Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition By Johnson-Test Bank

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Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition By Johnson-Test Bank

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 2   The Chemistry of Living Things

 

2.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Which one of the following characteristics applies to both living organisms and nonliving things?

  1. A) composed of matter
  2. B) capable of reproduction
  3. C) capable of storing energy for later use
  4. D) capable of growth
  5. E) composed of cells

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Which one of the following is the study of matter and the energy that causes matter to combine, break apart, and recombine in everything living and nonliving?

  1. A) biology
  2. B) geology
  3. C) chemistry
  4. D) physics

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) ________ is the capacity to do work, the capacity to cause some change in matter.

  1. A) Energy
  2. B) Atom
  3. C) Matter
  4. D) Molecule

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) A mad scientist has ripped apart an atom and collected all the subatomic particles located in the nucleus of the atom. Which one of the following has he collected?

  1. A) electrons
  2. B) protons
  3. C) protons and neutrons
  4. D) electrons and protons
  5. E) neutrons and electrons

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the structure of the atom?

  1. A) The nucleus is composed of equal numbers of positively charged particles and negatively charged particles.
  2. B) All electrons are located at the same distance from the nucleus.
  3. C) In small elements, such as carbon, electrons have a positive charge; in larger elements, such as barium, electrons have a negative charge.
  4. D) Most of the mass of an atom is due to its protons and neutrons.
  5. E) Neutrons carry a negative charge.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the relationship between an atom and an element?

  1. A) An element is the fundamental unit of an atom.
  2. B) An element is composed of atoms that are joined together by ionic and covalent bonds.
  3. C) An atom is composed of different elements that are joined together by ionic and covalent bonds.
  4. D) An atom is the smallest unit of an element that demonstrates all of the properties of that element.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom can best be determined by

  1. A) atomic mass
  2. B) the subscript number following the chemical symbol
  3. C) atomic number
  4. D) the charge of the atom
  5. E) the chemical symbol

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Isotopes of an element have the same ________, but different ________.

  1. A) number of electron shells, numbers of protons
  2. B) atomic number, atomic masses
  3. C) number of neutrons, numbers of protons
  4. D) atomic mass, atomic numbers
  5. E) name, chemical symbols

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Radioisotopes have a number of uses in science and medicine. These uses include which one of the following?

  1. A) repairing damaged heart tissue
  2. B) dating fossils and treating cancer
  3. C) providing the power supply in heart pacemakers
  4. D) treating asthma and regulating nerve transmission
  5. E) curing diabetes

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and an atomic mass of 35. Therefore, chlorine has ________ electrons and ________ neutrons.

  1. A) 17, 18
  2. B) 18, 17
  3. C) 17, 35
  4. D) 35, 17
  5. E) 18, 18

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding electrons, shells, and energy?

  1. A) Electrons are located in shells around the nucleus.
  2. B) Electrons are attracted to each other because they have the same charge.
  3. C) In order for an electron to move closer to the nucleus, it must absorb energy.
  4. D) The innermost electron shell has the most potential energy.
  5. E) As an electron moves to a shell further from the nucleus, it loses energy.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Which one of the following is a molecule?

  1. A) NaCl
  2. B) O
  3. C) C
  4. D) Lead
  5. E) N

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

13) ________ bonds hold the hydrogens to the oxygen within a water molecule, and ________ bonds attract one water molecule to other water molecules.

  1. A) Ionic, hydrogen
  2. B) Hydrogen, ionic
  3. C) Hydrogen, covalent
  4. D) Covalent, hydrogen
  5. E) Ionic, covalent

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Ions in body fluids of a human are referred to as

  1. A) electrolytes
  2. B) osmolytes
  3. C) isotopes
  4. D) atoms

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding water?

  1. A) Each molecule of water consists of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen covalently bonded to each other.
  2. B) The oxygen side of the water molecule is partially positive.
  3. C) Water is a type of ion.
  4. D) Electrons are shared equally between the atoms of water.
  5. E) Water molecules are attracted to each other by ionic bonds.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Each of the following statements is TRUE regarding hydrogen bonds EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) Hydrogen bonds hold the two strands of DNA together.
  2. B) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the attraction of Na+to Cl-.
  3. C) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for some aspects of the three-dimensional structure of proteins.
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds form between different water molecules.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) Molecules such as water are referred to as ________ because they are electrically neutral overall but still have partially charged regions.

  1. A) electrolytes
  2. B) polar molecules
  3. C) ions
  4. D) covalently charged
  5. E) isotopes

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Water is an excellent solvent for biological systems because

  1. A) it can maintain a relatively unstable temperature for chemical reactions to occur.
  2. B) compounds with ionic bonds as well as those with polar covalent bonds readily dissolve in water.
  3. C) it is semisolid at body temperature, preventing it from flowing freely through the human body.
  4. D) it can rearrange its bonds, forming covalent bonds with other molecules once dissolved.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) A solution has been prepared by mixing glucose in water. Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY describes this solution?

  1. A) Both water and glucose are solutes.
  2. B) Both water and glucose are solvents.
  3. C) Water is the solute, and glucose is the solvent.
  4. D) Water is the solvent, and glucose is the solute.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

20) A solution with a pH of 6 has ________ times as many hydrogen ions as a solution with a pH of 8.

  1. A) 1,000
  2. B) 10
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 10,000
  5. E) 100,000

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21) A student measuring the pH of the water in a fish tank found it to have a pH of 8. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding that solution?

  1. A) The water is alkaline.
  2. B) The water does not contain hydrogen ions.
  3. C) The water contains equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions.
  4. D) The water is highly acidic.
  5. E) The water is more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 10.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Body fluids in humans have a high buffering capacity because of

  1. A) the presence of the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system
  2. B) the natural result of water as a solvent
  3. C) hydrogen bonding between water molecules in biological fluids
  4. D) shifts in blood pH that are required to maintain homeostasis

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Each of the following statements about carbon is TRUE EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) All organic molecules contain carbon.
  2. B) Carbon atoms form four covalent bonds.
  3. C) Carbon atoms form diverse molecules that may be linear, branched, or circular.
  4. D) Carbon can form strong hydrogen bonds with other elements.
  5. E) Carbon can form bonds with hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, as well as another carbon atom.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

24) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding macromolecules?

  1. A) Cells cannot use macromolecules to signal other cells.
  2. B) An example of a macromolecule is H2
  3. C) Cells produce macromolecules by the process of hydrolysis.
  4. D) Macromolecules are broken down by hydration synthesis.
  5. E) Cells use certain macromolecules to store energy.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

25) Which one of the following statements accurately describes hydrolysis reactions in biological systems?

