Test Bank For Infants Children and Adolescents 8th Edition Berk Meyers

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Infants Children and Adolescents 8th Edition Berk Meyers

 

Chapter 1
history, theory, and research strategies

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   The central questions addressed by the field of child development

  1. A) are primarily of scientific interest.
  2. B) have applied, or practical, importance.
  3. C) are based exclusively on research conducted by psychologists.
  4. D) involve all changes a person experiences throughout the lifespan.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 4

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.1

2)   Which of the following statements regarding the major domains of development is true?

  1. A) The domains of development are separate and distinct.
  2. B) Each period of development is made up of a new set of domains.
  3. C) The physical domain has little influence on the other domains.
  4. D) Development is divided into three broad domains.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 5

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.2

3)   During which period of development does a sense of morality become evident?

  1. A) infancy and toddlerhood
  2. B) early childhood
  3. C) middle childhood
  4. D) adolescence

Answer: B

Page Ref: 6

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.2

4)   Which of the following statements about emerging adulthood is true?

  1. A) It is a period of development that spans from age 15 to 21 years.
  2. B) It is a period of development unique to underdeveloped nations.
  3. C) Although emerging adults have moved beyond adolescence, they have not yet fully assumed adult roles.
  4. D) It is a period of development mostly limited to young people in developing nations.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 6

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.2

5)   Theories are vital tools because they

  1. A) provide organizing frameworks for our observations of children.
  2. B) provide the ultimate truth about child development.
  3. C) do not require scientific verification.
  4. D) are resistant to the influence of cultural values and belief systems.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 7

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.3

6)   In what important way do theories differ from mere opinion or belief?

  1. A) They are influenced by cultural values.
  2. B) They depend on scientific verification.
  3. C) They explain all aspects of development.
  4. D) They cannot be tested using research procedures.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 7

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.3

7)   Reid believes that the difference between the immature and the mature being is simply one of amount or complexity. Reid views development as

  1. A)
  2. B) determined by nature.
  3. C)
  4. D) determined by nurture.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 7–8

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.3

8)   Jessica believes that development takes place in stages where children change rapidly as they step up to a new level and then change very little for a while. Jessica views development as

  1. A)
  2. B) determined by nature.
  3. C)
  4. D) determined by nurture.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 8

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.3

9)   In stage theories, development is

  1. A) a smooth, continuous process.
  2. B) gradual and ongoing.
  3. C) like climbing a staircase.
  4. D) a gradual addition of the same types of skills.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 8

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.3

10)   In her research, Dr. Rosenblum explores why shy children develop differently from their outgoing agemates. Dr. Rosenblum most likely emphasizes __________ in her research.

  1. A) the role of distinct contexts
  2. B) the nature–nurture controversy
  3. C) the concept of stage
  4. D) continuous development

Answer: A

Page Ref: 8

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.3

11)   Charlene believes that her daughter’s ability to think in complex ways is largely the result of a built-in timetable of growth. Charlene’s view emphasizes

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) early experiences.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 9

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.3

12)   Theorists who believe that children who are high or low in a characteristic will remain so at later ages typically stress the importance of

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer: A

Page Ref: 9

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.3

13)   Theorists who emphasize plasticity believe that

  1. A) early experiences establish a lifelong pattern of behavior.
  2. B) heredity, rather than the environment, influences behavior.
  3. C) children who are high or low in a characteristic will remain so at later ages.
  4. D) development is open to change in response to influential experiences.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 9

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.3

14)   According to research on resilience, which of the following children has an increased chance of offsetting the impact of a stressful home life?

  1. A) Luke, who is an irritable child
  2. B) Michelle, who is an emotionally reactive child
  3. C) Noah, who is a talented musician
  4. D) Sarah, who associates with rule-breaking peers

Answer: C

Page Ref: 10–11 Box: Biology and Environment: Resilient Children

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.3

15)   The most consistent asset of resilient children is

  1. A) high self-esteem.
  2. B) access to high-quality child care.
  3. C) a strong bond with a competent, caring adult.
  4. D) being identified as gifted.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 11 Box: Biology and Environment: Resilient Children

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.3

16)   In medieval times,

  1. A) children dressed and acted like adults.
  2. B) clear awareness existed of children as vulnerable beings.
  3. C) children were viewed as tabula rasas.
  4. D) childhood was not regarded as a distinct developmental period.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 12

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

17)   During the Reformation, the Puritans

  1. A) characterized children as innocent and close to angels.
  2. B) regarded children as fully mature by the time they were 7 or 8 years old.
  3. C) recommended permissive child-rearing practices.
  4. D) believed that children were born evil and had to be civilized.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 12

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

18)   According to John Locke’s view, children begin

  1. A) with a soul tainted by original sin.
  2. B) as nothing at all.
  3. C) as noble savages.
  4. D) as evil and stubborn.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 12

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.4

19)   John Locke opposed the use of

  1. A) praise as a reward.
  2. B) negative reinforcement.
  3. C) physical punishment.
  4. D) any form of discipline.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 12

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

20)   All contemporary child development theories view children as

  1. A) naturally endowed with a sense of right and wrong.
  2. B) passive and emotionally fragile.
  3. C) adults in training.
  4. D) active, purposeful beings.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 13

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.4

21)   Jean-Jacques Rousseau saw children as

  1. A) determining their own destinies.
  2. B) blank slates to be filled by adult instruction.
  3. C) tainted by original sin.
  4. D) passive and highly plastic.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 13

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

22)   Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution emphasized __________ and __________.

  1. A) the normative approach; survival of the fittest
  2. B) noble savages; physical maturation
  3. C) tabula rasa; natural selection
  4. D) natural selection; survival of the fittest

Answer: D

Page Ref: 13

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

23)   __________ is generally regarded as the founder of the child-study movement.

  1. A) John Locke
  2. B) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
  3. C) Charles Darwin
  4. D) Stanley Hall

Answer: D

Page Ref: 13

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

24)   Inspired by Charles Darwin’s work, G. Stanley Hall and his student, Arnold Gesell,

  1. A) laid the modern foundations of ethology.
  2. B) developed the concept of sensitive periods in development.
  3. C) devised theories based on evolutionary ideas.
  4. D) constructed the first intelligence test.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 13

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

25)   Arnold Gesell

  1. A) was among the first to make knowledge about child development meaningful to parents.
  2. B) viewed children as noble savages, naturally endowed with a sense of right and wrong.
  3. C) concluded that child development follows the same general plan as human evolution.
  4. D) constructed the first successful intelligence test, together with his colleague, Alfred Binet.

Answer:   A

Page Ref: 14

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

26)   Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon’s intelligence test was developed as a way to

  1. A) identify children with learning problems who needed to be placed in special classes.
  2. B) accurately predict school achievement and vocational success.
  3. C) document developmental improvements in children’s intellectual functioning.
  4. D) measure individual differences in development as a function of race, gender, and birth order.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 14

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.4

27)   According to __________, children move through a series of stages in which they confront conflicts between biological drives and social expectations.

  1. A) the normative approach
  2. B) behaviorism
  3. C) social learning theory
  4. D) the psychoanalytic perspective

Answer: D

Page Ref: 15

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

28)   Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory

  1. A) was developed through careful observations of his own children.
  2. B) emphasizes that how parents manage their child’s fears is crucial for healthy sexual development.
  3. C) emphasizes five parts of the personality that become integrated during a sequence of three stages.
  4. D) was developed through having emotionally troubled adults talk freely about painful events of their childhoods.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 15

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

29)   Freud’s theory was the first to stress the influence of __________ on development.

  1. A) observational learning
  2. B) rewards and punishment
  3. C) cultural norms
  4. D) the early parent–child relationship

Answer: D

Page Ref: 15

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

30)   Unlike Freud, Erikson

  1. A) viewed children as taking a more active role in their own development.
  2. B) pointed out that normal development must be understood in relation to each culture’s life situation.
  3. C) minimized the role of culture in individual development.
  4. D) primarily focused on the importance of early life experiences.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 15

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

31)   One reason that the psychoanalytic perspective is no longer in the mainstream of child development research is because

  1. A) many psychoanalytic ideas, such as ego functioning, are too vague to be tested empirically.
  2. B) psychoanalytic theorists accept the clinical method in which age-related averages represent typical development.
  3. C) modern researchers have demonstrated that personality development does not take place in stages.
  4. D) it failed to consider the early parent–child relationship, which is central to modern theories.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

32)   Dr. Faulkner believes that directly observable events—stimuli and responses—are the appropriate focus of the study of child development. Which of the following perspectives of child development does Dr. Faulkner probably follow?

  1. A) psychosexual theory
  2. B) psychosocial theory
  3. C) behaviorism
  4. D) cognitive-developmental theory

Answer: C

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

33)   Ivan Pavlov taught dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell by using

  1. A) operant conditioning.
  2. B) classical conditioning.
  3. C) innate reflexes.
  4. D)

Answer: B

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

34)   Consistent with Locke’s tabula rasa, John Watson concluded that __________ is the supreme force in development.

