with the:
  A) cerebellum.
  B) frontal lobes.
  C) basal ganglia.
  D) thalamus.

 

 

84. The hippocampus and the amygdala are part of the:
  A) basal ganglia.
  B) limbic system.
  C) olfactory system.
  D) hindbrain.

 

 

85. The hippocampus and the cingulate cortex participate in performing _____ functions.
  A) digestive
  B) problem solving
  C) sexual
  D) memory

 

 

86. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the limbic system?
  A) hippocampus
  B) amygdala
  C) cingulate cortex
  D) putamen

 

 

87. Removal of the amygdala in cats leads to:
  A) changes in temperature regulation.
  B) sleep disruption.
  C) emotional changes.
  D) motor disruption.

 

 

88. There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves.
  A) 12
  B) 24
  C) 16
  D) 8

 

 

89. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck travel through:
  A) lumbar sections of the spinal cord.
  B) sacral portions of the spinal cord.
  C) the cranial nerves.
  D) thoracic sections of the spinal cord.

 

 

90. Sensory and motor signals to the arms are sent through _____ sections of the spinal cord.
  A) sacral
  B) thoracic
  C) lumbar
  D) cervical

 

 

91. Sensory and motor signals from the head and neck are sent to _____ sections of the spinal cord.
  A) thoracic
  B) sacral
  C) lumbar
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

92. Dermatomes are associated with the:
  A) peripheral nervous system
  B) spinal nervous system.
  C) autonomic nervous system.
  D) cranial nervous system.

 

 

93. The law of Bell and Magendie states that the:
  A) dorsal spinal cord is motor and the ventral is sensory.
  B) medial spinal cord is motor and the lateral is sensory.
  C) dorsal spinal cord is sensory and the ventral is motor.
  D) medial spinal cord is sensory and the lateral is motor.

 

 

94. Motor output from the spinal cord travels via the:
  A) dorsal spinal cord.
  B) ventral spinal cord.
  C) medial spinal cord.
  D) lateral spinal cord.

 

 

95. Sensory input to the spinal cord travels via the:
  A) dorsal spinal cord.
  B) ventral spinal cord.
  C) medial spinal cord.
  D) lateral spinal cord.

 

 

96. Increases in heart rate and inhibition of digestion are controlled by the:
  A) sympathetic nervous system.
  B) parasympathetic nervous system.
  C) spinal nervous system.
  D) cranial nervous system.

 

 

97. The _____ nervous system works to help us “rest and digest,” whereas the _____ nervous system helps initiate fight-or-flight responses.
  A) sympathetic; parasympathetic
  B) sympathetic; spinal
  C) parasympathetic; sympathetic
  D) somatic; parasympathetic

 

 

98. The vagus, facial, and oculomotor nerves are the primary components of the:
  A) cranial nervous system.
  B) sympathetic nervous system.
  C) the parasympathetic nervous system.
  D) spinal nervous system.

 

 

99. The _____ contains a sheet of neurons lining the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and colon.
  A) enteric nervous system (ENS)
  B) autonomic nervous system (ANS)
  C) somatic nervous system (SNS)
  D) central nervous system (CNS)

 

 

100. Language control is usually situated in the:
  A) same place on both hemispheres.
  B) different locations on each hemisphere.
  C) right hemisphere.
  D) left hemisphere.

 

 

101. The left hemisphere primarily controls functions on the _____ side of the body.
  A) contralateral
  B) left
  C) ipsilateral
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

102. Spatial navigation is controlled by _____ of the brain.
  A) the left hemisphere
  B) both hemispheres
  C) the right hemisphere
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

103. The brain appears to have:
  A) mainly serial or hierarchical systems.
  B) mainly parallel systems.
  C) a combination of serial and parallel systems.
  D) parallel systems at lower levels and serial processing farther up.

 

 

104. The notion of segregation of sensory and motor functions in the nervous system was postulated by:
  A) François Magendie and David Bell.
  B) David Hubel.
  C) John Hughlings Jackson.
  D) Nige Toretle.