  1. A) Hydrolysis reactions enable the breakdown of food molecules during digestion.
  2. B) Hydrolysis reactions enable small molecules to be joined to form larger molecules.
  3. C) Hydrolysis reactions generally require substantial input of energy.
  4. D) Hydrolysis reactions are spontaneous and don’t require catalysis by enzymes.
  5. E) Hydrolysis reactions generally occur for the purpose of energy storage.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Carbohydrates have which one of the following characteristics?

  1. A) They are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen.
  2. B) They release energy when their peptide bonds are broken.
  3. C) They are indigestible by most organisms.
  4. D) They contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1-2-1.
  5. E) They are able to store and transmit genetic information.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) Which one of the following is a very important source of energy for nearly all cells?

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) deoxyribose
  3. C) starch
  4. D) glucose
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Which one of the following is an oligosaccharide?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) maltose
  4. D) starch
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Sucrose is an oligosaccharide made up of which one of the following sugars?

  1. A) glucose and glucose
  2. B) deoxyribose and ribose
  3. C) starch and glycogen
  4. D) maltose and glucose
  5. E) glucose and fructose

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Lipids are important to biological systems because

  1. A) they are solid at body temperature so they stabilize membranes
  2. B) some lipid types are potentially large sources of energy to perform cellular work
  3. C) most help to buffer aqueous solutions in the body
  4. D) all lipids are very soluble in water
  5. E) they are able to store and transmit genetic information

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which one of the following molecules is stored in adipose tissue and serves as an important source of energy for the human body?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) steroids
  3. C) glycogen
  4. D) triglycerides
  5. E) phospholipids

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Which one of the following is a lipid?

  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) alanine
  3. C) maltose
  4. D) glycogen
  5. E) cellulose

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) The most important physical characteristic of lipids with regard to living organisms is that they

  1. A) are hydrophobic
  2. B) are very large and therefore difficult to store
  3. C) dissolve easily in water
  4. D) are typically a form of waste product that is difficult to eliminate
  5. E) are denser than water

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) Which one of the following forms a bilayer structure that is found in cell membranes?

  1. A) triglycerides
  2. B) amino acids
  3. C) cholesterol
  4. D) phospholipids
  5. E) saturated fats

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Pancreatic cells make insulin, which is a type of protein. These cells use ________ in order to synthesize insulin by the process of ________.

  1. A) oligosaccharides, hydrolysis
  2. B) nucleotides, condensation
  3. C) amino acids, dehydration synthesis
  4. D) fatty acids and glycerol, hydrolysis
  5. E) monosaccharides, dehydration synthesis

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

36) Each amino acid is composed of a central carbon that forms covalent bonds with four other atoms/molecules. These atoms/molecules include each of the following EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) an R group
  2. B) an A group
  3. C) an amino group
  4. D) a hydrogen atom
  5. E) a carboxyl group

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

37) Alpha helices and beta sheets are characteristic of protein

  1. A) primary structure
  2. B) secondary structure
  3. C) tertiary structure
  4. D) quaternary structure
  5. E) enzymatic structure

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) Which one of the following is a function of a protein?

  1. A) stores genetic material and enables its transmission to the next generation
  2. B) acts as a catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions
  3. C) is a major subunit of cellulose
  4. D) is a primary structural component of a cell membrane
  5. E) provides energy for a muscle contraction

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

39) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?

  1. A) Enzyme function is not affected by changes in temperature or pH.
  2. B) Enzymes slow the rate of chemical reactions in living systems.
  3. C) Enzymes are consumed in a chemical reaction, so an organism must constantly replace these enzymes.
  4. D) Each enzyme catalyzes one specific reaction or group of reactions.
  5. E) Enzymes convert products into reactants.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Which one of the following is needed to synthesize a new strand of DNA?

  1. A) lipids
  2. B) glucose
  3. C) amino acids
  4. D) nucleotides
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

41) DNA differs from RNA in that DNA

  1. A) is single stranded
  2. B) contains deoxyribose
  3. C) is made up of nucleotides
  4. D) contains cytosine
  5. E) contains phosphates

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) A research student is analyzing the nucleic acid of a virus. He finds that the nucleic acid contains thymine. From this it can be concluded that the nucleic acid

  1. A) contains uracil
  2. B) contains ribose
  3. C) is actually a protein
  4. D) contains glucose
  5. E) is a strand of DNA

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding nucleotides?

  1. A) There are three different DNA nucleotides.
  2. B) DNA nucleotides are assembled into RNA by the process of dehydration synthesis.
  3. C) DNA nucleotides contain deoxyribose; RNA nucleotides contain sucrose.
  4. D) Nucleotides are bonded together by covalent bonds between the sugars and the phosphates.
  5. E) A DNA nucleotide could be made up of ribose, a phosphate, and cytosine.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

44) Which one of the following occurs when a phosphate is removed from an ATP molecule?

  1. A) Energy is added to the ATP molecule to form ADP.
  2. B) Oxygen produced in the reaction causes the molecule to explode.
  3. C) Energy is released for cell work.
  4. D) Chemical reactions stop in a cell due to lack of an energy source.
  5. E) Fat is converted to protein.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

45) Proteins that function as a catalyst

  1. A) slow down the speed at which chemical reactions occur, but do not alter the final products formed
  2. B) facilitate chemical reactions by altering the final products formed
  3. C) maintain primary structure
  4. D) can participate only in reactions that synthesize new products
  5. E) are referred to as enzymes

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) protein
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) lipid
  5. E) aqueous

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.6-2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) protein
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) lipid
  5. E) aqueous

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.6-2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Electrons are smaller than protons, are negatively charged, and orbit the nucleus.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) All matter is made up of atoms.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) If the number of protons in an atom equals the number of electrons in the atom, the atom is an ion.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Atoms with either more or fewer neutrons than the usual number for an element are referred to as isotopes.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Potential energy is energy that has not been used yet, but has the potential to do work.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) When water is released from a dam, potential energy is converted to chemical energy.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

7) The type of bond indicated by the dotted lines in the figure above is a hydrogen bond.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) The difference between water molecules in liquid water and water molecules in ice is in the number of covalent bonds that form.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) During intense exercise, you produce a lot of heat energy, yet your body temperature rises only in small increments. This temperature stability is because water in body fluids releases the heat very quickly.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) One of the most important buffer pairs in blood is carbonic acid and bicarbonate because they regulate the pH of blood by absorbing and releasing hydrogen ions as needed.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The more buffers present in a body fluid, the more likely that the blood pH will change after absorbing nutrients during digestion.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

12) Because carbon requires four additional electrons to fill its outermost shell, it has a natural tendency to form four covalent bonds with other atoms, making it an ideal element for forming structures in living cells.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The figure above shows a triglyceride that contains unsaturated fatty acids.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

14) The figure above shows a triglyceride that is liquid at room temperature.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) If your blood pH is lowered significantly, many proteins will not be able to fold correctly. The result will be decreased enzyme function throughout the body.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2.3   Matching Questions

 

Match each of the following descriptions to the appropriate term. Each term may be used only once.