  1. A) nature
  2. B) early experience
  3. C) environment
  4. D) cognition

Answer: C

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

35)   According to B. F. Skinner, the frequency of a behavior can be increased by following it with a wide variety of

  1. A)
  2. B) negative stimuli.
  3. C) stimulus–response associations.
  4. D)

Answer: D

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

36)   On a few occasions, Jack’s mother gave him candy to keep him quiet when she took him to the doctor’s office. Now every time Jack goes to the doctor’s office, he asks his mother for candy. This is an example of

  1. A) classical conditioning.
  2. B) operant conditioning.
  3. C) observational learning.
  4. D)

Answer: B

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

37)   Social learning theory

  1. A) emphasizes modeling, also known as imitation or observational learning, as a powerful source of development.
  2. B) maintains that behaviorism offers little or no effective explanation of the development of children’s social behavior.
  3. C) is criticized because it places little emphasis on how children are influenced by the behavior of their parents and peers.
  4. D) emphasizes classical over operant conditioning and relies heavily on the concepts of psychoanalytic theory.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

38)   At home, Paul’s parents hit him as punishment for misbehavior. At preschool, Paul angrily hits a playmate who takes his toy. According to social learning theory, Paul is displaying

  1. A) classical conditioning.
  2. B) operant conditioning.
  3. C) behavior modification.
  4. D) observational learning.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 17

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

39)   The most recent revision of Albert Bandura’s theory places such strong emphasis on how children think about themselves and other people that he calls it a(n) __________ rather than a(n) __________ approach.

  1. A) observational learning; social-cognitive
  2. B) social-cognitive; social learning
  3. C) social learning; social-cognitive
  4. D) social learning; observational learning

Answer: B

Page Ref: 18

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

40)   Which of the following is an example of applied behavior analysis?

  1. A) letting children with burn injuries play a virtual reality game while nurses change their bandages
  2. B) modeling quiet reading for children to teach them to sit quietly while they read
  3. C) talking with children about fears in an attempt to uncover the underlying cause of thumb sucking
  4. D) punishing a child by hitting him and then noticing that the child angrily hits a playmate in the same way

Answer: A

Page Ref: 18

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

41)   Both behaviorism and social learning theory have been criticized for

  1. A) overestimating children’s contributions to their own development.
  2. B) presenting ideas that are too vague to test empirically.
  3. C) emphasizing nature over nurture.
  4. D) underestimating children’s contributions to their own development.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 18

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

42)   According to Jean Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory,

  1. A) development must be understood in relation to each child’s culture.
  2. B) children’s sense of self-efficacy guides their responses in particular situations.
  3. C) children actively construct knowledge as they manipulate and explore their world.
  4. D) children’s learning depends on reinforcers, such as rewards from adults.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 19

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

43)   The biological concept of __________ is central to Piaget’s theory.

  1. A) reinforcement
  2. B) adaptation
  3. C) imitation
  4. D) physical growth

Answer: B

Page Ref: 19

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

44)   According to Piaget, __________ is the balance between internal structures and information that children encounter in their everyday worlds.

  1. A) imitation
  2. B) adaptation
  3. C) cognition
  4. D) equilibrium

Answer: D

Page Ref: 19

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.5

45)   According to Piaget’s theory, in the sensorimotor stage, children

  1. A) can think of all possible outcomes in a scientific problem.
  2. B) organize objects into hierarchies of classes and subclasses.
  3. C) “think” by acting on the world with their eyes, ears, hands, and mouth.
  4. D) can evaluate the logic of verbal statements without referring to real-world circumstances.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 19

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

46)   Jamar understands that a certain amount of liquid or clay remains the same even after its appearance changes and can organize objects into hierarchies of classes and subclasses. According to Piaget, Jamar is in the __________ stage of cognitive development.

  1. A) sensorimotor
  2. B) preoperational
  3. C) concrete operational
  4. D) sociocultural

Answer: C

Page Ref: 19

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

47)   Ms. Harper’s classroom environment is based on Piaget’s theory of cognitive development. Ms. Harper’s program probably emphasizes

  1. A) joint problem solving with older children or adults.
  2. B) reinforcing children with tokens that they may exchange for treats.
  3. C) formal mathematics and language drills.
  4. D) discovery learning and direct contact with the environment.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 20

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.5

48)   Research on Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory indicates that

  1. A) he overestimated the competencies of infants and young children.
  2. B) children generally reach their full intellectual potential, regardless of education and experience.
  3. C) children’s performance on Piagetian problems can be improved with training.
  4. D) his stagewise account overemphasizes social and cultural influences on development.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 21

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.5

49)   Dr. Brewer views the human mind as a symbol-manipulating system through which information flows. Dr. Brewer’s view is consistent with

  1. A) information processing.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) sociocultural theory.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 21

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

50)   In a research study, 10-year-old Joe was given a pile of blocks varying in size, shape, and weight and was asked to build a bridge over a “river” (painted on a floor map) that was too wide for any single block to span. The researcher carefully tracked Joe’s efforts using a flowchart. The researcher was probably applying which recent theoretical perspective?

  1. A) ecological systems theory
  2. B) evolutionary developmental psychology
  3. C) information processing
  4. D) sociocultural theory

Answer: C

Page Ref: 22

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

51)   Both Piaget’s theory and the information-processing approach

  1. A) regard children as active beings who modify their own thinking in response to environmental demands.
  2. B) focus on the development of imagination and creativity.
  3. C) regard perception, memory, and problem solving as similar at all ages.
  4. D) emphasize the importance of equilibration in producing higher levels of thinking.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 22

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

52)   Unlike Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, the information-processing approach

  1. A) uses clinical interviews to determine a child’s stage of development.
  2. B) does not divide development into stages.
  3. C) characterizes each developmental stage by qualitatively distinct ways of thinking.
  4. D) views development as a discontinuous process.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 22

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

53)   The information-processing approach has little to say about

  1. A) linear cognition.
  2. B) how children think at different ages.
  3. C) logical cognition.
  4. D) imagination and creativity.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 23

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

54)   Dr. Singh studies the relationship between changes in the brain and the developing child’s cognitive processing and behavior patterns. She is part of a group of researchers from the fields of psychology, biology, neuroscience, and medicine. Dr. Singh would most likely consider herself to be a(n)

  1. A)
  2. B) developmental cognitive neuroscientist.
  3. C) evolutionary developmental psychologist.
  4. D) information-processing researcher.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 23

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

55)   Dr. Langley is dedicated to uncovering the neurological bases of autism—the disrupted brain structures and networks that lead to the impaired social skills, language delays, and repetitive motor behavior of this disorder. Which of the following areas is Dr. Langley conducting research in?

  1. A) developmental cognitive neuroscience
  2. B) information processing
  3. C) developmental social neuroscience
  4. D) cognitive-developmental theory

Answer: C

Page Ref: 23

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

56)   Which of the following recent theoretical perspectives is concerned with the adaptive, or survival, value of behavior and its evolutionary history?

  1. A) information processing
  2. B) ethology
  3. C) sociocultural theory
  4. D) ecological systems theory

Answer: B

Page Ref: 24

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.6

57)   Observations of imprinting led to which of the following major concepts in child development?

  1. A) behavior modification
  2. B) observational learning
  3. C) the critical period
  4. D) the chronosystem

Answer: C

Page Ref: 24

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.6

58)   The term sensitive period applies better to human development than the strict notion of a critical period because

  1. A) its boundaries are less well-defined than are those of a critical period.
  2. B) the capacity to acquire certain skills cannot occur later than the optimal period.
  3. C) there are more sensitive periods than critical periods in human development.
  4. D) sensitive periods, but not critical periods, have been empirically tested.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 24

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

59)   Dr. McMath is an evolutionary developmental psychologist. Which of the following statements about Dr. McMath is probably true?

  1. A) He is primarily concerned with the genetic and biological bases of development.
  2. B) He wants to understand the entire person–environment system.
  3. C) He is primarily concerned with environmental influences on development.
  4. D) He focuses on how culture is transmitted to the next generation.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 25

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

60)   According to Vygotsky’s theory,

  1. A) today’s lifestyles differ so radically from those of our evolutionary ancestors that certain evolved behaviors are no longer adaptive.
  2. B) children shape their own development during both sensitive and critical developmental periods.
  3. C) children revise incorrect ideas in their ongoing efforts to achieve equilibrium between internal structures and every-day information.
  4. D) social interaction is necessary for children to acquire the ways of thinking and behaving that make up a community’s culture.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 25

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

61)   Unlike Piaget, Vygotsky

  1. A) emphasized children’s capacity to shape their own development.
  2. B) viewed cognitive development as a socially mediated process.
  3. C) believed that children undergo certain stagewise changes.
  4. D) focused on discontinuous change.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 25

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

62)   Which of the following behaviors is consistent with Vygotsky’s theory?

  1. A) When his mother takes him to the grocery store, Tom is well-behaved because he knows that his mother will reward him with candy.
  2. B) When playing on the beach, Kehaulani builds the same sort of sand castle that she observed her younger sister building a few days ago.
  3. C) Yesica, a Brazilian child candy seller with no schooling, develops sophisticated mathematical abilities as a result of her work.
  4. D) When trying to solve a math equation, Otto tries several formulas before he stumbles on the correct one and solves the equation.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 26

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

63)   Research stimulated by Vygotsky’s theory reveals that

  1. A) heredity and brain growth contribute significantly to social development.
  2. B) the stages of cognitive development are universal.
  3. C) children in every culture develop unique strengths.
  4. D) adults begin to encourage culturally valued skills as soon as children begin school.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 26

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

64)   Ecological systems theory views the child as

  1. A) a blossoming flower, and it regards development as a maturational process, similar to blooming.
  2. B) developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment.
  3. C) a social being influenced primarily by observational learning, imitation, and adult modeling.
  4. D) a computer-like system that actively codes, transforms, and organizes complex information.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 26

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

65)   In Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the __________ consists of activities and interaction patterns in the child’s immediate surroundings.