 

 

105. Memory seems to be located:
  A) in the cingulate gyrus.
  B) in the hippocampus.
  C) throughout the brain.
  D) primarily in the temporal lobes.

 

 

106. Changes in balance between excitation and inhibition account for symptoms in:
  A) Tourette syndrome.
  B) Parkinson disease.
  C) stroke.
  D) both Tourette syndrome and Parkinson disease.

 

 

107. What are the major functions of the cerebellum?

 

 

108. Identify the brain’s primary functions.

 

 

109. Define the terms afferent and efferent.

 

 

110. List the meninges from the outside to the surface of the brain. Where does the cerebrospinal fluid flow?

 

 

111. Your friend acquired frontal lobe damage in a car accident. What symptoms are they likely to display?

 

 

112. Differentiate between sulci and gyri.

 

 

113. Differentiate between gray matter and white matter.

 

 

114. What do the ventricles do?

 

 

115. What is a stroke? What are the two major types of stroke?

 

 

116. Differentiate between glial cells and neurons.

 

 

117. List the primary divisions of the central nervous system.

 

 

118. List the principal structures in the hindbrain.

 

 

119. What are the major subdivisions and structures within the midbrain?

 

 

120. What are the functions of the hypothalamus?

 

 

121. What are the principal structures and functions of the diencephalon?

 

 

122. List the principal structures in the forebrain.

 

 

123. How many layers are there in the cerebral cortex? What are the functions of each of the different cortical layers?

 

 

124. What are the functions of the basal ganglia?

 

 

125. What are the parts and functions of the limbic system?

 

 

126. What is a dermatome?

 

 

127. What are the differences between the dorsal and ventral fibers of the spinal cord?

 

 

128. Describe the enteric nervous system.

 

 

129. Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

 

 

130. In relation to the brain, what do the terms symmetry and asymmetry mean?

 

 

131. What two pathways are used by the brain to separate sensory input for object recognition and motor control?

 

 

132. Match the letters to the correct anatomical term.

 

  _____ 1. ventral
  _____ 2. lateral
  _____ 3. dorsal
  _____ 4. posterior
  _____ 5. medial
  _____ 6. anterior

 

 

133. Match the letters to the correct location on the figure.

 

  _____ 1. occipital lobe
  _____ 2. brainstem
  _____ 3. temporal lobe
  _____ 4. frontal lobe
  _____ 5. longitudinal fissure
  _____ 6. cerebellum
  _____ 7. cranial nerves
  _____ 8. central sulcus
  _____ 9. parietal lobe

 

 

134. Locate the structures on the figure.

 

  _____ 1.  cerebellum
  _____ 2.  medulla
  _____ 3.  reticular formation
  _____ 4.  pons

 

 

135. Label the brain structures on the figure.

 

1. _____

2. _____

3. _____

4. _____

 

 

136. Match the letter to the correct brain structure.

 

  _____ 1.  caudate nucleus
  _____ 2.  lateral ventricle
  _____ 3.  basal ganglia
  _____ 4.  substantia nigra
  _____ 5.  subthalamic nucleus
  _____ 6.  thalamus
  _____ 7.  putamen
  _____ 8.  globus pallidus
  _____ 9.  corpus callosum

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. D
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. D
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. D
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. A
42. B
43. A
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. C
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. C
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. C
61. B
62. B
63. D
64. B
65. B
66. A
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. B
74. D
75. A
76. C
77. B
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. A
82. A
83. C
84. B
85. D
86. D
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. D
91. D
92. B
93. C
94. B
95. A
96. A
97. C
98. C
99. A
100. D
101. A
102. C
103. C
104. A
105. C
106. D
107.  
108.  
109.  
110.  
111.  
112.  
113.  
114.  
115.  
116.  
117.  
118.  
119.  
120.  
121.  
122.  
123.  
124.  
125.  
126.  
127.  
128.  
129.  
130.  
131.  
132. 1. F; 2. C; 3. A; 4. B; 5. E; 6. D
133. 1. E; 2. H; 3. F; 4. A; 5. D; 6. G; 7. I; 8. B; 9. C
134. 1. D; 2. C; 3. B; 4. A
135. 1. cerebral cortex; 2. basal ganglia; 3. hippocampus; 4. amygdala
136. 1. D; 2. C; 3. G; 4. I; 5. H; 6. A; 7. E; 8. F; 9. B