 

  1. A) molecules
  2. B) nucleic acids
  3. C) chemical bonds
  4. D) atom
  5. E) elements
  6. F) proton
  7. G) electrons
  8. H) carbohydrates
  9. I) amino acids
  10. J) matter
  11. K) isotopes
  12. L) lipids

 

1) a component of an atom that carries a positive charge

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) the smallest unit of matter that can take part in a chemical reaction

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) anything that has mass and occupies space

Topic: Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) attractive forces between atoms in molecules

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) different forms of the same element that differ in their number of neutrons

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) steroids, triglycerides

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) matter that cannot be broken down

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) DNA, RNA

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) water, sodium chloride, carbon dioxide

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) alanine, glycine, cysteine

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

11) glucose, cellulose, glycogen

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) part of an atom that may participate in bonding with another atom

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) F 2) D 3) J 4) C 5) K 6) L 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) I 11) H 12) G

 


Match the following.

 

  1. A) unsaturated fat
  2. B) saturated fat
  3. C) glucose
  4. D) glycogen
  5. E) cellulose
  6. F) DNA
  7. G) cholesterol
  8. H) polypeptide

 

13) a double strand of nucleotides; stores genetic information

Topic: Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) lipid that stabilizes membranes and is a precursor to many hormones

Topic: Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) dominant energy source used by cells

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) major structural polysaccharide produced by plants

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) a molecule consisting of glycerol plus fatty acid chains with two hydrogen atoms per carbon atom; solid at room temperature

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) a polysaccharide stored in the human body

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) a strand of 3 to 100 amino acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) a triglyceride that has double bonds in its fatty acids and is a liquid at room temperature

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 13) F 14) G 15) C 16) E 17) B 18) D 19) H 20) A

 

 

2.4   Short Answer Questions

 

Use the letters from the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

 

 

1) The subatomic particles ________ and ________ have approximately the same mass.

Answer:  B, C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Isotopes of this element would differ in the number of ________.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) In order for this atom to be electrically neutral, the number of subatomic particles labeled “A” in the figure would have to equal the number of ________.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The label ________ points to a neutron.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) In order for this atom to develop a positive charge, it would have to lose ________.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The number of subatomic particles ________ is the atomic number of that atom.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) All things on Earth are made up of ________, which is defined as anything that has mass and occupies space.

Answer:  matter

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The pure form of matter that cannot be broken down into a simpler form is a(n) ________.

Answer:  element

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Protons and neutrons are located in the ________ of an atom.

Answer:  nucleus

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) In the atom, electrons are located in clouds, with negative charges around the nucleus; these are called ________.

Answer:  shells

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Isotopes that give off energy and emit particles are known as ________.

Answer:  radioisotopes

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Water held behind a dam has a large amount of ________ energy.

Answer:  potential

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) An electrically charged molecule or atom is a(n) ________.

Answer:  ion

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Molecules that are polar and attracted to water are ________; molecules that are nonpolar and therefore not attracted to water are ________.

Answer:  hydrophilic, hydrophobic

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Evaporation of water from the skin results in a(n) ________ in body temperature.

Answer:  decrease

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Molecules that give up or donate hydrogen ions are ________.

Answer:  acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) The acidity or alkalinity of a solution can be measured in terms of ________.

Answer:  pH

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Which solution has more free hydrogen ions: pH = 9 or pH = 3?

Answer:  pH = 3

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) The normal pH of human blood falls within a range that is near a(n) ________ pH.

Answer:  neutral

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________.

Answer:  buffer

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Large organic molecules that are composed of thousands of smaller molecules bonded to one another are known as ________.

Answer:  macromolecules

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) The process by which cells break down organic macromolecules into their subunits is ________.

Answer:  hydrolysis

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) In order for a cell to produce a fat, it must have one molecule of ________ and three ________.

Answer:  glycerol, fatty acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) A diet rich in ________ fat is believed to contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease.

Answer:  saturated

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

25) The structure of a cell membrane includes a modified form of lipid called a(n) ________.

Answer:  phospholipid

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Lipid molecules composed of four joined carbon rings are known as ________.

Answer:  steroids

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) When a protein is heated, it may unfold, losing its secondary, tertiary, and even quaternary structure. This process is known as ________.

Answer:  denaturation

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) A polypeptide is generally referred to as a(n) ________ if it has more than 100 amino acids and has folded into a complex structure with a specific function.

Answer:  protein

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) The molecule that stores the set of instructions of a cell and directs everything a cell does is ________.

Answer:  DNA

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) The molecule with which an enzyme reacts is a(n) ________.

Answer:  substrate (reactant)

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) There are ________ different deoxyribonucleotides found in the human genome.

Answer:  four

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

32) Plants produce a polysaccharide made of glucose known as ________, which is virtually indigestible by most animals.

Answer:  cellulose

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) The universal energy source for cells is a nucleotide known as ________.

Answer:  ATP

Topic:  Sec. 2.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

2.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Describe how denaturing a protein alters the function of that protein.

Answer:  Denaturing a protein permanently disrupts protein structure. Ordinarily, if the protein shape is altered, so is the function of that protein. This can be seen with denatured enzymes that lose the ability to bind the substrate, and thus no chemical reaction can occur.

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Explain how water in the human body helps to regulate body temperature following a long-distance bike ride.

Answer:  Water in body fluids is able to absorb heat without experiencing large temperature shifts. Water is also able to hold the heat, so that when the warm fluid moves to the periphery of the body, the heat can be exchanged or released into the environment. Perspiration is one means for the heat to be released from the body, which in turn allows a person to maintain a relatively constant body temperature.

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

3) In the human body, bicarbonate and carbonate ions work together to stabilize or buffer the pH of body fluids. What would happen to blood if these buffering agents were removed?

Answer:  Blood pH could not be regulated in the absence of this buffering pair. Anything absorbed or released from body fluids that altered the hydrogen or hydroxyl ion content of blood would cause a pH change. For humans who tightly regulate homeostasis, even relatively modest changes in blood pH can have devastating consequences.

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 12   Sensory Mechanisms

 

12.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Which one of the following receive(s) a physical or chemical stimulus and ultimately cause(s) nerve impulses to be generated in sensory neurons?

  1. A) the brain
  2. B) axons
  3. C) Schwann cells
  4. D) hillocks
  5. E) receptors

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) A stronger stimulus results in which one of the following?