  1. A) microsystem
  2. B) mesosystem
  3. C) exosystem
  4. D) macrosystem

Answer: A

Page Ref: 26

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.6

66)   According to ecological systems theory, a parent’s workplace is in the

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer: C

Page Ref: 27

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

67)   Family chaos

  1. A) is limited to economically disadvantaged households.
  2. B) does not occur when families engage in joint activities.
  3. C) induces in children feelings of powerlessness.
  4. D) is an unavoidable byproduct of today’s busy world.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 28 Box: Social Issues: Health: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

68)   __________ can help prevent escalating demands on families that give way to chaos.

  1. A) Ethnographic research
  2. B) Absence of daily structure
  3. C) Compression of family routines
  4. D) High-quality child care that is affordable and reliable

Answer: D

Page Ref: 28 Box: Social Issues: Health: Family Chaos Undermines Children’s Well-Being

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

69)   Dr. Jones believes that a child’s mind, body, and physical and social worlds form an integrated system that guides mastery of new skills. The system is constantly in motion. His view is consistent with which recent theoretical perspective?

  1. A) evolutionary developmental psychology
  2. B) sociocultural theory
  3. C) ecological systems theory
  4. D) dynamic systems perspective

Answer: D

Page Ref: 29

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.6

70)   Dynamic systems theorists emphasize that

  1. A) children are driven mainly by instincts and unconscious motives.
  2. B) different skills vary in maturity within the same child.
  3. C) sensitive periods are key to understanding development.
  4. D) development can be best understood in terms of its adaptive value.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 29

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.6

71)   Which of the following two major theories emphasize emotional and social development?

  1. A) the psychoanalytic perspective and ethology
  2. B) ethology and Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory
  3. C) behaviorism and the dynamic systems perspective
  4. D) ecological systems theory and social learning theory

Answer: A

Page Ref: 30

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.7

72)   Both __________ and __________ stress changes in thinking.

  1. A) behaviorism; social learning theory
  2. B) cognitive-developmental theory; information processing
  3. C) ethology; the psychoanalytic perspective
  4. D) the dynamic systems perspective; ecological systems theory

Answer: B

Page Ref: 30

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.7

73)   Both __________ and __________ emphasize many possible courses of development.

  1. A) the psychoanalytic perspective; ethology
  2. B) ethology; evolutionary developmental psychology
  3. C) cognitive-developmental theory; behaviorism
  4. D) behaviorism; social learning theory

Answer: D

Page Ref: 31

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.7

74)   A major limitation of naturalistic observation is that

  1. A) the findings cannot be generalized beyond the participants and settings in which the research was originally conducted.
  2. B) researchers cannot control the conditions under which participants are observed.
  3. C) the research may not yield observations typical of participants’ behavior in everyday life.
  4. D) participants may not accurately report their thoughts, feelings, and experiences.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 33

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

75)   Dr. Brown observes behavior in a laboratory, where conditions are the same for all participants. This is an example of

  1. A) the clinical, or case study, method.
  2. B) structured observation.
  3. C) naturalistic observation.
  4. D)

Answer: B

Page Ref: 33

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.8

76)   A major advantage of structured observation is that it

  1. A) is useful for studying behaviors that investigators rarely have an opportunity to see in everyday life.
  2. B) permits participants to display their thoughts in terms that are as close as possible to the way they think in everyday life.
  3. C) yields richly detailed narratives that offer valuable insight into the many factors that affect development.
  4. D) allows researchers to see the behavior of interest as it occurs in natural settings.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 34

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

77)   Dr. Kempsell combines interviews, observations, and test scores to obtain a full picture of one individual’s psychological functioning. This is an example of

  1. A) naturalistic observation.
  2. B) structured observation.
  3. C) a structured interview.
  4. D) the clinical, or case study, method.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 35

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.8

78)   Dr. Bigelow is interested in studying musical prodigies. Which of the following research methods is best suited for this type of research?

  1. A) naturalistic observation
  2. B) clinical interview
  3. C) the clinical, or case study, method
  4. D) structured interview

Answer: C

Page Ref: 35

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.8

79)   Which of the following research methods utilizes participant observation?

  1. A) the clinical, or case study, method
  2. B) naturalistic observation
  3. C) ethnography
  4. D) structured observation

Answer: C

Page Ref: 36

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

80)   Dr. Newman spent three years in Botswana, participating in the daily life of a community there. She gathered extensive field notes, consisting of a mix of self-reports from members of the community and her own observations. Which of the following research methods did Dr. Newman most likely use in her research?

  1. A) ethnography
  2. B) structured observation
  3. C) the microgenetic design
  4. D) the clinical, or case study, method

Answer: A

Page Ref: 36

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.8

81)   Compared to their agemates, adolescents from immigrant families are __________ likely to __________.

  1. A) more; commit delinquent and violent acts
  2. B) more; use drugs and alcohol
  3. C) more; have early sex
  4. D) less; commit delinquent and violent acts

Answer: D

Page Ref: 37 Box: Cultural Influence: Immigrant Youths: Adapting to a New Land

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

82)   Immigrant parents of successful youths typically

  1. A) view school successes as less important than native-born parents.
  2. B) develop close ties to an ethnic community.
  3. C) encourage full assimilation into the majority culture.
  4. D) stress individualistic values over collectivist values.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 37 Box: Cultural Influence: Immigrant Youths: Adapting to a New Land

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

83)   Which of the following is a limitation of the ethnographic method?

  1. A) Research may not yield observations typical of participants’ behavior in everyday life.
  2. B) Research does not yield as much information as naturalistic observations or structured interviews.
  3. C) Commonly used research techniques tend to ignore cultural and social influences that affect development.
  4. D) The findings cannot be assumed to generalize beyond the people and settings in which the research was conducted.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 36

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.8

84)   Two main types of designs used in all research on human behavior are __________ and __________.

  1. A) observational; experimental
  2. B) correlational; experimental
  3. C) observational; correlational
  4. D) variable; observational

Answer: B

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

85)   Which of the following statements about the correlational design is true?

  1. A) Researchers gather information on individuals and make no effort to alter their experiences.
  2. B) Unlike the experimental design, it permits inferences of cause and effect.
  3. C) Researchers use an evenhanded procedure to assign people to two or more treatment conditions.
  4. D) In an experiment, the events and behaviors of interest are divided into independent and dependent variables.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

86)   One major limitation of correlational studies is that

  1. A) researchers alter the experiences of those studied.
  2. B) researchers do not gather information about everyday life.
  3. C) researchers cannot make inferences about cause and effect.
  4. D) the results cannot be generalized to other people and settings.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.9

87)   Dr. Zielke’s research shows that the death of a spouse in old age is correlated with a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health. Which of the following conclusions is supported by this study?

  1. A) The death of a spouse causes a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health.
  2. B) The death of a spouse is related to a decline in the surviving partner’s physical health.
  3. C) A decline in a surviving partner’s physical health can cause the death of a spouse.
  4. D) A third variable, such as memory loss, causes a surviving partner’s decline in physical health.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

88)   In interpreting a correlation coefficient,

  1. A) the magnitude of the number shows the direction of the relationship.
  2. B) the sign of the number shows the strength of the relationship.
  3. C) a positive sign means that as one variable increases, the other decreases.
  4. D) a zero correlation indicates no relationship.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.9

89)   A correlation of +.55 between preschool attendance and self-esteem indicates that children who attend preschool have __________ self-esteem scores than children who do not attend preschool.

  1. A) moderately higher
  2. B) significantly higher
  3. C) significantly lower
  4. D) moderately lower

Answer: A

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

90)   In an experimental design,

  1. A) the events and behaviors are divided into two types: independent and dependent variables.
  2. B) investigators are unable to control for participants’ characteristics that could reduce the accuracy of their findings.
  3. C) researchers infer cause and effect by directly controlling or manipulating changes in the dependent variable.
  4. D) researchers gather information on individuals, generally in natural life circumstances, and make no effort to alter their experiences.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.9

91)   The independent variable is the one

  1. A) the investigator expects to be influenced by another variable.
  2. B) that is randomly assigned.
  3. C) that shows the strength of the correlational relationship.
  4. D) the investigator expects to cause changes in another variable.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 38

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

92)   In an experiment examining whether a specific type of intervention improves the psychological adjustment of shy children, the independent variable would be the

  1. A) type of intervention.
  2. B) number of children in the subject pool who are shy.
  3. C) number of shy children who benefit from the intervention.
  4. D) measure of psychological adjustment.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 38–39

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

93)   In an experiment examining whether phonics instruction in preschool increases a child’s reading level in third grade, the dependent variable would be the

  1. A) type of phonics instruction.
  2. B) number of children in the experiment.
  3. C) child’s reading level in third grade.
  4. D) frequency of phonics instruction.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 38–39

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

94)   When a researcher directly controls or manipulates changes in the independent variable by exposing participants to the treatment conditions,

  1. A) she is conducting a correlational study.
  2. B) cause-and-effect relationships can be detected.
  3. C) the correlational coefficient should be zero.
  4. D) she is using a technique called matching.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 39

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.9

95)   Dr. Riley wanted to know if adolescent computer use has an immediate effect on sustained attention. Dr. Riley assigned participants into one of two groups (computer use vs. no computer use) by flipping a coin. Dr. Riley used

  1. A)
  2. B) random assignment.
  3. C) a correlational design.
  4. D) a field experiment.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 39

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

96)   In a procedure called __________, participants are measured before the experiment on the factor in question.