 

chapter 16

Name: __________________________  Date: _____________

 

 

1. It is estimated that 1 in 6 veterans of the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan will develop symptoms of:
  A) depression.
  B) anxiety.
  C) posttraumatic stress disorder.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

2. Patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) have been found to have reduced volume in the:
  A) hippocampus.
  B) frontal cortex.
  C) parietal cortex.
  D) hippocampus and the frontal cortex.

 

 

3. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the superego is:
  A) the prefrontal neocortex.
  B) the cortex.
  C) the limbic system.
  D) the temporal cortex.

 

 

4. The region of the brain that resembles what Sigmund Freud called the id is:
  A) the frontal cortex
  B) the cortex.
  C) the limbic system.
  D) the temporal cortex.

 

 

5. Huntington disease is caused by:
  A) a genetic error.
  B) loss of neural connections.
  C) progressive cell death.
  D) rapid cell death.

 

 

6. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by:
  A) progressive cell death.
  B) rapid cell death.
  C) loss of neural connections.
  D) genetic alteration.

 

 

7. Tay-Sachs disease is caused by:
  A) loss of neural connections.
  B) progressive cell death.
  C) rapid cell death.
  D) a genetic error.

 

 

8. Which of the following is (are) caused by genetic errors?
  A) phenylketonuria
  B) Huntington disease
  C) Tay-Sachs disease
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

9. Korsakoff syndrome is often the result of:
  A) traumatic brain injury.
  B) a poor diet.
  C) a stroke.
  D) genetic abnormalities.

 

 

10. _____ can be treated by diet restrictions such as limiting the intake of foods high in protein, for example beef, cheese, and fish.
  A) Tay-Sachs disease
  B) Autism
  C) Phenylketonuria
  D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

 

 

11. _____ is characterized by decreased neuron size and dendritic length and spine density, as well as mental retardation.
  A) Phenylketonuria
  B) Autism
  C) Tay-Sachs disease
  D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

 

 

12. The symptoms of Parkinson disease become apparent when approximately _____ of cells die in the _____ dopamine pathway.
  A) 25 percent to 30 percent; nigrostriatal
  B) 35 percent to 50 percent; mesolimbic
  C) 60 percent to 80 percent; nigrostriatal
  D) 90 percent to 100 percent; mesolimbic

 

 

13. Rats with specific lesions to the nigrostriatal dopamine system are used for a model of:
  A) Huntington disease.
  B) Parkinson disease.
  C) Tay-Sachs disease.
  D) multiple sclerosis.

 

 

14. Epidemiology is the study of:
  A) epidemics.
  B) bugs.
  C) the distribution and causes of diseases in human populations.
  D) genetics.

 

 

15. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM), which type of disorder is characterized by physical symptoms (e.g., paralysis) that have been caused by psychological rather than physical factors?
  A) mood disorders
  B) dissociative disorders
  C) somatoform disorders
  D) impulse control disorders

 

 

16. Enlarged ventricles may occur in:
  A) schizophrenia.
  B) Alzheimer disease.
  C) alcoholism.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

17. Adult-onset schizophrenia has been linked to:
  A) abnormalities in prefrontal cortex.
  B) abnormalities in the hippocampus.
  C) decreased occipital lobe volume.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

18. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for Parkinson disease?
  A) deep brain stimulation
  B) lesioning the thalamus
  C) lesioning the caudate nucleus
  D) stimulating the globus pallidus

 

 

19. Parkinson disease may be treated by:
  A) brain stimulation.
  B) brain lesions.
  C) pharmacological treatment.
  D) brain stimulation, brain lesions, and pharmacological treatment.