  1. A) activation of more receptors
  2. B) greater frequency of action potentials
  3. C) action potentials that travel more quickly
  4. D) activation of more receptors and initiation of more action potentials
  5. E) neural fatigue

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Which one of the following types of receptors are most likely to be classified as “silent” receptors?

  1. A) pain receptors
  2. B) receptors in skin for light touch
  3. C) joint receptors
  4. D) chemoreceptors
  5. E) thermoreceptors

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Some sensory receptors stop sending action potentials even though the original stimulus persists. This is known as which one of the following?

  1. A) receptor overload
  2. B) receptor adaptation
  3. C) receptor shutdown
  4. D) receptor oversight
  5. E) receptor discontinuance

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Which of the following receptors are MOST likely to demonstrate receptor adaptation?

  1. A) pain receptors
  2. B) olfactory receptors in the nose
  3. C) photoreceptors in the eye
  4. D) stretch receptors in the muscles and tendons
  5. E) mechanoreceptors in the cochlea (ear)

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Receptor adaption occurs when

  1. A) impulse transmission stops at a synapse
  2. B) the brain ignores the incoming action potentials
  3. C) the stimulus stops
  4. D) the sensory neuron stops sending action potentials
  5. E) action potentials from multiple sensory neurons cancel one another

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Mechanoreceptors specifically designed to monitor muscle length are termed

  1. A) thermoreceptors
  2. B) muscle spindles
  3. C) dendrites
  4. D) muscle fibers
  5. E) Pacinian corpuscles

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Somatic receptors distributed throughout the body are linked to sensory neurons that send impulses to which one of the following regions of the brain?

  1. A) pons
  2. B) medulla oblongata
  3. C) parietal lobe
  4. D) frontal lobe
  5. E) occipital lobe

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

9) Receptors for fast pain

  1. A) generally arise from muscles or internal organs
  2. B) give rise to a phenomenon called referred pain
  3. C) transmit action potentials to the brain along the same neurons used by spinal neurons
  4. D) generally occur in or near skin
  5. E) initiate action potentials that travel more quickly

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) A student noticed that when he closed his eyes, he could still determine the position of his arms and legs. This is largely due to the activity of

  1. A) pain receptors
  2. B) mechanoreceptors
  3. C) Merkel disks
  4. D) Meissner’s corpuscles
  5. E) chemoreceptors

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Slow pain originating from an internal organ is often perceived as coming from an area of the body totally unrelated to the source. This is known as

  1. A) delayed perception
  2. B) threshold propagation
  3. C) indirect tolerance
  4. D) “shooting” pain
  5. E) referred pain

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Olfactory receptors are located in which one of the following?

  1. A) taste buds
  2. B) muscles
  3. C) upper part of nasal passages
  4. D) skin surrounding nasal openings
  5. E) upper regions of mouth

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

13) Whereas the sense of taste is based on ________ (how many?) classes of taste receptors, the sense of smell has over ________ (how many?) different receptors for chemicals associated with odor.

  1. A) 5, 1,000
  2. B) 20, 200
  3. C) 150, 6
  4. D) 10, 10,000
  5. E) 500, 5,000

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

14) ________ extend from the tip of taste cells in taste buds into the mouth.

  1. A) Papillae
  2. B) Taste hairs
  3. C) Olfactory bulbs
  4. D) Spindles
  5. E) Tendons

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The loudness (intensity) of a sound is specifically associated with the

  1. A) frequency of sound waves
  2. B) area of the brain interpreting the sensory input
  3. C) specific hair cells that respond in the cochlea
  4. D) amplitude of the sound waves
  5. E) duration of the sound

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Sound is amplified by components of the middle ear when they vibrate. When one of these components, the stapes, vibrates, the ________ will vibrate.

  1. A) tympanic membrane
  2. B) pinna
  3. C) oval window
  4. D) eustachian tube
  5. E) cochlea

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension


Use the figure below to answer the following question.

 

 

17) The structure shown in the figure above is found in which one of the following?

  1. A) skin
  2. B) inner ear
  3. C) retina
  4. D) middle ear
  5. E) vestibulocochlear nerve

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Vibration of the ________ bends hairs of the hair cells, which ultimately generate impulses in ________.

  1. A) basilar membrane, hair cells
  2. B) sensory neurons, tectorial membrane
  3. C) hair cells, sensory neurons
  4. D) organ of Corti, hair cells
  5. E) basilar membrane, sensory neurons

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) When a sound wave first arrives at the ear, the wave is directed toward the auditory canal by

  1. A) receptors on the head
  2. B) tympanic membranes
  3. C) pinna
  4. D) auditory tube
  5. E) vestibular apparatus

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) The malleus and incus function to

  1. A) channel sounds in the inner ear
  2. B) amplify sound
  3. C) convert a sound wave into an electrical impulse
  4. D) convert a long wave light into an electrical impulse
  5. E) sense static position

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge

 

21) Different pitched (high or low) sounds are discriminated by the

  1. A) tympanic membrane
  2. B) round and oval windows
  3. C) malleus, incus, and stapes
  4. D) hair cells in specific regions of the cochlea
  5. E) auditory nerve

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Within the cochlea, higher-frequency sounds are converted to electrical impulses near the

  1. A) cornea
  2. B) tapered tip
  3. C) auditory tube
  4. D) oval window
  5. E) round window

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Understanding

 

23) Which one of the following structures is used to sense rotational movement of the head and body?

  1. A) vestibule
  2. B) stapes
  3. C) semicircular canals
  4. D) ampulla and cupula
  5. E) oval window

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) An individual never developed otoliths in the inner ear due to a genetic defect. Which one of the following will be impaired as a result?

  1. A) hearing low-pitched sounds
  2. B) hearing high-pitched sounds
  3. C) sense of head position
  4. D) sense of direction of movement
  5. E) sense of rotational movement

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

25) The vestibule contains two fluid-filled chambers, called the utricle and saccule, which are alike in that

  1. A) they both are surrounded by cupular membranes
  2. B) each has a gel-like substance on the inside
  3. C) both contain ampulla
  4. D) they are directly attached to semicircular canals
  5. E) each lines the semicircular canals

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Which one of the following parts of the eye is continuous with the cornea and forms the outer surface of the back of the eye?

  1. A) retina
  2. B) choroid
  3. C) oval window
  4. D) iris
  5. E) sclera

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) The following is a list of structures in the eye through which light passes. Which one of the following answers best describes the order in which light passes through or hits each structure?

  1. lens
  2. pupil
  3. cornea
  4. aqueous humor
  5. retina
  6. A) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
  7. B) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
  8. C) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
  9. D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
  10. E) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) The transparent covering of the front of the eye is the

  1. A) cornea
  2. B) lens
  3. C) iris
  4. D) fovea centralis
  5. E) pupil

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) The vitreous humor fills the main chamber of the eye. Which one of the following structures of the eye would vitreous humor come in contact with?