  1. A) random assignment
  2. B) selection
  3. C) matching
  4. D) correlation

Answer: C

Page Ref: 39

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

97)   Professor Spinner wanted to compare how children from different family environments made friends at school. He carefully chose participants to ensure that their characteristics were as much alike as possible. Professor Spinner observed the participants in the school setting. Professor Spinner used

  1. A) a laboratory experiment.
  2. B) random assignment.
  3. C) a natural, or quasi-, experiment.
  4. D) a correlational design.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 40

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.9

98)   In __________ experiments, control over the treatment is usually weaker than in __________ experiments.

  1. A) laboratory; natural
  2. B) laboratory; field
  3. C) field; laboratory
  4. D) correlational; field

Answer: C

Page Ref: 40

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

99)   In natural, or quasi-, experiments,

  1. A) random assignment helps protect against reduction in the accuracy of the findings.
  2. B) researchers combine random assignment with the matching technique.
  3. C) cause-and-effect inferences cannot be made.
  4. D) lack of random assignment substantially reduces the precision of the research.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 40

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.9

100)  In a __________ design, participants are studied repeatedly, and changes are noted as they get older.

  1. A) correlational
  2. B) longitudinal
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) sequential

Answer: B

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.9

101)  To examine whether participants’ popularity was stable or changed across the years, Dr. Cotter followed a group of children from ages 5 to 18 years. This is an example of a __________ design.

  1. A) sequential
  2. B) microgenetic
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) longitudinal

Answer: D

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

102)  Longitudinal research can identify common patterns as well as individual differences in development because the investigator

  1. A) studies groups of participants differing in age at the same point in time.
  2. B) randomly assigns participants to treatment conditions.
  3. C) tracks the performance of each person over time.
  4. D) conducts quasi-experiments, comparing conditions that already exist.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

103)  One strength of longitudinal studies is that investigators can

  1. A) collect a large amount of data in a short time span.
  2. B) explore similarities among different aged participants at the same time.
  3. C) ensure that participants adequately represent the population of interest.
  4. D) examine relationships between early and later events and behaviors.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

104)  Dr. Stamina’s longitudinal study on Native American personality styles was criticized because he failed to enlist participants who adequately represented the Native American population. This limitation is known as

  1. A) cohort effects.
  2. B) selective attrition.
  3. C) practice effects.
  4. D) biased sampling.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

105)  Bernadette, a participant in a longitudinal study, became quite familiar with the test over time and, as a result, her performance improved. This limitation of longitudinal research is known as

  1. A) biased sampling.
  2. B) practice effects.
  3. C) random assignment.
  4. D) cohort effects.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

106)  The most widely discussed threat to the accuracy of longitudinal findings is

  1. A) practice effects.
  2. B) cohort effects.
  3. C) selective attrition.
  4. D) biased sampling.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.10

107)  Cohort effects occur when

  1. A) participants in longitudinal studies become “test-wise” from repeated study.
  2. B) particular cultural and historical conditions influence participants born at the same time.
  3. C) participants in longitudinal studies move away or drop out of the research.
  4. D) participants in a study have a special appreciation for the scientific value of research.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 41

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

108)  Dr. Kirk wants to study sibling relationships at differing ages. Dr. Kirk has children with one or more siblings in grades 3, 6, 9, and 12 complete his questionnaire. This is an example of a __________ study.

  1. A) cross-sectional
  2. B) longitudinal
  3. C) microgenetic
  4. D) sequential

Answer: A

Page Ref: 42

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

109)  Because participants are measured only once in the cross-sectional design, researchers need not be concerned about such difficulties as __________ and __________.

  1. A) cohort effects; practice effects
  2. B) selective attrition; cohort effects
  3. C) cohort effects; biased sampling
  4. D) participant dropout; practice effects

Answer: D

Page Ref: 42

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.10

110)  A disadvantage of cross-sectional research is that

  1. A) it is more inefficient and inconvenient than longitudinal research.
  2. B) it does not provide evidence about change at the individual level.
  3. C) it can be threatened by practice effects and participant dropout.
  4. D) age-related changes cannot be examined.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 42

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

111)  In an effort to overcome some of the limitations of traditional developmental designs, Dr. Francisco conducted several similar cross-sectional studies at varying times. Dr. Francisco used the __________ design.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) experimental
  3. C) sequential
  4. D) correlational

Answer: C

Page Ref: 43

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

112)  One advantage of the sequential design is that

  1. A) researchers can find out whether cohort effects are operating by comparing participants of the same age who were born in different years.
  2. B) it permits cause-and-effect inferences by studying groups of people differing in age at the same point in time.
  3. C) it presents participants with a novel task and follows their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
  4. D) it is especially useful for studying the strategies children use to acquire new knowledge in reading and science.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 43

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

113)  Using the __________ design, researchers observe how developmental change occurs.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) cross-sectional
  3. C) sequential
  4. D) microgenetic

Answer: D

Page Ref: 44

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

114)  Professor Story is interested in studying the strategies children use to acquire new knowledge in reading. The best design for Professor Story to use would be the __________ design.

  1. A) longitudinal
  2. B) microgenetic
  3. C) cross-sectional
  4. D) sequential

Answer: B

Page Ref: 44

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.10

115)  One limitation of microgenetic studies is that

  1. A) participant dropout often distorts developmental trends.
  2. B) they are difficult to carry out.
  3. C) they often create ethical issues.
  4. D) cohort effects often limit the generalizability of the findings.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 44

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.10

116)  Research that combines a(n) __________ strategy with a __________ approach, with the aim of augmenting development, is becoming increasingly common because it permits both correlational and causal inferences.

  1. A) longitudinal; sequential
  2. B) experimental; longitudinal
  3. C) cross-sectional; microgenetic
  4. D) correlational; experimental

Answer: B

Page Ref: 44

Skill: Understand

Objective: 1.11

117)  An investigator wanted to speak candidly with high school students about their use of substances. He felt that the students would be more honest if their parents were unaware that they were participating in the study. If the investigator chooses to interview the students without their parents’ knowledge, he will violate which of the following children’s research rights?

  1. A) privacy
  2. B) protection from harm
  3. C) informed consent
  4. D) beneficial treatments

Answer: C

Page Ref: 45

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.11

118)  A researcher studying the effects of a certain pain reliever on children with chronic pain gave one group of children the pain medication and gave a placebo (or sugar pill) to another group of children. After the results were recorded, the placebo group did not receive real pain medication. This violates which of the following children’s research rights?

  1. A) privacy
  2. B) beneficial treatments
  3. C) informed consent
  4. D) knowledge of results

Answer: B

Page Ref: 45

Skill: Apply

Objective: 1.11

119)  The ultimate responsibility for the ethical integrity of research with children lies with the

  1. A)
  2. B) institutional review board (IRB).
  3. C)
  4. D) child’s parents.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 45

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.11

120)  Which of the following statements about debriefing is true?

  1. A) Young children often lack the cognitive skills to understand the reasons for deceptive procedures.
  2. B) It should be done with children, and usually works well, but it does not have to be done with adults.
  3. C) Researchers use it when participants cannot fully appreciate the research goals and activities.
  4. D) It involves explaining to research participants that they have the right to alternative beneficial treatments.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 46

Skill: Remember

Objective: 1.11

ESSAY

121)  Identify the three basic issues on which theories of child development take a stand, and briefly describe the opposing views taken on each basic issue.

Answer:   The three basic issues on which theories of child development take a stand and the opposing views taken on each issue are as follows:

  1. Is the course of development continuous or development? If development is continuous—a process of gradually adding more of the same types of skills that were there to begin with—then infants and preschoolers respond to the world in much the same way as adults do. The difference between the immature and the mature being is simply one of amount or complexity. If development is discontinuous—a process in which new ways of understanding and responding to the world emerge at specific times—then infants and children have unique ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving, ones quite different from adults.
  2. Does one course of development characterize all children, or are there many possible courses? Theories that accept the discontinuous perspective regard development as taking place in stages—qualitative changes in thinking, feeling, and behaving that characterize specific periods of development. Stage theorists assume that people everywhere follow the same sequence of development. At the same time, the field of child development is becoming increasingly aware that children grow up in distinct contexts—unique combinations of personal and environmental circumstances that can result in different paths of change. Contemporary theorists regard the contexts that shape development as many-layered and complex. Different circumstances foster different cognitive capacities, social skills, and feelings about the self and others.
  3. What are the roles of genetic and environmental factors—nature and nurture—in development? The age-old nature–nurture controversy asks whether genetic or environmental factors are more important in influencing development. Although all theories grant roles to both nature and nurture, they vary in emphasis.

Page Ref: 7–9

122)  Define resilience, and describe the factors that seem to offer protection from the damaging effects of stressful life events.

Answer:   Resilience is the ability to adapt effectively in the face of threats to development. Four broad factors seem to offer protection from the damaging effects of stressful life events:

  1. Personal characteristics: A child’s genetically influenced characteristics can reduce exposure to risk or lead to experiences that compensate for early stressful events.
  2. A warm parental relationship: A close relationship with at least one parent who provides warmth, appropriately high expectations, monitoring of the child’s activities, and an organized home environment fosters resilience.
  3. Social support outside the immediate family: The most consistent asset of resilient children is a strong bond with a competent, caring adult. For children who do not have a close bond with either parent, a grandparent, aunt, uncle, or teacher who forms a special relationship with the child can promote resilience.
  4. Community resources and opportunities: Good schools, convenient and affordable health care and social services, libraries, and recreation centers foster both parents’ and children’s well-being.

Page Ref: 10–11 Box: Biology and Environment: Resilient Children

123)  Describe the contributions and limitations of behaviorism and social learning theory to the scientific study of human development.

Answer:   According to behaviorism, directly observable events—stimuli and responses—are the appropriate focus of study. Traditional behaviorists use classical and operant conditioning to mold children’s behavior. The most influential kind of social learning theory emphasizes modeling, also known as imitation or observational learning, as a powerful source of development. The most recent version of the theory places such strong emphasis on how children think about themselves and other people that it is called a social-cognitive approach.

Behaviorism and social learning theory have had a major impact on practices with children. Applied behavior analysis consists of observations of relationships between behavior and environmental events, followed by systematic changes in those events based on procedures of conditioning and modeling. The goal is to eliminate undesirable behaviors and increase desirable responses. It has been used to relieve a wide range of difficulties in children and adults, ranging from poor time management and unwanted habits to serious problems such as language delays, persistent aggression, and extreme fears.

Nevertheless, many theorists believe that behaviorism and social learning theory offer too narrow a view of important environmental influences, which extend beyond immediate reinforcement, punishment, and modeled behaviors to children’s rich physical and social worlds. Behaviorism and social learning theory have also been criticized for underestimating children’s contributions to their own development.

Page Ref: 17–18

124)  Compare and contrast the terms critical period and sensitive period, and discuss how observations of imprinting led to the development of these concepts.

Answer:   Watching diverse animal species in their natural habitats, European zoologists Konrad Lorenz and Niko Tinbergen observed behavior patterns that promote survival. The best known of these is imprinting, the early following behavior of certain baby birds, which ensures that the young will stay close to the mother and be fed and protected from danger. Imprinting takes place during an early, restricted period of development. If the mother is absent during this time but an object resembling her in important features is present, young birds may imprint on it instead.

Observations of imprinting led to a major concept in child development: the critical period. It is a limited time span during which the child is biologically prepared to acquire certain adaptive behaviors but needs the support of an appropriately stimulating environment. A sensitive period is a time that is biologically optimal for certain capacities to emerge because the individual is especially responsive to environmental influences. The idea of a sensitive period applies better to human development than the strict notion of a critical period. However, its boundaries are less well-defined than are those of a critical period. Development can occur later, but it is harder to induce.

Page Ref: 24

125)  Discuss ecological systems theory, and describe each level of the environment.

Answer:   Ecological systems theory views the child as developing within a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment. Since the child’s biologically influenced dispositions join with environmental forces to mold development, Urie Bronfenbrenner characterized his perspective as a bioecological model. He envisioned the environment as a series of interrelated, nested structures that form a complex functioning whole, or system. The microsystem concerns relations between the child and the immediate environment; the mesosytem includes connections among immediate settings; the exosystem includes social settings that affect but do not contain the child; and the macrosystem consists of the values, laws, customs, and resources of the culture that affect activities and interactions at all inner layers. The chronosystem is not a specific context. Instead, it refers to the dynamic nature of child development.

Page Ref: 26–29

126)  Two types of systematic observation used in child development research are naturalistic and structured observation. Explain the benefits and limitations of each.

Answer:   Observations of the behavior of children, and of adults who are important in their lives, can be made in different ways. One approach is to go into the field, or natural environment, and observe the behavior of interest—a method called naturalistic observation. The great strength of naturalistic observation is that investigators can see directly the everyday behaviors they hope to explain. One limitation of this research method is that not all individuals have the same opportunity to display a particular behavior in everyday life. Researchers commonly deal with this difficulty by making structured observations in a laboratory, where conditions are the same for all participants. In this approach, the investigator sets up a laboratory situation that evokes the behavior of interest so that every participant has an equal opportunity to display the response. Structured observation permits greater control over the research situation than does naturalistic observation. In addition, the method is especially useful for studying behaviors that investigators rarely have an opportunity to see in everyday life. A limitation of structured observation is that participants may not behave in the laboratory as they typically behave in their natural environment.

Page Ref: 32–34

127)  Describe some problems that investigators face in conducting longitudinal research.

Answer:   Despite their strengths, longitudinal investigations pose a number of problems. For example, biased sampling—the failure to enlist participants who adequately represent the population of interest—is a common problem. People who willingly participate in research that requires them to be observed and tested over many years are likely to have distinctive characteristics, such as a special appreciation for the scientific value of research. Furthermore, longitudinal samples generally become more biased as the investigation proceeds because of selective attrition. Participants may move away or drop out of the study for other reasons, and the ones who remain are likely to differ in important ways from the ones who do not continue. Also, from repeated study, people may become “test-wise.” Their performance may improve as a result of practice effects—better test-taking skills and increased familiarity with the test—not because of factors commonly associated with development. Finally, the most widely discussed threat to the accuracy of longitudinal findings is cultural–historical change, commonly called cohort effects. Longitudinal studies examine the development of cohorts—children born at the same time, who are influenced by particular cultural and historical conditions. Results based on one cohort may not apply to children developing at other times.

Page Ref: 41–42

128)  Why are ethical concerns heightened when children take part in research? How is informed consent used with children?

Answer:   The quest for scientific knowledge can sometimes exploit people. When children take part in research, the ethical concerns are especially complex. Children are more vulnerable than adults to physical and psychological harm. In addition, immaturity makes it difficult or impossible for children to evaluate for themselves what participation in research will mean. Thus, special ethical guidelines for research on children have been developed.

All research participants, including children, have the right to have explained to them, in language appropriate to their level of understanding, all aspects of the research that may affect their willingness to participate. When children are participants, informed consent of parents as well as others who act on the child’s behalf (such as school officials) should be obtained, preferably in writing. As soon as children are old enough to appreciate the purpose of the research, and certainly by 7 years of age, their own informed assent, or agreement, should be obtained in addition to parental consent. Children, and the adults responsible for them, have the right to discontinue participation in the research at any time.

Page Ref: 44­–45


Chapter 3
Prenatal Development

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1)   Today, in Western industrialized nations, the issue of whether to have children is a

  1. A) biological given.
  2. B) compelling social expectation.
  3. C) matter of true individual choice.
  4. D) matter of legacy.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 91

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

2)   Changing cultural values in Western industrialized nations allow people to __________ than a generation or two ago.

  1. A) have many children with less fear of social criticism
  2. B) remain childless with far less fear of social criticism
  3. C) more often emphasize societal obligation over individual fulfillment
  4. D) more often choose to give their first child a sibling

Answer: B

Page Ref: 91–92

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

3)   A survey of over 5,000 U.S. adults of childbearing age revealed that more than 90 percent

  1. A) do not want to have any children.
  2. B) have negative views about the idea of parenthood.
  3. C) have two or more children.
  4. D) already have children or are planning to have them.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 92

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

4)   When asked about the advantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

  1. A) the warm, affectionate relationship that children provide.
  2. B) having a source of financial support in later life.
  3. C) the sense of future continuity.
  4. D) the opportunity to deepen their marital relationship.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 92

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

5)   When asked about the disadvantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite

  1. A) loss of privacy.
  2. B) financial strain.
  3. C) role overload.
  4. D) work conflicts.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 92

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

6)   Greater freedom to choose whether, when, and how to have children makes contemporary family planning __________ than it was in the past.

  1. A) less challenging
  2. B) more intentional
  3. C) less important
  4. D) more random

Answer: B

Page Ref: 92

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

7)   Most U.S. adults plan to have

  1. A) no children.
  2. B) one child.
  3. C) no more than two children.
  4. D) at least three children.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 93

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

8)   Currently, the average number of children per woman of childbearing age is _____ in the United States.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 7
  3. C) 1
  4. D) 8

Answer: C

Page Ref: 93

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

9)   More often than in the past, couples today

  1. A) get divorced before their childbearing plans are complete.
  2. B) are confident about their readiness for parenthood.
  3. C) bring children into stable marriages.
  4. D) have their first child before the age of 25.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 93

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

10)   Which of the following statements is supported by research on family size?

  1. A) Parental quality declines as new children are born.
  2. B) New births lead to an increase in maternal affection toward older siblings.
  3. C) Limiting family size increases the chances of having children with high intelligence test scores.
  4. D) As new children are born, parents tend to reallocate their energies.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 93

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

11)   Research shows that only children __________ children with siblings.

  1. A) are more intelligent than
  2. B) are as well-adjusted as
  3. C) have more emotional problems than
  4. D) are less intelligent than

Answer: B

Page Ref: 94

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

12)   Which of the following statements about birthrate trends between 1970 and 2012 is true?

  1. A) The birthrate increased during this period for women 20 to 24 years of age.
  2. B) The birthrate decreased during this period for women 25 years of age and older.
  3. C) For women in their thirties, the birthrate during this period rose nearly fivefold.
  4. D) The greatest decline in the birthrate during this period was for women in their thirties.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 94

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.1

13)   Research on childbearing reveals that

  1. A) fertility problems do not increase for men between ages 25 and 45.
  2. B) fertility problems among women do not show any increase until age 40.
  3. C) reproductive technologies are equally successful among younger and older parents.
  4. D) a 40-year-old man is less fertile than a 25-year-old man.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 94

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.1

14)   An ovum bursts from one of a woman’s two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________.

  1. A) ovaries; testes
  2. B) fallopian tubes; ovaries
  3. C) fallopian tubes; placentas
  4. D) ovaries; fallopian tubes

Answer: D

Page Ref: 95

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

15)   The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.

  1. A) ovaries
  2. B) corpus luteum
  3. C) fallopian tubes
  4. D) cervix

Answer: B

Page Ref: 95

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

16)   The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________.