 

 

20. Deep brain stimulation is effective in treating:
  A) depression.
  B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
  C) Parkinson disease.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

21. Deep brain stimulation is used to treat Parkinson disease by stimulating the:
  A) caudate nucleus.
  B) putamen.
  C) globus pallidus.
  D) substantia nigra.

 

 

22. Studies have shown that neural transplantation of stem cells:
  A) can be used to cure Parkinson disease.
  B) can completely reverse the effects of stroke.
  C) can cure Parkinson disease and reverse the effects of stroke.
  D) has only limited efficacy.

 

 

23. Electroconvulsive therapy was developed as a treatment for:
  A) schizophrenia.
  B) anxiety attacks.
  C) depression.
  D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.

 

 

24. Electroconvulsive therapy may help treat depression by increasing:
  A) the number of new neurons in the brain.
  B) levels of glutamate in the brain.
  C) levels of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF).
  D) levels of GABA in the brain.

 

 

25. Which of the following treatments has (have) been used to treat depression?
  A) insulin therapy
  B) electroconvulsive therapy
  C) transcranial magnetic stimulation
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

26. Transcranial magnetic stimulation has been used to treat:
  A) depression.
  B) schizophrenia.
  C) Alzheimer disease.
  D) depression and schizophrenia.

 

 

27. Patients who take neuroleptics for long periods may develop:
  A) Parkinson disease.
  B) tardive dyskinesia.
  C) ataxia.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

28. _____ is a disorder in which the patient is unable to stop the tongue, hands, or other body parts from moving.
  A) Parkinson disease
  B) Ataxia
  C) Tardive dyskinesia
  D) Schizophrenia

 

 

29. Freud is BEST known for developing:
  A) behavior therapy.
  B) cognitive therapy.
  C) psychotherapies.
  D) group therapies.

 

 

30. _____ can be used to help people learn to change their behavior by changing their patterns of brain activity.
  A) Transcranial magnetic stimulation
  B) Functional near infrared spectroscopy
  C) Real-time functional magnetic resonance imaging
  D) Electroencephalography

 

 

31. _____ has been used to treat Parkinson disease and stroke.
  A) Music therapy
  B) TMS
  C) Real-time fMRI
  D) Emotional therapy

 

 

32. The MOST common cause of brain injury in people under 40 is:
  A) meningitis.
  B) traumatic brain injury.
  C) stroke.
  D) aneurysms.

 

 

33. Traumatic brain injuries are more common in _____ and peak at age _____.
  A) women; 15 to 30
  B) men; 15 to 19
  C) men; 25 to 40
  D) women; 15 to 19

 

 

34. A child’s chance of having a significant closed-head injury before he or she is old enough to drive is:
  A) 1 in 50,000.
  B) 1 in 1000.
  C) 1 in 30.
  D) 1 in 20.

 

 

35. Traumatic brain injury can result in:
  A) brain swelling.
  B) scar tissue.
  C) disruptions in blood supply.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

36. Josh played professional football for a number of years, during which he had numerous concussions. Following his retirement from football, Josh became depressed, had trouble controlling his temper, and made bad decisions that ended in the breakup of his marriage. Josh later committed suicide. An autopsy of Josh’s brain revealed that he had clear signs of:
  A) Alzheimer disease.
  B) ischemia.
  C) chronic traumatic encephalopathy.
  D) diaschisis.

 

 

37. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is characterized by:
  A) neurofibrillary tangles.
  B) amyloid plaques.
  C) white matter loss.
  D) both neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques.

 

 

38. Repeated concussions have been associated with later development of:
  A) Alzheimer disease.
  B) chronic traumatic encephalopathy.
  C) Parkinson disease.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

39. The areas of the brain that are MOST susceptible to closed-head injuries are:
  A) parietal and temporal lobes.
  B) temporal and frontal lobes.
  C) frontal and occipital lobes.
  D) temporal and occipital lobes.

 

 

40. Brain damage that occurs opposite the site of impact during a traumatic brain injury is called:
  A) contrecoup injury.
  B) coup injury.
  C) recoil injury.
  D) shearing injury.