  1. A) sclera
  2. B) cornea
  3. C) iris
  4. D) choroid
  5. E) retina

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) The “blind spot” is associated with which one of the following?

  1. A) optic disk
  2. B) vitreous humor
  3. C) choroid
  4. D) fovea centralis
  5. E) lens

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which one of the following occurs when bright light hits the eye?

  1. A) The muscle arranged circularly around the iris relaxes.
  2. B) The pupil dilates.
  3. C) The photoreceptors no longer respond to the light.
  4. D) The pupil decreases in size.
  5. E) The muscle arranged radially around the iris contracts.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Which one of the following conditions results when the transparency of the lens decreases?

  1. A) glaucoma
  2. B) retinal detachment
  3. C) cataracts
  4. D) color blindness
  5. E) astigmatism

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) Color blindness usually results from a decrease in the number of

  1. A) rods
  2. B) optic disks
  3. C) foveae
  4. D) cones
  5. E) ciliary muscles

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) LASIK treatment functions to improve eyesight by

  1. A) completely removing a defective cornea
  2. B) widening the iris
  3. C) replacing the eye lens
  4. D) inserting a corrective pupil
  5. E) changing the shape of the cornea

Answer:  E

Topic:  Health & Wellness

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

35) Nearsightedness and farsightedness are caused by the

  1. A) density of the aqueous and vitreous humor
  2. B) length of the eyeball
  3. C) shape of the cornea
  4. D) shape of the lens
  5. E) positioning of the rods and cones

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) As humans age, their ability to focus on nearby objects deteriorates. This is the result of

  1. A) loss of rods and cones
  2. B) increased viscosity of the aqueous and vitreous humor
  3. C) stiffening of the lens and loss of accommodation capability
  4. D) inappropriate response of the iris to varying light intensities
  5. E) changing shape of the eyeball

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

37) Each of the following statements about cones is TRUE, EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) Cones enable humans to see color.
  2. B) Color vision is enabled by the presence of three types of cones.
  3. C) Cones are evenly distributed throughout the retina, accounting for visual acuity.
  4. D) Cones require more intense light for activation than rods do.
  5. E) Visual acuity is dependent upon cones and bright light.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) Which one of the following parts of the eye is affected by cataracts?

  1. A) cornea
  2. B) lens
  3. C) aqueous humor
  4. D) vitreous humor
  5. E) retina

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) Insufficient number of particular types of cones causes

  1. A) impaired night vision
  2. B) macular degeneration
  3. C) detachment of the retina
  4. D) impaired color vision
  5. E) glaucoma

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) During eye examinations, a test is done to monitor the pressure within the eye. This test is done to detect

  1. A) detachment of the retina
  2. B) glaucoma
  3. C) macular degeneration
  4. D) astigmatism
  5. E) cataracts

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

41) In the United States, more than 500,000 accidents and 6,000 deaths are linked to car crashes involving

  1. A) drivers with impaired corneas
  2. B) teenagers listening to loud music
  3. C) distracted drivers
  4. D) adults with diagnosed eye disease
  5. E) individuals under the age of 20 with damaged otoliths

Answer:  C

Topic:  Current Issue

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12.2   True/False Questions

 

1) The human body may stop responding to a stimulus even though the original stimulus is still present; this is a process referred to as receptor adaptation.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Stronger stimuli activate more receptors and trigger a greater amplitude and speed of action potentials in sensory neurons.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Pain receptors and receptors that monitor and maintain homeostasis typically do not adapt.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

4) Somatic sensations include temperature, touch, vibration, pressure, and pain; these sensations originate from receptors found in certain localized areas of the body.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Mechanoreceptors include unencapsulated dendritic endings, Merkel disks, Meissner’s corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, and olfactory receptors.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Taste hairs contain chemoreceptors that are specific for specific chemicals or tastants.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The vestibular apparatus located in the middle ear is a system of fluid-filled chambers that is essential to the sense of hearing.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Pressure in the middle ear is equalized with the external air pressure through the auditory tube.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Both eyes have a blind spot, an area where there are no photoreceptors. When an image is focused on the blind spot, it cannot be “seen.”

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The retina is composed of four layers of cells, which are the pigmented cells, photoreceptor cells, bipolar cells, and the ganglion cells. Axons of the ganglion cells become the optic nerve.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The figure above is a diagram of an abnormal eye that would result in vision problems. A person with this condition would be considered farsighted and would require convex lenses in order to see objects in the distance.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) LASIK surgery involves reshaping the lens to correct for vision problems such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Health & Wellness

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12.3   Matching Questions

 

Match the following types of receptors to their definitions.

 

  1. A) mechanoreceptors
  2. B) photoreceptors
  3. C) chemoreceptors
  4. D) pain receptors

 

1) allow a person to taste food

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) respond to immediate, extreme heat or cold

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) detect light touch of skin

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) respond to tissue damage

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) respond to light

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) B

 

 

In the figure above, match the structures of a taste bud with the regions (A-D) identified on the figure.

 

  1. A) B
  2. B) C
  3. C) A
  4. D) D

 

6) supporting cell

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) taste cell

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) sensory nerve cell

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) taste hairs

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) C

 

 

Using the figure above, identify the structures of the eye.

 

  1. A) retina
  2. B) sclera
  3. C) lens
  4. D) aqueous humor
  5. E) pupil
  6. F) cornea
  7. G) choroid
  8. H) iris
  9. I) vitreous humor

 

10) Label R represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Label S represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Label T represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Label U represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Label V represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Label W represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Label X represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Label Y represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Label Z represents the ________.

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 10) B 11) G 12) H 13) C 14) E 15) F 16) D 17) I 18) A

 


Match the following. Answers may be used more than once.

 

  1. A) inner ear
  2. B) middle ear
  3. C) outer ear

 

19) site of the vestibular canal and tympanic canal

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) air-filled chamber in temporal bone containing three small bones

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) sound waves moving through this area hit tympanic membrane

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) location of the auditory nerve

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) A

 


Match each of the following disorders associated with sensory mechanisms with its description.