  1. A) penis; scrotum
  2. B) scrotum; penis
  3. C) testes; penis
  4. D) testes; scrotum

Answer: D

Page Ref: 95

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

17)   Sperm live for up to

  1. A) twelve hours.
  2. B) two days.
  3. C) four days.
  4. D) six days.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 96

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

18)   The ovum can survive for __________ after it is released into the fallopian tube.

  1. A) a couple of hours
  2. B) one day
  3. C) four days
  4. D) six days

Answer: B

Page Ref: 96

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

19)   Most conceptions result from intercourse

  1. A) during the first week of the menstrual cycle.
  2. B) during the last week of the menstrual cycle.
  3. C) on the day of ovulation or during the two days following it.
  4. D) on the day of ovulation or during the two days preceding it.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 96

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

20)   Following conception, the one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a(n) __________.

  1. A) blastocyst; zygote
  2. B) blastocyst; embryo
  3. C) zygote; blastocyst
  4. D) embryo; fetus

Answer: C

Page Ref: 96

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

21)   The germinal period lasts

  1. A) for about 13 weeks, or a trimester.
  2. B) from fertilization to implantation.
  3. C) for about 6 weeks.
  4. D) from conception to fertilization.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

22)   The __________ becomes the new organism.

  1. A) embryonic disk
  2. B) trophoblast
  3. C) amnion
  4. D) chorion

Answer: A

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

23)   The thin outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the

  1. A) new organism’s skin and hair.
  2. B) structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
  3. C) embryonic disk.
  4. D) nervous system and skin.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

24)   Between the seventh and the ninth days after fertilization, __________ occurs.

  1. A) the period of the embryo
  2. B) the period of the fetus
  3. C) implantation
  4. D) cell duplication

Answer: C

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

25)   The amnion

  1. A) develops into the nervous system and the skin.
  2. B) surrounds the chorion.
  3. C) contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism.
  4. D) encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

26)   The __________ produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function.

  1. A) amnion
  2. B) chorion
  3. C) placenta
  4. D) yolk sac

Answer: D

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

27)   Tiny fingerlike villi

  1. A) emerge from the chorion.
  2. B) become the skin.
  3. C) become the nervous system.
  4. D) develop the skeleton.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

28)   Valerie, two months pregnant, wonders how food and oxygen are delivered to the developing organism. You should tell Valerie that the __________ performs this function.

  1. A) chorion
  2. B) amnion
  3. C) placenta
  4. D) neural tube

Answer: C

Page Ref: 97

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

29)   The placenta is connected to the developing organism by the

  1. A) uterine wall.
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) umbilical cord.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

30)   The most rapid prenatal changes take place during the

  1. A) germinal period.
  2. B) period of the fetus.
  3. C) period of the embryo.
  4. D) final trimester.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

31)   The __________ becomes the nervous system.

  1. A) ectoderm
  2. B) mesoderm
  3. C) endoderm
  4. D) trophoblast

Answer: A

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

32)   At the beginning of the period of the embryo, the __________ system develops fastest.

  1. A) nervous
  2. B) circulatory
  3. C) digestive
  4. D) skeletal

Answer: A

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

33)   During the second month of pregnancy, the

  1. A) embryo reacts to light.
  2. B) embryo kicks and bends its arms.
  3. C) heart begins to pump blood.
  4. D) heart develops separate chambers.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

34)   During the second month of pregnancy, the embryo

  1. A) can be irritated by sounds.
  2. B) has rapid eye movements.
  3. C) responds to touch.
  4. D) shields its eyes in response to light.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 98

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

35)   During the period of the fetus, the

  1. A) developing organism increases rapidly in size.
  2. B) most rapid prenatal changes take place.
  3. C) heart begins to pump blood.
  4. D) brain is formed.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

36)   During the third month of pregnancy,

  1. A) the fetus can suck its thumb.
  2. B) tiny buds become arms, legs, fingers, and toes.
  3. C) neuron production begins.
  4. D) the eyes, ears, and nose form.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

37)   Mel wonders when he will be able to find out the sex of his baby. You tell him that he should be able to detect the sex of the fetus with ultrasound by the __________ week of pregnancy.

  1. A) ninth
  2. B) twelfth
  3. C) fifteenth
  4. D) eighteenth

Answer: B

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

38)   During Zola’s third month of pregnancy, she should

  1. A) be able to feel the baby move.
  2. B) avoid regular exercise.
  3. C) be able to hear the baby’s heartbeat through a stethoscope.
  4. D) be able to tell when the baby is alert.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

39)   During her first prenatal visit, LaToya’s doctor explains that the __________ prevent(s) the skin from chapping during the long months spent bathing in the amniotic fluid.

  1. A) villi
  2. B) vernix
  3. C) glial cells
  4. D) chorion

Answer: B

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

40)   Lanugo appears over the entire body during the __________ of pregnancy.

  1. A) second month
  2. B) third month
  3. C) second trimester
  4. D) third trimester

Answer: C

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

41)   From the twentieth week until birth,

  1. A) brain weight increases tenfold.
  2. B) glial cells decrease at a rapid rate.
  3. C) the fetus is viable.
  4. D) brain growth slows.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

42)   Sara’s doctor is looking inside her uterus using fetoscopy. Her 22-week-old fetus may react by

  1. A) grabbing at the light.
  2. B) blinking its eyes.
  3. C) shielding its eyes.
  4. D) kicking at the light.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

43)   The age of viability occurs sometime between _____ and _____ weeks.

  1. A) 18; 22
  2. B) 20; 24
  3. C) 22; 26
  4. D) 26; 30

Answer: C

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.2

44)   Carmen is prematurely delivering her baby at 28 weeks. The baby will probably

  1. A) not survive.
  2. B) need oxygen assistance to breathe.
  3. C) experience intense pain.
  4. D) spend the next few weeks with no periods of alertness.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 99

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.3

45)   Dimitri was very active in the third trimester. As a 1-year-old, he will probably

  1. A) handle frustration well.
  2. B) be very fearful.
  3. C) refuse to interact with unfamiliar adults.
  4. D) be easily frustrated.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 100

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.2

46)   In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who

  1. A) were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation.
  2. B) had trouble establishing a regular sleep–wake pattern.
  3. C) had irregular eating schedules.
  4. D) were less fearful.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 100

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

47)   During the third trimester,

  1. A) the fetus spends the majority of the day awake.
  2. B) painkillers should be used in any surgical procedures performed on a fetus.
  3. C) fetuses can hear bodily noises but not noises that occur outside of the womb.
  4. D) higher fetal activity is linked with abnormal neurological development.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 100

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

48)   A study involving the fetal heart rate’s response to auditory stimuli during the third trimester suggests that fetuses

  1. A) cannot hear sounds from the outside world.
  2. B) can remember for at least a brief period.
  3. C) cannot distinguish between their mother’s voice and a stranger’s voice.
  4. D) cannot distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar melodies.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 100

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

49)   In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus

  1. A) gains more than 5 pounds and grows 7 inches.
  2. B) spends the majority of the day awake.
  3. C) assumes a right-side-up position.
  4. D) gains less than 2 pounds and grows less than 3 inches.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 101

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

50)   In the eighth month of pregnancy,

  1. A) fetal growth doubles.
  2. B) a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation.
  3. C) most fetuses assume an upright position.
  4. D) neurons are produced at a rapid rate.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 101

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.2

51)   The harm done by teratogens

  1. A) is not always simple and straightforward.
  2. B) always creates a monstrosity or malformation.
  3. C) is never subtle.
  4. D) can rarely be prevented.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 101

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.3

52)   The __________ and __________ have a long period of sensitivity to teratogens.

  1. A) hands; feet
  2. B) palate; mouth
  3. C) arms; legs
  4. D) brain; eyes

Answer: D

Page Ref: 102

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.3

53)   Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true?

  1. A) The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur.
  2. B) During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears.
  3. C) In the germinal period, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact.
  4. D) During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 102

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.3

54)   The __________ is the time when serious defects from teratogens are most likely to occur.

  1. A) germinal period
  2. B) embryonic period
  3. C) fetal period
  4. D) third trimester

Answer: B

Page Ref: 102

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.3

55)   During the fetal period,

  1. A) teratogens rarely have any impact.
  2. B) teratogens are most likely to cause serious defects.
  3. C) the ears can be strongly affected by teratogens.
  4. D) teratogenic damage usually causes miscarriage.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 102

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.3

56)   Carefully controlled animal experiments reveal that a poorly nourished, underweight fetus experiences changes in body structure and function that greatly increase the risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) breast cancer
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) Alzheimer’s disease
  4. D) cardiovascular disease

Answer: D

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.3

57)   Jesse weighed 3.3 pounds when he was born. Research shows that he is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) prostate cancer
  2. B) diabetes
  3. C) lymphatic cancer
  4. D) Alzheimer’s disease

Answer: B

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.3

58)   At birth, Megan weighed 9.5 pounds. Research shows that she is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

  1. A) diabetes
  2. B) lung cancer
  3. C) breast cancer
  4. D) stroke

Answer: C

Page Ref: 103 Box: Biology and Environment: The Prenatal Environment and Health in Later Life

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.3

59)   Children exposed to a sedative called thalidomide were often born

  1. A) with noncancerous tumors.
  2. B) six to eight weeks premature.
  3. C) with severe cognitive delays .
  4. D) with gross deformities of the arms and legs.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 104

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.4

60)   Daughters of mothers who took __________ showed unusually high rates of cancer of the vagina, malformations of the uterus, and infertility as they reached adolescence and young adulthood.

  1. A) thalidomide
  2. B) isotretinoin
  3. C) diethylstilbestrol (DES)
  4. D) aspirin

Answer: C

Page Ref: 104

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

61)   Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is prescribed

  1. A) as a sedative.
  2. B) to treat severe acne.
  3. C) to prevent miscarriages.
  4. D) to treat depression.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 104

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

62)   Willa, who is pregnant, gets headaches on a regular basis and takes aspirin to relieve the pain. What should you tell Willa about the effects of aspirin use on the developing organism?

  1. A) Regular aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy.
  2. B) Regular aspirin use can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period.
  3. C) Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development.
  4. D) Regular aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 104

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

63)   High doses of caffeine during pregnancy

  1. A) increase the risk of low birth weight.
  2. B) is only safe during the first trimester.
  3. C) can result in gross fetal abnormalities.
  4. D) is linked to respiratory distress in childbirth.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 104

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.4

64)   Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo’s caregivers can expect that

  1. A) he will have high blood pressure.
  2. B) his cries will be abnormally shrill and piercing.
  3. C) he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3.
  4. D) his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 104–105

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

65)   It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drug use during pregnancy because

  1. A) most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research.
  2. B) the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days.
  3. C) most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy.
  4. D) users often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other stresses.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 105

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.4

66)   Beatrice has smoked throughout her pregnancy. Now in her seventh month, Beatrice is considering quitting. You can tell her that

  1. A) the damage was already done during the germinal period.
  2. B) if she quits now, she reduces the likelihood that her infant will be born underweight.
  3. C) the damage was already done during the period of the embryo.
  4. D) quitting now will not reduce the likelihood that her infant will have colic.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 105

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

67)   From one-third to one-half of nonsmoking pregnant women

  1. A) use alcohol regularly.
  2. B) smoked prior to finding out they were pregnant.
  3. C) take antidepressants.
  4. D) are “passive smokers.”

Answer: D

Page Ref: 106

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

68)   Jenna’s physical growth is slow. She has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, a flattened philtrum, and brain injury. Jenna’s mother probably __________ during pregnancy.

  1. A) drank heavily
  2. B) smoked cigarettes
  3. C) used cocaine
  4. D) used methadone

Answer: A

Page Ref: 106

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

69)   Matthew was prenatally exposed to alcohol. His physical growth is typical and he has no facial abnormalities. However, he has impaired motor coordination, attention span, and memory. Matthew was probably born with

  1. A) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
  2. B) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND).
  3. C) partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS).
  4. D) a genetic disorder.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 106–107

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

70)   __________ is safe to drink during pregnancy.

  1. A) No amount of alcohol
  2. B) One alcoholic beverage per day
  3. C) Three to five alcoholic beverages per week
  4. D) A few alcoholic beverages per month

Answer: A

Page Ref: 108

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

71)   Which of the following statements about radiation exposure during pregnancy is true?

  1. A) Low-level radiation from medical X-rays or industrial leakage is safe.
  2. B) Even low-level radiation can increase the risk of childhood cancer.
  3. C) The effects of radiation exposure are immediate and apparent.
  4. D) Radiation exposure affects physical development, but not cognitive or emotional development.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 108

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

72)   Pregnant women are wise to avoid __________ to reduce the likelihood of mercury exposure.

  1. A) getting X-rays
  2. B) changing cat litter boxes
  3. C) painting
  4. D) eating long-lived predatory fish

Answer: D

Page Ref: 108

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

73)   In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to high levels of __________ in rice oil resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and delayed cognitive development.

  1. A) dioxins
  2. B) mercury
  3. C) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
  4. D) lead

Answer: C

Page Ref: 108

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

74)   Joslyn, a school custodian, is pregnant and works in an old school building where multiple layers of paint are flaking off the walls. To be safe, Joslyn should have the paint tested for

  1. A) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs).
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer: D

Page Ref: 109

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

75)   Dioxin seems to impair the fertility of __________ prior to conception.

  1. A) X-bearing ova
  2. B) Y-bearing sperm
  3. C) X-bearing sperm
  4. D) Y-bearing ova

Answer: B

Page Ref: 109

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

76)   The greatest damage from rubella occurs when it strikes pregnant mothers during the

  1. A) germinal period.
  2. B) embryonic period.
  3. C) second trimester.
  4. D) third trimester.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 110

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

77)   Which of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is true?

  1. A) Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the virus to the developing organism 10 to 20 percent of the time.
  2. B) About 15 to 25 percent of prenatal AIDS babies die by 1 year of age.
  3. C) There are no available drug therapies that reduce prenatal AIDS transmission without harmful consequences.
  4. D) AIDS progresses very slowly in infants, and rarely leads to death.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 110

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.4

78)   Kelly, a pregnant 30-year-old, has contracted the most common parasitic infection. Kelly has

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D) herpes simplex 2.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 110

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.4

79)   Expectant mothers can avoid toxoplasmosis by

  1. A) making sure the vegetables they eat are clean.
  2. B) avoiding exposure to X-rays.
  3. C) avoiding eating swordfish.
  4. D) making sure that the meat they eat is well-cooked.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 111

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.4

80)   In healthy, physically fit women, __________ exercise is related to __________.

  1. A) regular aerobic; low birth weight
  2. B) frequent vigorous; a reduction in risk of high blood pressure
  3. C) regular moderate; a reduction in risk of maternal diabetes
  4. D) frequent vigorous; high birth weight

Answer: C

Page Ref: 111

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

81)   Marzanne is pregnant and wonders how much weight she should gain. Her doctor will probably recommend that she gain _____ to _____ pounds.

  1. A) 10; 15
  2. B) 20; 25
  3. C) 25; 30
  4. D) 30; 35

Answer: C

Page Ref: 111

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.5

82)   A severe famine in the Netherlands during World War II revealed that

  1. A) the sensitive-period concept operates with nutrition.
  2. B) malnutrition during the first trimester is not associated with miscarriage.
  3. C) malnutrition during the second trimester is associated with large head size.
  4. D) malnutrition during the third trimester is associated with physical defects.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 111

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

83)   Taking a folic acid supplement around the time of conception reduces by more than 70 percent

  1. A) the risk of miscarriage.
  2. B) infantile hypothyroidism.
  3. C) the risk of Down syndrome.
  4. D) abnormalities of the neural tube.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 112

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

84)   Enriching women’s diets with calcium

  1. A) can cause miscarriages in the germinal period.
  2. B) helps prevent neural tube defects.
  3. C) eliminates the risk of osteoporosis in offspring.
  4. D) helps prevent maternal high blood pressure.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 112

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

85)   Stress-related prenatal complications are greatly reduced when mothers

  1. A) have partners and friends who offer social support.
  2. B) take a low dose of antianxiety medication during pregnancy.
  3. C) take a folic acid supplement during pregnancy.
  4. D) are placed on bed rest during the third trimester.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 118

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

86)   The relationship of social support to positive pregnancy outcomes and subsequent child development is __________ for __________ women.

  1. A) strongest; affluent
  2. B) moderate; minority
  3. C) particularly strong; low-income
  4. D) strongest; middle-income

Answer: C

Page Ref: 113

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

87)   One of the goals of the Nurse–Family Partnership is to

  1. A) eradicate prenatal drug use.
  2. B) lessen the effects of teratogens on developing organisms.
  3. C) promote early competent caregiving.
  4. D) provide family planning and genetic counseling.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 114 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Nurse–Family Partnership: Reducing Maternal Stress and Enhancing Child Development Through Social Support

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

88)   Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of the Nurse–Family Partnership is true?

  1. A) The benefits of the intervention were the greatest for children from high-SES families.
  2. B) Trained paraprofessionals were more effective than professional nurses in preventing delayed mental development.
  3. C) As kindergartners, program children scored higher in language, but lower in intelligence, than comparison children.
  4. D) From their baby’s birth on, home-visited mothers were on a more favorable life course than comparison mothers.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 114 Box: Social Issues: Health: The Nurse–Family Partnership: Reducing Maternal Stress and Enhancing Child Development Through Social Support

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.5

89)   Which of the following statements about Rh factor incompatibility is true?

  1. A) The damage caused by Rh incompatibility can be avoided if the mother receives a blood transfusion during delivery.
  2. B) Rh-positive blood is dominant and Rh-negative blood is recessive, so the chances are good that a baby will be Rh-positive.
  3. C) Rh-positive babies are routinely given a vaccine at birth to prevent the buildup of harmful Rh antibodies.
  4. D) The harmful effects of Rh incompatibility can be prevented if the newborn is immediately placed on a diet low in phenylalanine.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 113

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.5

90)   Rh factor incompatibility

  1. A) affects Rh-positive mothers.
  2. B) can result in infant death.
  3. C) cannot be prevented in most cases.
  4. D) usually affects firstborn children.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 113

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

91)   Danica is a healthy 35-year-old woman who is pregnant with her first child. Danica is

  1. A) more likely than a younger woman to have a baby with low birth weight.
  2. B) likely to have a longer and more difficult labor than a younger woman.
  3. C) more likely to have prenatal complications than a woman in her twenties.
  4. D) as likely as a younger woman to have no prenatal or birth complications.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 114

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.5

92)   Infants born to teenagers have a higher rate of problems because

  1. A) teenagers’ reproductive organs are not yet mature enough to support a pregnancy.
  2. B) teenagers are not yet physically ready to give birth.
  3. C) many pregnant teenagers are afraid to seek medical care.
  4. D) teenagers are exposed to more teratogens than other pregnant mothers.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 115

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.5

93)   In later pregnancy, a diabetic mother’s excess blood glucose causes the fetus to

  1. A) lose weight.
  2. B) grow unusually large.
  3. C) secrete abnormally low levels of insulin.
  4. D) develop chromosomal abnormalities.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 116 Box: Biology and Environment: Prenatal Iron Deficiency and Memory Impairments in Infants of Diabetic Mothers

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.6

94)   Which of the following statements about research on memory impairments in infants of diabetic mothers is true?