 

 

41. Samantha was in a car accident yesterday. She hit her forehead directly against the dash, which resulted in a traumatic brain injury. It is likely that she damaged her:
  A) frontal lobe.
  B) occipital lobe.
  C) both frontal and occipital lobe.
  D) temporal lobe.

 

 

42. Loss of complex cognitive functions, including reductions in mental speed, concentration, and overall cognitive efficiency, is characteristic of:
  A) recovery from coma.
  B) discrete impairment from frontal lobe damage.
  C) contrecoup lesions.
  D) tears due to movement of the hemispheres.

 

 

43. TBI can be diagnosed MOST easily using:
  A) CT scans.
  B) MRI.
  C) MRS.
  D) DTI.

 

 

44. Closed-head injuries that have significant effects on personality and social behavior are usually associated with damage to:
  A) temporal and parietal lobes.
  B) parietal and frontal lobes.
  C) frontal and temporal lobes.
  D) occipital and frontal lobes.

 

 

45. A technique to identify changes in specific markers of neural function, such as N-acetylaspartate (NAA), is called:
  A) a PET scan.
  B) magnetic resonance spectroscopy.
  C) magnetic resonance imaging.
  D) a CT scan.

 

 

46. The LEAST likely function to recover after closed-head injuries is:
  A) memory.
  B) cognitive skills.
  C) social skills.
  D) motor skills.

 

 

47. Ischemia is a:
  A) bulge in an artery.
  B) bulge in a vein.
  C) disruption in blood supply.
  D) disruption in blood supply due to bleeding in the brain.

 

 

48. A stroke can produce:
  A) changes in pH.
  B) diaschisis.
  C) a drop in metabolic rate in the brain.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

49. During an ischemic stroke, _____ starts a chain of events that result in further brain damage.
  A) excessive intake of calcium
  B) excessive release of glutamate
  C) reduction of ATP in mitochondria
  D) excessive release of GABA

 

 

50. During a stroke too much _____ enters the neuron, and it has a toxic effect.
  A) calcium
  B) potassium
  C) chloride
  D) sodium

 

 

51. During _____, areas of the brain distant from the site of injury are functionally depressed.
  A) diaschisis
  B) a traumatic brain injury
  C) an epileptic seizure
  D) neurosurgery

 

 

52. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) has been shown to be effective in treating some types of:
  A) traumatic brain injury.
  B) stroke.
  C) aneurysm.
  D) brain tumors.

 

 

53. One of the most effective treatments for recovering function in a limb following a brain injury is:
  A) virtual reality therapy.
  B) administration of neuroprotectants.
  C) t-PA.
  D) constraint-induced therapy.

 

 

54. The probability of having one seizure in your lifetime is:
  A) 1 in 20.
  B) 1 in 50.
  C) 1 in 100.
  D) 1 in 200.

 

 

55. Seizures are MOST likely to occur when a person is:
  A) watching television.
  B) driving.
  C) sleeping.
  D) exercising.

 

 

56. _____ seizures might have sensory, motor, or autonomic features that are localized to a particular part of the body.
  A) Focal
  B) Generalized
  C) Grand mal
  D) Complex partial

 

 

57. Anticonvulsant drugs that are used to treat epilepsy typically influence:
  A) GABA receptors.
  B) NMDA receptors.
  C) glutamate receptors.
  D) acetylcholine receptors.

 

 

58. Which of the following has (have) been used to treat epilepsy?
  A) GABA agonists
  B) neurosurgery
  C) deep brain stimulation
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

59. Multiple sclerosis primarily damages:
  A) motor neurons.
  B) sensory neurons.
  C) myelin.
  D) dorsal root ganglion.