 

  1. A) astigmatism
  2. B) presbyopia
  3. C) cataracts
  4. D) glaucoma
  5. E) otitis media
  6. F) myopia
  7. G) Ménière’s syndrome

 

23) chronic disorder of the inner ear; symptoms include nausea, dizziness, and loss of hearing

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) condition resulting from irregularities in the shape of the lens or cornea; symptoms include blurred vision

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) condition that results from a decrease in the normal transparency of the lens

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) condition that generally occurs after age 40 as the lens stiffens; results in the inability to focus on objects that are nearby

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) condition caused by blockage of the canal of Schlemm; increased amount of aqueous humor causes increased pressure in the eye; may lead to blindness

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) distant objects appear out of focus because the eyeball is longer than normal; also known as nearsightedness

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) inflammation of the middle ear; a common cause of earaches

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Answers: 23) G 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) F 29) E

 

 

12.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) ________ neurons transmit information about stimuli, in the form of electrical impulses, to integration centers.

Answer:  Sensory

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) When an individual first gets dressed, he or she is conscious of the clothing on his body. A short time later, however, he or she is no longer aware of it. This is known as ________.

Answer:  receptor adaptation

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) A fifth primary taste quality called ________ allows people to taste foods like parmesan cheese, mushrooms, and soy sauce.

Answer:  umami

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Pain caused by a heart attack in men is often felt in the left shoulder and left arm. This phenomenon is known as ________ pain.

Answer:  referred

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Foods that are potentially toxic or inedible are detected by ________ taste receptors.

Answer:  bitter

Topic:  Sec. 12.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) ________ pain oftentimes is not even detected until seconds or even minutes after an injury; this is due to the activation of chemically sensitive pain receptors.

Answer:  Slow

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The ________ ear is the location of the pinna and auditory canal.

Answer:  outer

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The ________ sorts sounds by tone and converts them into electrical impulses.

Answer:  inner ear, cochlea (either term can be used here)

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) The passageway that extends from the middle ear to the throat is the ________; this structure equalizes air pressure in the middle ear with atmospheric pressure.

Answer:  eustachian tube, auditory tube (either term can be used here)

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The structure of the cochlea that converts pressure waves to nerve impulses is the ________; it is composed of hair cells and a tectorial membrane.

Answer:  organ of Corti

Topic:  Sec. 12.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The two fluid-filled chambers of the vestibule are the ________ and ________.

Answer:  utricle, saccule (answers may go in any order)

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) The movement of tiny, bonelike crystals called ________, located in the vestibule of the vestibular apparatus, is important in determining the position of the head.

Answer:  otoliths

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) It is common for people who are traveling in cars or planes to experience an unpleasant sensation known as ________, which is due to conflicting sensory inputs from receptors located in muscles and tendons, the eyes, and the vestibular apparatus.

Answer:  motion sickness

Topic:  Sec. 12.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The middle layer of tissue in the back of the eye that consists of pigmented cells and blood vessels is the ________.

Answer:  choroid

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Accommodation enabling us to switch from focusing on something nearby to something more distant is accomplished by the ________ muscle.

Answer:  ciliary

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

16) The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eye.

Answer:  iris

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) A student is staring directly at a bird outside the classroom window. The image of the bird is focused on the ________ of the retina.

Answer:  fovea centralis

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

18) The two structures of the eye that focus light are the ________ and ________.

Answer:  cornea, lens (answers may go in any order)

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Hyperopia or farsightedness can be corrected with the use of ________ lenses.

Answer:  convex

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Light causes the pigment rhodopsin to ________, which in turn causes sodium channels on the photoreceptor cell to close.

Answer:  change shape

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Vision in dim light is due to the activity of ________ cells.

Answer:  rod

Topic:  Sec. 12.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Hearing loss resulting from damage to the tympanic membrane or the bones of the middle ear is known as ________ deafness.

Answer:  conduction

Topic:  Sec. 12.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Deafness in humans can have many causes. One form of deafness is caused by damage to hair cells. Explain how damaged hair cells can result in deafness.

Answer:  Hair cells are located in the inner ear and rest on the basilar membrane. The cells function to convert pressure waves created by sounds striking the tympanic membrane into electrical impulses. These impulses are normally sent to the brain via the vestibulocochlear nerve. However, if the hair cells never release neurotransmitters due to damage, then the sound is never sent to the brain.

Topic:  Sec. 12.4, 12.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Pain, especially intense sensations, is unpleasant and sometimes difficult for a person to cope with. The reality though is that pain detection is essential for human survival. Explain how pain detection is necessary for a person’s survival.

Answer:  Sensory receptors that detect pain are sensing potential deviations from homeostatic conditions. Specifically, sensory receptors have detected that either cell or tissue damage has occurred or certain stimuli that are present could evoke damage if not avoided. These sensory messages allow the body to avoid the stimuli and/or begin the process of tissue repair.

Topic:  Sec. 12.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) Receptor adaptation occurs when a sensory neuron stops sending impulses even though the original stimulus is still present. Provide several examples of receptors that adapt readily and others that adapt very slowly if at all. Explain the survival advantage in each of these situations.

Answer:  Some receptors, such as touch, light pressure, and olfactory (smell) receptors, adapt quite readily. This prevents constant bombardment of the central nervous system with information that is not necessarily critical. Such information might include the sensation of clothing on the body, which an individual is unaware of shortly after getting dressed. These receptors alert the central nervous system if the stimuli to which they have adapted change in any way. Other receptors such as pain receptors and silent receptors that monitor posture, body position, and internal body chemistry do not adapt and continue to keep the central nervous system informed. This is advantageous to the survival because pain receptors alert the individual to potential tissue damage, and prompt a response to take appropriate action. Silent receptors that monitor internal chemistry are necessary for the maintenance of homeostasis.

Topic:  Sec. 12.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 24   Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues

 

24.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The presence of chemicals or particles in air that have adverse effects on living organisms is termed

  1. A) acid rain
  2. B) eutrophication
  3. C) pollution
  4. D) global warming
  5. E) denitrification

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Gases such as nitrous oxide and carbon dioxide are called greenhouse gases because they

  1. A) block sunlight from reaching Earth
  2. B) block specific wavelengths of sunlight from penetrating
  3. C) permit sunlight to enter but trap the heat energy in the atmosphere
  4. D) block both sunlight and heat energy from penetrating the atmosphere
  5. E) stimulate photosynthesis in most plants

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) The ozone layer can be destroyed by pollutants such as

  1. A) sulfur dioxide
  2. B) CFCs
  3. C) carbon monoxide
  4. D) hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides
  5. E) carbon dioxide and oxygen

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The main human activities that have raised atmospheric CO2 levels are

  1. A) succession and adaptive radiation
  2. B) home development on grasslands and wetlands
  3. C) drainage of wetlands along rivers and oceans
  4. D) deforestation and burning fossil fuels
  5. E) negligible because CO2levels have risen and fallen naturally regardless of human activity

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) “Earth’s fever” refers to

  1. A) a rise in the temperature of Earth believed to be due to greenhouse gases
  2. B) the potential pandemics that many scientists believe could occur at any time with the burgeoning human population
  3. C) current disease epidemics, mainly those associated with disease spreading from animals like birds and livestock to humans
  4. D) Earth’s crust
  5. E) potential volcanic eruptions in locations that have not experienced such activity in many years

Answer:  A

Topic:  Current Issue

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Certain gases in the upper atmosphere allow sunlight to pass through to Earth’s surface, but prevent heat from escaping. This is known as

  1. A) global positioning
  2. B) desertification
  3. C) the greenhouse effect
  4. D) thermal inversion
  5. E) eutrophication

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The largest hole in the ozone layer occurs in the stratospheric layer over

  1. A) the Amazon rainforests
  2. B) the eastern coast of the United States
  3. C) the western coast of the United States
  4. D) Africa and South America
  5. E) Antarctica

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The greenhouse effect is a natural and important phenomenon because it

  1. A) removes smog from affected areas
  2. B) maintains the surface temperature on Earth
  3. C) reverses the effect that CFCs have on the ozone layer
  4. D) decreases the amount of carbon dioxide in the stratosphere
  5. E) reverses the effects of deforestation

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Power plants are undergoing a process known as “scrubbing” that is expected to reduce the extent of

  1. A) acid rain
  2. B) smog
  3. C) deforestation
  4. D) the greenhouse effect
  5. E) ozone depletion

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Understanding

 

10) Deep underground reservoirs of water are called

  1. A) gorges
  2. B) eutrophic zones
  3. C) non-phototrophic zones
  4. D) aquifers
  5. E) seismic buffers

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Eutrophication of a lake most likely is the result of

  1. A) an increase in oxygen content of the water
  2. B) elevated nitrogen and oxygen gas levels in the water
  3. C) an increase in atmospheric pressure associated with surface waters
  4. D) competitive exclusion
  5. E) excessive concentrations of organic and inorganic nutrients

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Stopping global warming will require commitment by all nations and will not be easy. One of the most promising strategies involves storing or burying CO2 deep in the oceans, a process termed

  1. A) denitrification
  2. B) sedimentary cycle
  3. C) carbon sequestration
  4. D) complement fixation
  5. E) carbon dioxide scrubbing

Answer:  C

Topic:  Current Issue

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the water on Earth?

  1. A) When humans divert water from one region to another, they always ensure that it does not have an effect on normal migration patterns of other species.
  2. B) Most of the water on Earth is frozen in glaciers and ice caps.
  3. C) Residents of the less industrialized countries typically use more water than residents in industrialized countries.
  4. D) Some semiarid and desert regions of the world have reached carrying capacity for humans due to the shortage of water.
  5. E) Water is considered a renewable resource because it is plentiful in all regions of Earth.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) What percent of Earth’s water is fresh water?

  1. A) <1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 25
  5. E) 40

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Toxicants occurring in aquatic ecosystems are highly subjected to biological magnification, meaning the

  1. A) pollutants take a long time to break down
  2. B) pollutants occur in higher concentrations in tissues of organisms higher up the food chain
  3. C) toxic chemicals specifically target primary producers, disrupting the entire food web
  4. D) chemicals are converted to more toxic compounds once in the water
  5. E) toxic chemicals accumulate in the upper (photic) zones of the water

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) All of the following statements accurately describe eutrophication EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) Eutrophication may be accelerated by agricultural runoff containing fertilizers.
  2. B) Eutrophication is a part of a natural process that converts freshwater into marsh.
  3. C) Eutrophication is beneficial and enhances the diversity of life-forms in a body of water.
  4. D) Eutrophication accelerates plant and algal growth at the expense of animal diversity.
  5. E) Sewage and other organic nutrient pollutants can enhance eutrophication.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) According to public health officials, all of the following may be caused by water pollutants EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) birth defects
  2. B) nervous disorders
  3. C) miscarriages
  4. D) skin rashes
  5. E) accommodation to allergies

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Which of the following pollutants is generally stored in dry locations because they remain a potential problem for thousands of years?

  1. A) radioactive waste
  2. B) PANs (peroxyacyl nitrates)
  3. C) CFCs
  4. D) heavy metals
  5. E) gasoline and oil

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Freshwater is most likely to be polluted

  1. A) by oil spills in ocean water moving inland
  2. B) as a result of eutrophication
  3. C) primarily by contaminants from aquifers moving to surface waters
  4. D) from runoff associated with urban areas’ chemicals used in farming in rural areas
  5. E) by radioactive waste seeping from nuclear reactors

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding rural poverty?

  1. A) Less than 25% of the world’s population lives in rural poverty.
  2. B) The problems of land use in rural areas are similar to those in cities.
  3. C) Those in impoverished rural communities will often cut down all trees for fuel and shelter.
  4. D) The use of communal lands in impoverished rural areas is carefully monitored.
  5. E) Few individuals living in rural areas depend on the local environment for sustenance.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21) A renewable energy source that taps into heat produced deep below ground is called

  1. A) hydroelectric
  2. B) geothermal
  3. C) solar
  4. D) “subterranean” wind
  5. E) fossil fuel

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

22) Which one of the following energy sources is NOT an alternative to fossil fuels?

  1. A) hydroelectric power
  2. B) wind farms
  3. C) biomass fuels
  4. D) nuclear energy
  5. E) offshore drilling

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Most of the energy used by humans comes from which one of the following sources?

  1. A) solar energy
  2. B) nuclear energy
  3. C) fossil fuels
  4. D) hydroelectric power
  5. E) geothermal power

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) Biomass fuels are least likely to be used in which one of the following countries?

  1. A) United States
  2. B) Brazil
  3. C) Iceland
  4. D) Vietnam
  5. E) England

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

25) Commercial logging by European countries in the Ivory Coast has reduced the pristine 70 million acres of forests that once existed to about

  1. A) fewer than 1 million acres
  2. B) 5-7 million acres
  3. C) 15-20 million acres
  4. D) 30 million acres
  5. E) 50 million acres

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Which one of the following actions of humans has not contributed to the worldwide reduction in biodiversity?

  1. A) pollution
  2. B) growth of cities
  3. C) logging
  4. D) clear-cutting of rain forests
  5. E) biomass energy sources

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

27) Creation of sustainable ecosystems cannot be achieved through

  1. A) decreased human consumption of everything, and thus a lower production of waste
  2. B) developing practices of recycling reusable materials
  3. C) a reduction in world population growth
  4. D) decreasing poverty so that people are not consumed by immediate needs (food, shelter) and can focus more on human’s long-term impact on the environment
  5. E) greater use of natural resources

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) ________ is a biomass fuel.

  1. A) Coal
  2. B) Oil
  3. C) Wood
  4. D) Gas
  5. E) Water

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Humans breathe in air that is comprised primarily of nitrogen and oxygen, with small amounts of carbon dioxide; trace amounts of thousands of pollutants are also present.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Despite an international agreement signed in 1987 to phase out the production of CFCs, depletion of the ozone will continue to affect Earth and its atmosphere for at least another one hundred years.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Thinning of the ozone has already been detected in the stratospheric ozone layer.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) A thermal inversion occurs when a warm stagnant air mass traps a cooler air mass containing smog beneath it.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Destruction of the ozone due to pollutants is limited to layers located only above North America.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

6) Smog forms when pollutants in the air react with each other in the presence of sunlight and carbon dioxide.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Heat is considered a type of water pollution because it increases the amount of oxygen in the water, which leads to the death of plants and the overpopulation of animals.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) Pollution of groundwater is generally a more serious concern than the pollution of surface water because groundwater is often a source of drinking water.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Pollutants of water include both living organisms and nonliving materials.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Human activities have resulted in at least one-third of the landmass of Earth being altered in some way.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Increasing population density on marginal lands in rural areas has resulted in desertification, which reduces the ability of the land to sustain the population.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Although it was one time hoped that nuclear energy would meet most human energy needs, this has not occurred due to expense and safeguards necessary to prevent meltdowns.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The use of biomass fuels is generally non-polluting.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Biodiversity refers to the variety of richness of species on Earth.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Urbanization typically increases the extent of biodiversity.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) Twenty-five percent of all prescription drugs sold in the United States are based on substances derived from fewer than 50 species of plants.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge

 

17) Although humans have had a negative impact on biodiversity in the past, the present global extinction rate is 20 times lower now than at any other time in the past.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) An increase in the current fertility rate of the human species will increase the human carrying capacity of Earth.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Creating a sustainable world will require stabilizing the human population growth rate and the global environment.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24.3   Matching Questions

 

Match the following air pollutants to their description.

 

  1. A) formed as water vapor reacts with sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
  2. B) produced by burning of fossil fuels and deforestation; contribute(s) to global warming
  3. C) nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons reacting with each other in the presence of water vapor and sunlight
  4. D) pollutant that can be derived from pesticides used in agriculture settings

 

1) smog

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) hydrocarbons

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) acid rain

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) greenhouse gases

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) B

24.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Prolific growth of algae as a result of pollutants in a lake is an example of ________.

Answer:  eutrophication

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) As DDT accumulates in the tissues of carnivores at increasing trophic levels, the concentration increases; this is representative of ________.

Answer:  biological magnification

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Ozone in the ________ comprises a thin layer that protects the surface of Earth from ultraviolet radiation.

Answer:  stratosphere

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides combine with water vapor in the presence of sunlight to form a gray layer of ________.

Answer:  smog

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) A(n) ________ occurs when a warm, stagnant layer of air traps a cooler mass of air containing smog below it.

Answer:  thermal inversion

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) CFCs are the primary air pollutants that destroy the ________.

Answer:  ozone or ozone layer [either term can be used here]

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Freshwater is most likely to become contaminated or polluted by ________ from urban and rural environments.

Answer:  runoff

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The death of animal life in a shallow body of water in conjunction with a rapid increase in plant life is known as ________.

Answer:  eutrophication

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Sources of energy that are renewable and derived from plants are called ________.

Answer:  biomass fuels

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) The Environmental Protection Agency estimates that approximately ________% of rural wells and water systems have some type of pollutant in them.

Answer:  50

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) ________ water is a slowly exchanging pool, and once it becomes polluted it is difficult to clean up.

Answer:  Ground

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12) Some pollutants such as mercury or DDT become concentrated in the tissues of organisms higher on the food chain through a process referred to as ________.

Answer:  biological magnification or biomagnification [either term can be used here]

Topic:  Sec. 24.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Damage to the ecosystem by the processes of desertification and deforestation occurs most commonly in ________ areas.

Answer:  rural

Topic:  Sec. 24.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The transformation of marginal lands into near-desert conditions unsuitable for future agriculture is referred to as ________.

Answer:  desertification

Topic:  Sec. 24.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Subsistence farming in tropical regions of the world results in habitat loss because of the practices of ________ and ________.

Answer:  burning, clear-cutting [answers may go in any order]

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) ________ refers to heat from deep underground sources used as a source of energy.

Answer:  Geothermal power, Geothermal, or Geothermal energy [any term can be used here]

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Scientists have identified approximately ________ million species of organisms, but millions more are thought to exist.

Answer:  1.75

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Despite abundant vegetation, ________ make poor farmland because of little topsoil and scant soil nutrients.

Answer:  rain forests

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) ________ provide valuable flood control because they can hold large volumes of water.

Answer:  Wetlands or Marshes [either term can be used here]

Topic:  Sec. 24.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) One way to reduce the amount of raw materials consumed by humans is by ________ useable materials.

Answer:  recycling

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Humans have become so dependent on fossil fuels that despite an increasing body of evidence that indicates burning these fuels is destroying aspects of the environment, little change in the sources of fuels has occurred. What types of alternative fuels can be used to reduce negative impacts on the environment?

Answer:  There are many alternative fuel sources that could be utilized, although the technologies for maximizing use still need to be further developed. Hydroelectric power and solar power both offer a tremendous source of energy. They also have the added benefit of being renewable resources that have very few negative consequences. Other fuels being explored include nuclear energy and biomass fuels. Public fears have slowed development of nuclear energy because of incidents at Three Mile Island in the United States and Chernobyl in the Ukraine.

Topic:  Sec. 24.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Explain how emissions of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide create the greenhouse effect.

Answer:  As these gases, and others, rise in the atmosphere, they accumulate in the stratosphere. This is a normal process that is necessary to maintain Earth’s characteristic temperatures because the gases trap heat derived from sunlight. However, when excess gases accumulate, too much heat is trapped and air and water temperatures rise above acceptable levels necessary to maintain a stabilized environment. The negative consequences can be loss of habitats, species die-off, melting of polar ice caps, and radical changes in weather patterns. Left unchecked, some scientists believe that, eventually, mass extinction could occur.

Topic:  Sec. 24.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Humans must work together to create a sustainable world. What can you do to contribute to this cause?

Answer:  By simply reducing the amount of resources you use, in particular water and energy, you can begin to have an immediate impact on sustainability. Be diligent in recycling, which will greatly reduce the amount of trash you generate that goes into landfills. The decision regarding how large your family will be is a much more personal and difficult consideration. However, reducing growth in human population is needed to avoid exceeding carrying capacity. Additionally, work with organizations that are attempting to reduce world poverty can make a difference and offer enormous personal fulfillment.

Topic:  Sec. 24.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

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