  1. A) Prenatal iron depletion interferes with the cerebral cortex, causing long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers.
  2. B) Damage to the hippocampus is not linked to long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers.
  3. C) Diabetes-linked prenatal brain damage is linked to short-term memory impairments that can often be reversed with medication.
  4. D) As a result of iron depletion in critical brain areas, a diabetic pregnancy places the fetus at risk for lasting memory deficits.

Answer: D

Page Ref: 116 Box: Biology and Envirionment: Prenatal Iron Deficiency and Memory Impairments in Infants of Diabetic Mothers

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.6

95)   Kali’s face, hands, and feet began to swell in the second half of her pregnancy. Kali’s doctor began to monitor her blood pressure. The doctor was probably concerned about

  1. A)
  2. B) maternal diabetes.
  3. C) Rh incompatibility.
  4. D)

Answer: D

Page Ref: 115

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.6

96)   Which of the following mothers is most likely to receive inadequate prenatal care?

  1. A) Harriet, a 16-year-old African American
  2. B) Marissa, a 25-year-old Caucasian American
  3. C) Rachel, a 32-year-old Caucasian American
  4. D) Janette, a 40-year-old Hispanic American

Answer: A

Page Ref: 117

Skill: Apply

Objective: 3.6

97)   In group prenatal care,

  1. A) expectant mothers are grouped by age, and each group is seen by an assigned health-care provider.
  2. B) trained leaders provide expectant mothers with a group discussion session after each medical checkup.
  3. C) expectant mothers and fathers take turns facilitating group discussions.
  4. D) whole families are included in prenatal visits, including mothers, fathers, and siblings.

Answer: B

Page Ref: 117

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.6

98)   In a study of more than 100 U.S. first-time expectant married couples who were interviewed about their pregnancy experiences,

  1. A) an unplanned pregnancy was especially likely to spark positive feelings among participants.
  2. B) about one-third of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings about their pregnancies.
  3. C) no participants felt negatively about their pregnancies by the third trimester.
  4. D) about two-thirds of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings to learning they were expecting.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 118

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.7

99)   Which of the following statements about models of effective parenthood is true?

  1. A) Overall, men are more likely than women to communicate effectively, be flexible when family problems arise, and build a healthy picture of themselves as successful parents.
  2. B) Parents who have had positive experiences in their own childhoods often have trouble building a healthy picture of themselves as parents and have conflicted relationships with their children.
  3. C) Many parents come to terms with negative experiences in their own childhoods, recognize that other options are available to them, and build healthier and happier relationships with their children.
  4. D) When men and women have had poor relationships with their own parents, they are more likely to develop positive images of themselves as parents.

Answer: C

Page Ref: 119

Skill: Remember

Objective: 3.7

100)  The most important preparation for parenthood

  1. A) takes place in the context of the parents’ relationship.
  2. B) is having a positive relationship with one’s own parents.
  3. C) involves attending prenatal classes.
  4. D) is having support from extended family.

Answer: A

Page Ref: 119

Skill: Understand

Objective: 3.7

ESSAY

101)  When Americans and Europeans are asked about their motivations for parenthood, what are the most frequent advantages and disadvantages they list?

Answer:   Although some ethnic and regional differences exist, in all groups highly rated reasons for having children include personal rewards—for example, the warm, affectionate relationship and opportunities for care and teaching that children provide. Also frequently mentioned are social and economic returns, such as affirmation of one’s adult status and children as a source of caregiving and financial support in later life. Less important, but still mentioned, is a sense of future continuity—having someone to carry on after one’s own death. And occasionally, couples look to parenthood as a gratifying opportunity to share in a challenging but important life task and to deepen their relationship. Among disadvantages of parenthood, adults most often cite concerns about role overload (not enough time for both family and work responsibilities), doubts about their own readiness for parenthood, and worries about bringing children into a troubled world. The financial strains of child rearing follow close behind.

Page Ref: 92

102)  Describe the germinal period, including the major developments that occur during this period.

Answer:   The germinal period lasts about two weeks, from fertilization and formation of the zygote until the tiny mass of cells drifts down and out of the fallopian tube and attaches itself to the wall of the uterus. The zygote’s first cell duplication is long and drawn out; it is not complete until about 30 hours after conception. Gradually, new cells are added at a faster rate. By the fourth day, 60 to 70 cells exist that form a hollow, fluid-filled ball called a blastocyst. The cells on the inside of the blastocyst, called the embryonic disk, will become the new organism; the thin outer ring of cells, termed the trophoblast, will become the structures that provide protective covering and nourishment. Between the seventh and ninth days, implantation occurs: The blastocyst burrows deep into the uterine lining. Structures that feed and protect the developing organism begin to form—amnion, yolk sac, chorion, placenta, and umbilical cord. By the end of the germinal period, the developing organism has found food and shelter. Already, it is a complex being.

Page Ref: 97–98

103)  What are teratogens? What factors determine their impact?

Answer:   The term teratogen refers to any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period. The harm done by teratogens is not always simple and straightforward. It depends on the following factors:

  • Larger doses over longer time periods usually have more negative effects.
  • The genetic makeup of the mother and the developing organism plays an important role. Some individuals are better able than others to withstand harmful environments.
  • Other negative influences. The presence of several negative influences at once, such as additional teratogens, poor nutrition, and lack of medical care, can worsen the impact of a single harmful agent.
  • The effects of teratogens vary with the age of the organism at the time of exposure. Some parts of the body, such as the brain and eye, have long sensitive periods that extend throughout prenatal development. Other sensitive periods are much shorter. In the germinal period, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact. If they do, the tiny mass of cells is usually so damaged that it dies. The embryonic period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur because the foundations for all body parts are being laid down. During the fetal period, teratogenic damage is usually minor. However, organs such as the brain, ears, eyes, teeth, and genitals can still be strongly affected.

Page Ref: 101–102

104)  Describe the effects of exercise during pregnancy.

Answer:   In healthy, physically fit women, regular moderate exercise, such as walking, swimming, biking, or an aerobic workout, is related to improved fetal cardiovascular functioning, higher birth weight, and a reduction in the risk for certain complications, such as pregnancy-induced maternal diabetes and high blood pressure. However, frequent, vigorous exercise, especially late in pregnancy, results in lower birth weight than in healthy, nonexercising controls. Hospital-sponsored childbirth education programs frequently offer exercise classes and suggest appropriate routines that help prepare for labor and delivery. During the last trimester, when the abdomen grows very large, mothers have difficulty moving freely and often must cut back on exercise. Most women, however, do not engage in sufficient moderate exercise during pregnancy to promote their own and their baby’s health. An expectant mother who remains fit experiences fewer physical discomforts, such as back pain, upward pressure on the chest, or difficulty breathing in the final weeks. Pregnant women with health problems, such as circulatory difficulties or a history of miscarriages, should consult their doctor about a physical fitness routine. For these mothers, exercise (especially the wrong kind) can endanger the pregnancy.

Page Ref: 111

105)  Terra is Rh-negative and her husband, Marcus, is Rh-positive. Advise Terra about the consequences of this blood type incompatibility.

Answer:   Terra should know that when inherited blood types of mother and fetus differ, serious problems sometimes result. The most common cause of these difficulties is Rh factor incompatibility. When the mother is Rh-negative (lacks the Rh blood protein) and the father is Rh-positive (has the protein), the baby may inherit the father’s Rh-positive blood type. Because Rh-positive blood is dominant and Rh-negative blood is recessive, the chances are good that the baby will be Rh-positive. If even a little of a fetus’s Rh-positive blood crosses the placenta into the Rh-negative mother’s bloodstream, she begins to form antibodies to the foreign Rh protein. If these enter the fetus’s system, they destroy red blood cells, reducing the oxygen supply to organs and tissues. Intellectual disability, miscarriage, heart damage, and infant death can occur. It takes time for the mother to produce Rh antibodies, so firstborn children are rarely affected. The danger increases with each additional pregnancy. Fortunately, Rh incompatibility can be prevented in most cases. After the birth of each Rh-positive baby, Rh-negative mothers are routinely given a vaccine to prevent the buildup of antibodies. In emergency cases, blood transfusions can be performed immediately after delivery or, if necessary, even before birth.

Page Ref: 113

106)  Cite reasons that some women do not seek prenatal care.

Answer:   Inadequate care is far more common among adolescent and low-income, ethnic minority mothers. Although government-sponsored health services for low-income pregnant women have been expanded, some do not qualify and must pay for at least part of their care. Besides financial hardship, some mothers have situational barriers, including difficulty finding a doctor, getting an appointment, and arranging transportation, and insensitive or unsatisfying experiences with clinic staff. Other mothers have personal barriers, including psychological stress, the demands of taking care of other young children, family crises, lack of knowledge about the signs of pregnancy and benefits of prenatal care, and ambivalence about the pregnancy. Many also engage in high-risk behaviors, such as smoking and drug abuse, which they do not want to reveal to health professionals.

Page Ref: 115

 

 

 

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