 

 

60. Multiple sclerosis is relatively common in:
  A) Japan.
  B) men.
  C) northern Europe.
  D) China.

 

 

61. The classic feature of multiple sclerosis is:
  A) hemiplegia.
  B) tremors.
  C) paraplegia.
  D) dysphasia.

 

 

62. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
  A) Multiple sclerosis is most prevalent in Japan.
  B) Worldwide, about 1 million people are afflicted with multiple sclerosis.
  C) Women are more likely to have multiple sclerosis than men are.
  D) Where multiple sclerosis occurs, its incidence is 50 per 100,000.

 

 

63. The liberation therapy for multiple sclerosis is based on the idea that it is caused by:
  A) an autoimmune reaction.
  B) a lack of vitamin D.
  C) improper blood drainage from the brain.
  D) a viral infection

 

 

64. Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a possible cause of multiple sclerosis?
  A) an autoimmune disorder
  B) lack of vitamin B
  C) a problem with misfolded proteins
  D) insufficient blood drainage from the brain

 

 

65. Dementia affects _____ of people over age 80.
  A) 10 percent to 20 percent
  B) 5 percent to 10 percent
  C) 1 percent to 6 percent
  D) 30 percent to 50 percent

 

 

66. Which of the following is NOT a form of degenerative dementia?
  A) Parkinson disease
  B) Alzheimer disease
  C) Corticobasal degeneration
  D) Vascular dementia

 

 

67. Richard has hypertension and diabetes, and he is a longtime smoker who is obese. Richard may be at high risk for:
  A) vascular dementia.
  B) Parkinson disease.
  C) frontal-temporal dementia.
  D) Wilson disease.

 

 

68. Parkinson disease seems to be related to degeneration of:
  A) the red nucleus.
  B) the globus pallidus.
  C) the substantia nigra.
  D) the caudate.

 

 

69. Tremor, rigidity, loss of spontaneous movement, and disturbances of posture suggest:
  A) Parkinson disease.
  B) Pick disease.
  C) Huntington disease.
  D) Alzheimer disease.

 

 

70. Resting tremor, muscular rigidity, and involuntary movements are all:
  A) positive symptoms of Parkinson disease.
  B) negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.
  C) negative symptoms of Huntington disease.
  D) positive symptoms of Huntington disease.

 

 

71. Akathesia is:
  A) involuntary movements.
  B) muscular rigidity.
  C) tremors at rest.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

72. Jack is 73 years old. He has great difficulty getting out of his chair. When he walks, it takes him a very long time to get his legs moving, but when he does start moving, he begins to go very quickly, almost as if he is starting to run. In addition, while he walks, his arms often hang motionless by his sides. When he is seated, he will stay motionless for long periods with a blank, emotionless expression. Jack is displaying classic symptoms of:
  A) Alzheimer disease.
  B) Wilson disease.
  C) Parkinson disease.
  D) multiple sclerosis.

 

 

73. Festination is:
  A) a balance disorder.
  B) a motor initiation problem.
  C) short, shuffling steps.
  D) faster and faster steps that end up in running.

 

 

74. Which of the following symptoms is (are) associated with Parkinson disease?
  A) loss of libido
  B) loss of motive
  C) loss of attention
  D) All of the answers are correct

 

 

75. Lesioning the internal portion of the globus pallidus has been used as a treatment for:
  A) Alzheimer disease.
  B) Huntington disease.
  C) Pick disease.
  D) Parkinson disease.

 

 

76. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with Alzheimer disease?
  A) the presence of the Apoe4 gene.
  B) below-average IQ.
  C) a history of traumatic brain injury.
  D) a history of smoking.

 

 

77. Neurofibrillary tangles (accumulation of microtubules from dead neurons) have been observed in:
  A) Alzheimer disease.
  B) Parkinson disease.
  C) Down syndrome.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

78. Which of the following are neuropathological changes in the brains of patients with Alzheimer disease?
  A) amyloid plaques
  B) neurofibrillary tangles
  C) Lewy bodies
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

79. The MOST widespread cause of cortical atrophy in Alzheimer disease appears to be loss of:
  A) dendritic arborization.
  B) large neurons.
  C) glial cells.
  D) both large and small neurons.

 

 

80. Which of the following neurotransmitters is (are) reduced in Alzheimer disease?
  A) acetylcholine
  B) dopamine
  C) serotonin
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

81. A circular fibrous structure that forms within a cytoplasm of neurons is called:
  A) amyloid plaque.
  B) a neurofibrillary tangle.
  C) a Lewy body.
  D) None of the answers is correct.

 

 

82. The presence of Lewy bodies has been associated with:
  A) Parkinson disease.
  B) Alzheimer disease.
  C) Down syndrome.
  D) both Parkinson and Alzheimer disease.

 

 

83. Compared to younger people, older people tend to demonstrate _____ in attentional and executive networks when performing cognitive tasks.
  A) decreased activation
  B) increased activation
  C) the same amount of activation
  D) no activation

 

 

84. The prevalence of schizophrenia is approximately _____ of the population.
  A) 12 percent
  B) 5 percent
  C) 3 percent
  D) 1 percent

 

 

85. Which of the following is a diagnostic symptom of schizophrenia?
  A) disorganized thinking
  B) catatonic behavior
  C) hypokinesia (slowness of movement)
  D) hallucinations

 

 

86. The concordance rate for schizophrenia in identical twins is:
  A) 100 percent.
  B) 75 percent.
  C) 25 percent.
  D) 50 percent.

 

 

87. Families with a history of schizophrenia are also at elevated risk for:
  A) Parkinson disease.
  B) multiple sclerosis.
  C) major depression.
  D) antisocial personality disorder.

 

 

88. Individuals with schizophrenia tend to show the largest degree of cortical atrophy in the:
  A) parietal cortex.
  B) frontal cortex.
  C) temporal cortex.
  D) temporal and frontal cortices.

 

 

89. Which of the following is NOT one of the brain correlates of schizophrenia?
  A) enlarged ventricles
  B) smaller dendritic fields in in the hippocampus
  C) decreased frontal and temporal lobe volume
  D) smaller dendritic fields in the nucleus accumbens

 

 

90. Which of the following neurotransmitters was FIRST linked with schizophrenia?
  A) dopamine
  B) glutamate
  C) GABA
  D) serotonin

 

 

91. Which of the following neurotransmitter systems is (are) impaired in individuals with schizophrenia?
  A) dopamine
  B) glutamate
  C) GABA
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

92. What is the MOST likely diagnosis of people who have periods of excessive euphoria and uncontrollable hyperactivity alternating with periods of feeling worthless and guilt-ridden, with frequent thoughts of suicide?
  A) depression
  B) mania
  C) generalized anxiety disorder
  D) bipolar disorder

 

 

93. Antidepressant drugs increase synaptic levels of:
  A) norepinephrine.
  B) serotonin.
  C) dopamine.
  D) norepinephrine and serotonin.

 

 

94. When a person is stressed, the hypothalamus secretes _____, which eventually results in the release of cortisol.
  A) corticotrophin-releasing hormone
  B) adrenocorticotrophic hormone
  C) cortisol-releasing hormone
  D) glucocorticoids

 

 

95. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depression?
  A) feelings of worthlessness and guilt
  B) disturbances in eating habits
  C) hallucinations
  D) thoughts of suicide

 

 

96. Individuals with depression have elevated levels of:
  A) dopamine.
  B) serotonin.
  C) norepinephrine.
  D) cortisol.

 

 

97. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is influenced by:
  A) chronic stress.
  B) cortisol levels.
  C) stressful early life events.
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

98. Fluoxetine (Prozac):
  A) decreases serotonin in the cortex.
  B) increases dopamine in the cortex.
  C) induces neurogenesis in the hippocampus.
  D) reduces brain-derived neurotropic factor.

 

 

99. Aside from drugs, one of the best treatments for depression is:
  A) TMS.
  B) ECT.
  C) cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
  D) sleep.

 

 

100. Imaging studies of people with anxiety disorders show increased baseline activity in:
  A) the cingulate cortex.
  B) the amygdala.
  C) both the cingulate cortex and the amygdala.
  D) the hypothalamus.

 

 

101. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are thought to reduce depression through:
  A) increasing levels of serotonin.
  B) increasing levels of norepinephrine.
  C) increasing the number of neurons in the hippocampus.
  D) both increasing levels of serotonin and increasing the number of neurons in the hippocampus.

 

 

102. Imaging studies in individuals with anxiety disorders demonstrate:
  A) increased activation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex.
  B) decreased activation in the amygdala and prefrontal cortex.
  C) increased activation in the temporal lobes.
  D) decreased activation in the parahippocampal gyrus.

 

 

103. Studies investigating the treatments for anxiety have found that ___ tend(s) to be effective in reducing anxiety.
  A) benzodiazepines
  B) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
  C) cognitive-behavioral therapy
  D) All of the answers are correct.

 

 

104. What are the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? What brain regions does it affect?

 

 

105. Explain the Freudian terms id, ego, and superego. What brain structures might these concepts be related to?

 

 

106. What are the symptoms and causes of phenylketonuria?

 

 

107. Describe and explain at least four of the major challenges faced by researchers who want to study the disordered brain.

 

 

108. What kinds of neurosurgeries have been used in treating Parkinson disease?

 

 

109. What is electroconvulsive therapy? Why is it used? How does it affect the brain?

 

 

110. What is tardive dyskinesia? Why is it sometimes observed in psychiatric patients?

 

 

111. List and describe four major types of behavioral therapies for behavioral disorders outlined in your text.

 

 

112. What is the MOST common form of brain damage in people under 40?

 

 

113. What can happen if a person has multiple concussions throughout life?

 

 

114. What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?

 

 

115. What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)? What neural changes accompany it?

 

 

116. What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?

 

 

117. Differentiate between coup and contrecoup effects during a traumatic brain injury. Give an example.

 

 

118. What processes following an ischemic stroke result in further brain damage?

 

 

119. What are neuroprotectants? Why are they used?

 

 

120. Compare and contrast the symptoms of focal and generalized seizures.

 

 

121. What treatments are available to reduce epileptic seizures?

 

 

122. List at least five factors that may lead to the onset of seizures.

 

 

123. What are the proposed causes of multiple sclerosis?

 

 

124. Give examples of positive and negative symptoms of Parkinson disease.

 

 

125. What are the anatomical correlates of Alzheimer disease?

 

 

126. What neural changes do Parkinson and Alzheimer disease have in common?

 

 

127. What are prions? What neurological diseases may be caused by prions?

 

 

128. List the six diagnostic symptoms of schizophrenia.

 

 

129. How is the brain of a person with schizophrenia different from the brain of a person without it?

 

 

130. What neurotransmitter systems are affected in schizophrenia?

 

 

131. What neurotransmitters appear to be involved in depression?

 

 

132. What effects do antidepressant drugs like SSRIs have on the brain?

 

 

133. What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis? What role does it play in depression?

 

 

134. What neurotransmitter system(s) are involved in anxiety? What types of drugs are used to treat anxiety disorders?

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. D
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. C
31. A
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. D
38. D
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. C
45. B
46. C
47. C
48. D
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. D
54. A
55. C
56. A
57. A
58. D
59. C
60. C
61. C
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. A
66. D
67. A
68. C
69. A
70. A
71. A
72. C
73. D
74. D
75. D
76. D
77. D
78. D
79. A
80. D
81. C
82. D
83. B
84. D
85. B
86. D
87. C
88. D
89. D
90. A
91. D
92. D
93. D
94. B
95. C
96. D
97. D
98. C
99. C
100. C
101. D
102. A
103. D
104.  
105.  
106.  
107.  
108.  
109.  
110.  
111.  
112.  
113.  
114.  
115.  
116.  
117.  
118.  
119.  
120.  
121.  
122.  
123.  
124.  
125.  
126.  
127.  
128.  
129.  
130.  
131.  
132.  
133.  
134.  

 

Reviews

There are no reviews yet.

Be the first to review “An Introduction To Brain And Behavior 5Th Ed By Kolb – Test Bank”

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *