Human Biology, 11th Edition Sylvia S. Mader – Test Bank

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Human Biology, 11th Edition Sylvia S. Mader – Test Bank

 

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 2   The Chemistry of Living Things

 

2.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Which one of the following characteristics applies to both living organisms and nonliving things?

  1. A) composed of matter
  2. B) capable of reproduction
  3. C) capable of storing energy for later use
  4. D) capable of growth
  5. E) composed of cells

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Which one of the following is the study of matter and the energy that causes matter to combine, break apart, and recombine in everything living and nonliving?

  1. A) biology
  2. B) geology
  3. C) chemistry
  4. D) physics

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) ________ is the capacity to do work, the capacity to cause some change in matter.

  1. A) Energy
  2. B) Atom
  3. C) Matter
  4. D) Molecule

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) A mad scientist has ripped apart an atom and collected all the subatomic particles located in the nucleus of the atom. Which one of the following has he collected?

  1. A) electrons
  2. B) protons
  3. C) protons and neutrons
  4. D) electrons and protons
  5. E) neutrons and electrons

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the structure of the atom?

  1. A) The nucleus is composed of equal numbers of positively charged particles and negatively charged particles.
  2. B) All electrons are located at the same distance from the nucleus.
  3. C) In small elements, such as carbon, electrons have a positive charge; in larger elements, such as barium, electrons have a negative charge.
  4. D) Most of the mass of an atom is due to its protons and neutrons.
  5. E) Neutrons carry a negative charge.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the relationship between an atom and an element?

  1. A) An element is the fundamental unit of an atom.
  2. B) An element is composed of atoms that are joined together by ionic and covalent bonds.
  3. C) An atom is composed of different elements that are joined together by ionic and covalent bonds.
  4. D) An atom is the smallest unit of an element that demonstrates all of the properties of that element.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom can best be determined by

  1. A) atomic mass
  2. B) the subscript number following the chemical symbol
  3. C) atomic number
  4. D) the charge of the atom
  5. E) the chemical symbol

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Isotopes of an element have the same ________, but different ________.

  1. A) number of electron shells, numbers of protons
  2. B) atomic number, atomic masses
  3. C) number of neutrons, numbers of protons
  4. D) atomic mass, atomic numbers
  5. E) name, chemical symbols

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Radioisotopes have a number of uses in science and medicine. These uses include which one of the following?

  1. A) repairing damaged heart tissue
  2. B) dating fossils and treating cancer
  3. C) providing the power supply in heart pacemakers
  4. D) treating asthma and regulating nerve transmission
  5. E) curing diabetes

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and an atomic mass of 35. Therefore, chlorine has ________ electrons and ________ neutrons.

  1. A) 17, 18
  2. B) 18, 17
  3. C) 17, 35
  4. D) 35, 17
  5. E) 18, 18

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding electrons, shells, and energy?

  1. A) Electrons are located in shells around the nucleus.
  2. B) Electrons are attracted to each other because they have the same charge.
  3. C) In order for an electron to move closer to the nucleus, it must absorb energy.
  4. D) The innermost electron shell has the most potential energy.
  5. E) As an electron moves to a shell further from the nucleus, it loses energy.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Which one of the following is a molecule?

  1. A) NaCl
  2. B) O
  3. C) C
  4. D) Lead
  5. E) N

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

13) ________ bonds hold the hydrogens to the oxygen within a water molecule, and ________ bonds attract one water molecule to other water molecules.

  1. A) Ionic, hydrogen
  2. B) Hydrogen, ionic
  3. C) Hydrogen, covalent
  4. D) Covalent, hydrogen
  5. E) Ionic, covalent

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Ions in body fluids of a human are referred to as

  1. A) electrolytes
  2. B) osmolytes
  3. C) isotopes
  4. D) atoms

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding water?

  1. A) Each molecule of water consists of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen covalently bonded to each other.
  2. B) The oxygen side of the water molecule is partially positive.
  3. C) Water is a type of ion.
  4. D) Electrons are shared equally between the atoms of water.
  5. E) Water molecules are attracted to each other by ionic bonds.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Each of the following statements is TRUE regarding hydrogen bonds EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) Hydrogen bonds hold the two strands of DNA together.
  2. B) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the attraction of Na+to Cl-.
  3. C) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for some aspects of the three-dimensional structure of proteins.
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds form between different water molecules.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) Molecules such as water are referred to as ________ because they are electrically neutral overall but still have partially charged regions.

  1. A) electrolytes
  2. B) polar molecules
  3. C) ions
  4. D) covalently charged
  5. E) isotopes

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Water is an excellent solvent for biological systems because

  1. A) it can maintain a relatively unstable temperature for chemical reactions to occur.
  2. B) compounds with ionic bonds as well as those with polar covalent bonds readily dissolve in water.
  3. C) it is semisolid at body temperature, preventing it from flowing freely through the human body.
  4. D) it can rearrange its bonds, forming covalent bonds with other molecules once dissolved.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) A solution has been prepared by mixing glucose in water. Which one of the following statements CORRECTLY describes this solution?

  1. A) Both water and glucose are solutes.
  2. B) Both water and glucose are solvents.
  3. C) Water is the solute, and glucose is the solvent.
  4. D) Water is the solvent, and glucose is the solute.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

20) A solution with a pH of 6 has ________ times as many hydrogen ions as a solution with a pH of 8.

  1. A) 1,000
  2. B) 10
  3. C) 100
  4. D) 10,000
  5. E) 100,000

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21) A student measuring the pH of the water in a fish tank found it to have a pH of 8. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding that solution?

  1. A) The water is alkaline.
  2. B) The water does not contain hydrogen ions.
  3. C) The water contains equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions.
  4. D) The water is highly acidic.
  5. E) The water is more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 10.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Body fluids in humans have a high buffering capacity because of

  1. A) the presence of the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system
  2. B) the natural result of water as a solvent
  3. C) hydrogen bonding between water molecules in biological fluids
  4. D) shifts in blood pH that are required to maintain homeostasis

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Each of the following statements about carbon is TRUE EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) All organic molecules contain carbon.
  2. B) Carbon atoms form four covalent bonds.
  3. C) Carbon atoms form diverse molecules that may be linear, branched, or circular.
  4. D) Carbon can form strong hydrogen bonds with other elements.
  5. E) Carbon can form bonds with hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, as well as another carbon atom.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

24) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding macromolecules?

  1. A) Cells cannot use macromolecules to signal other cells.
  2. B) An example of a macromolecule is H2
  3. C) Cells produce macromolecules by the process of hydrolysis.
  4. D) Macromolecules are broken down by hydration synthesis.
  5. E) Cells use certain macromolecules to store energy.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

25) Which one of the following statements accurately describes hydrolysis reactions in biological systems?

  1. A) Hydrolysis reactions enable the breakdown of food molecules during digestion.
  2. B) Hydrolysis reactions enable small molecules to be joined to form larger molecules.
  3. C) Hydrolysis reactions generally require substantial input of energy.
  4. D) Hydrolysis reactions are spontaneous and don’t require catalysis by enzymes.
  5. E) Hydrolysis reactions generally occur for the purpose of energy storage.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Carbohydrates have which one of the following characteristics?

  1. A) They are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen.
  2. B) They release energy when their peptide bonds are broken.
  3. C) They are indigestible by most organisms.
  4. D) They contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1-2-1.
  5. E) They are able to store and transmit genetic information.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) Which one of the following is a very important source of energy for nearly all cells?

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) deoxyribose
  3. C) starch
  4. D) glucose
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Which one of the following is an oligosaccharide?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) maltose
  4. D) starch
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Sucrose is an oligosaccharide made up of which one of the following sugars?

  1. A) glucose and glucose
  2. B) deoxyribose and ribose
  3. C) starch and glycogen
  4. D) maltose and glucose
  5. E) glucose and fructose

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Lipids are important to biological systems because

  1. A) they are solid at body temperature so they stabilize membranes
  2. B) some lipid types are potentially large sources of energy to perform cellular work
  3. C) most help to buffer aqueous solutions in the body
  4. D) all lipids are very soluble in water
  5. E) they are able to store and transmit genetic information

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which one of the following molecules is stored in adipose tissue and serves as an important source of energy for the human body?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) steroids
  3. C) glycogen
  4. D) triglycerides
  5. E) phospholipids

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Which one of the following is a lipid?

  1. A) cholesterol
  2. B) alanine
  3. C) maltose
  4. D) glycogen
  5. E) cellulose

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) The most important physical characteristic of lipids with regard to living organisms is that they

  1. A) are hydrophobic
  2. B) are very large and therefore difficult to store
  3. C) dissolve easily in water
  4. D) are typically a form of waste product that is difficult to eliminate
  5. E) are denser than water

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) Which one of the following forms a bilayer structure that is found in cell membranes?

  1. A) triglycerides
  2. B) amino acids
  3. C) cholesterol
  4. D) phospholipids
  5. E) saturated fats

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Pancreatic cells make insulin, which is a type of protein. These cells use ________ in order to synthesize insulin by the process of ________.

  1. A) oligosaccharides, hydrolysis
  2. B) nucleotides, condensation
  3. C) amino acids, dehydration synthesis
  4. D) fatty acids and glycerol, hydrolysis
  5. E) monosaccharides, dehydration synthesis

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

36) Each amino acid is composed of a central carbon that forms covalent bonds with four other atoms/molecules. These atoms/molecules include each of the following EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) an R group
  2. B) an A group
  3. C) an amino group
  4. D) a hydrogen atom
  5. E) a carboxyl group

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

37) Alpha helices and beta sheets are characteristic of protein

  1. A) primary structure
  2. B) secondary structure
  3. C) tertiary structure
  4. D) quaternary structure
  5. E) enzymatic structure

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) Which one of the following is a function of a protein?

  1. A) stores genetic material and enables its transmission to the next generation
  2. B) acts as a catalyst, speeding up chemical reactions
  3. C) is a major subunit of cellulose
  4. D) is a primary structural component of a cell membrane
  5. E) provides energy for a muscle contraction

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

39) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?

  1. A) Enzyme function is not affected by changes in temperature or pH.
  2. B) Enzymes slow the rate of chemical reactions in living systems.
  3. C) Enzymes are consumed in a chemical reaction, so an organism must constantly replace these enzymes.
  4. D) Each enzyme catalyzes one specific reaction or group of reactions.
  5. E) Enzymes convert products into reactants.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Which one of the following is needed to synthesize a new strand of DNA?

  1. A) lipids
  2. B) glucose
  3. C) amino acids
  4. D) nucleotides
  5. E) ribose

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

41) DNA differs from RNA in that DNA

  1. A) is single stranded
  2. B) contains deoxyribose
  3. C) is made up of nucleotides
  4. D) contains cytosine
  5. E) contains phosphates

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) A research student is analyzing the nucleic acid of a virus. He finds that the nucleic acid contains thymine. From this it can be concluded that the nucleic acid

  1. A) contains uracil
  2. B) contains ribose
  3. C) is actually a protein
  4. D) contains glucose
  5. E) is a strand of DNA

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding nucleotides?

  1. A) There are three different DNA nucleotides.
  2. B) DNA nucleotides are assembled into RNA by the process of dehydration synthesis.
  3. C) DNA nucleotides contain deoxyribose; RNA nucleotides contain sucrose.
  4. D) Nucleotides are bonded together by covalent bonds between the sugars and the phosphates.
  5. E) A DNA nucleotide could be made up of ribose, a phosphate, and cytosine.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

44) Which one of the following occurs when a phosphate is removed from an ATP molecule?

  1. A) Energy is added to the ATP molecule to form ADP.
  2. B) Oxygen produced in the reaction causes the molecule to explode.
  3. C) Energy is released for cell work.
  4. D) Chemical reactions stop in a cell due to lack of an energy source.
  5. E) Fat is converted to protein.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

45) Proteins that function as a catalyst

  1. A) slow down the speed at which chemical reactions occur, but do not alter the final products formed
  2. B) facilitate chemical reactions by altering the final products formed
  3. C) maintain primary structure
  4. D) can participate only in reactions that synthesize new products
  5. E) are referred to as enzymes

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) protein
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) lipid
  5. E) aqueous

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.6-2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?

  1. A) carbohydrate
  2. B) protein
  3. C) nucleic acid
  4. D) lipid
  5. E) aqueous

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.6-2.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Electrons are smaller than protons, are negatively charged, and orbit the nucleus.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) All matter is made up of atoms.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) If the number of protons in an atom equals the number of electrons in the atom, the atom is an ion.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Atoms with either more or fewer neutrons than the usual number for an element are referred to as isotopes.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Potential energy is energy that has not been used yet, but has the potential to do work.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) When water is released from a dam, potential energy is converted to chemical energy.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

7) The type of bond indicated by the dotted lines in the figure above is a hydrogen bond.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) The difference between water molecules in liquid water and water molecules in ice is in the number of covalent bonds that form.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) During intense exercise, you produce a lot of heat energy, yet your body temperature rises only in small increments. This temperature stability is because water in body fluids releases the heat very quickly.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) One of the most important buffer pairs in blood is carbonic acid and bicarbonate because they regulate the pH of blood by absorbing and releasing hydrogen ions as needed.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The more buffers present in a body fluid, the more likely that the blood pH will change after absorbing nutrients during digestion.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

12) Because carbon requires four additional electrons to fill its outermost shell, it has a natural tendency to form four covalent bonds with other atoms, making it an ideal element for forming structures in living cells.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The figure above shows a triglyceride that contains unsaturated fatty acids.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

14) The figure above shows a triglyceride that is liquid at room temperature.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) If your blood pH is lowered significantly, many proteins will not be able to fold correctly. The result will be decreased enzyme function throughout the body.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2.3   Matching Questions

 

Match each of the following descriptions to the appropriate term. Each term may be used only once.

 

  1. A) molecules
  2. B) nucleic acids
  3. C) chemical bonds
  4. D) atom
  5. E) elements
  6. F) proton
  7. G) electrons
  8. H) carbohydrates
  9. I) amino acids
  10. J) matter
  11. K) isotopes
  12. L) lipids

 

1) a component of an atom that carries a positive charge

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) the smallest unit of matter that can take part in a chemical reaction

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) anything that has mass and occupies space

Topic: Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) attractive forces between atoms in molecules

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) different forms of the same element that differ in their number of neutrons

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) steroids, triglycerides

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) matter that cannot be broken down

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) DNA, RNA

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) water, sodium chloride, carbon dioxide

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) alanine, glycine, cysteine

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

11) glucose, cellulose, glycogen

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) part of an atom that may participate in bonding with another atom

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) F 2) D 3) J 4) C 5) K 6) L 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) I 11) H 12) G

 


Match the following.

 

  1. A) unsaturated fat
  2. B) saturated fat
  3. C) glucose
  4. D) glycogen
  5. E) cellulose
  6. F) DNA
  7. G) cholesterol
  8. H) polypeptide

 

13) a double strand of nucleotides; stores genetic information

Topic: Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) lipid that stabilizes membranes and is a precursor to many hormones

Topic: Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) dominant energy source used by cells

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) major structural polysaccharide produced by plants

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) a molecule consisting of glycerol plus fatty acid chains with two hydrogen atoms per carbon atom; solid at room temperature

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) a polysaccharide stored in the human body

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

19) a strand of 3 to 100 amino acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) a triglyceride that has double bonds in its fatty acids and is a liquid at room temperature

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 13) F 14) G 15) C 16) E 17) B 18) D 19) H 20) A

 

 

2.4   Short Answer Questions

 

Use the letters from the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

 

 

1) The subatomic particles ________ and ________ have approximately the same mass.

Answer:  B, C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Isotopes of this element would differ in the number of ________.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) In order for this atom to be electrically neutral, the number of subatomic particles labeled “A” in the figure would have to equal the number of ________.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The label ________ points to a neutron.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) In order for this atom to develop a positive charge, it would have to lose ________.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The number of subatomic particles ________ is the atomic number of that atom.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) All things on Earth are made up of ________, which is defined as anything that has mass and occupies space.

Answer:  matter

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The pure form of matter that cannot be broken down into a simpler form is a(n) ________.

Answer:  element

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Protons and neutrons are located in the ________ of an atom.

Answer:  nucleus

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) In the atom, electrons are located in clouds, with negative charges around the nucleus; these are called ________.

Answer:  shells

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Isotopes that give off energy and emit particles are known as ________.

Answer:  radioisotopes

Topic:  Sec. 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Water held behind a dam has a large amount of ________ energy.

Answer:  potential

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) An electrically charged molecule or atom is a(n) ________.

Answer:  ion

Topic:  Sec. 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Molecules that are polar and attracted to water are ________; molecules that are nonpolar and therefore not attracted to water are ________.

Answer:  hydrophilic, hydrophobic

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Evaporation of water from the skin results in a(n) ________ in body temperature.

Answer:  decrease

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Molecules that give up or donate hydrogen ions are ________.

Answer:  acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) The acidity or alkalinity of a solution can be measured in terms of ________.

Answer:  pH

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Which solution has more free hydrogen ions: pH = 9 or pH = 3?

Answer:  pH = 3

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) The normal pH of human blood falls within a range that is near a(n) ________ pH.

Answer:  neutral

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________.

Answer:  buffer

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Large organic molecules that are composed of thousands of smaller molecules bonded to one another are known as ________.

Answer:  macromolecules

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) The process by which cells break down organic macromolecules into their subunits is ________.

Answer:  hydrolysis

Topic:  Sec. 2.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) In order for a cell to produce a fat, it must have one molecule of ________ and three ________.

Answer:  glycerol, fatty acids

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) A diet rich in ________ fat is believed to contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease.

Answer:  saturated

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

25) The structure of a cell membrane includes a modified form of lipid called a(n) ________.

Answer:  phospholipid

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Lipid molecules composed of four joined carbon rings are known as ________.

Answer:  steroids

Topic:  Sec. 2.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) When a protein is heated, it may unfold, losing its secondary, tertiary, and even quaternary structure. This process is known as ________.

Answer:  denaturation

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) A polypeptide is generally referred to as a(n) ________ if it has more than 100 amino acids and has folded into a complex structure with a specific function.

Answer:  protein

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) The molecule that stores the set of instructions of a cell and directs everything a cell does is ________.

Answer:  DNA

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) The molecule with which an enzyme reacts is a(n) ________.

Answer:  substrate (reactant)

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) There are ________ different deoxyribonucleotides found in the human genome.

Answer:  four

Topic:  Sec. 2.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

32) Plants produce a polysaccharide made of glucose known as ________, which is virtually indigestible by most animals.

Answer:  cellulose

Topic:  Sec. 2.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) The universal energy source for cells is a nucleotide known as ________.

Answer:  ATP

Topic:  Sec. 2.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

2.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Describe how denaturing a protein alters the function of that protein.

Answer:  Denaturing a protein permanently disrupts protein structure. Ordinarily, if the protein shape is altered, so is the function of that protein. This can be seen with denatured enzymes that lose the ability to bind the substrate, and thus no chemical reaction can occur.

Topic:  Sec. 2.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) Explain how water in the human body helps to regulate body temperature following a long-distance bike ride.

Answer:  Water in body fluids is able to absorb heat without experiencing large temperature shifts. Water is also able to hold the heat, so that when the warm fluid moves to the periphery of the body, the heat can be exchanged or released into the environment. Perspiration is one means for the heat to be released from the body, which in turn allows a person to maintain a relatively constant body temperature.

Topic:  Sec. 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

3) In the human body, bicarbonate and carbonate ions work together to stabilize or buffer the pH of body fluids. What would happen to blood if these buffering agents were removed?

Answer:  Blood pH could not be regulated in the absence of this buffering pair. Anything absorbed or released from body fluids that altered the hydrogen or hydroxyl ion content of blood would cause a pH change. For humans who tightly regulate homeostasis, even relatively modest changes in blood pH can have devastating consequences.

Topic:  Sec. 2.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 4   From Cells to Organ Systems

 

4.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) A group of cells that are similar in structure and work together to perform a common function are referred to as a(n)

  1. A) organ system
  2. B) tissue
  3. C) organ
  4. D) community
  5. E) organism

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) The tissue lining the mouth, organs of the digestive system, and inner surfaces of the lungs is classified as

  1. A) connective
  2. B) epithelial
  3. C) nervous
  4. D) muscle
  5. E) connective and nervous

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Which one of the following types of junctions in an epithelium allows the tissue to stretch and bend, as in the epithelium of the skin?

  1. A) tight junction
  2. B) adhesion junction
  3. C) glandular junction
  4. D) stratified junction
  5. E) gap junction

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding endocrine glands?

  1. A) As the body matures, endocrine glands develop from specialized exocrine glands.
  2. B) Endocrine glands empty their products into a duct.
  3. C) Examples of endocrine glands include sweat glands and salivary glands.
  4. D) Endocrine glands are connective tissues that are specialized to produce and secrete a product.
  5. E) Endocrine glands produce and secrete hormones.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Which one of the following is characteristic of an exocrine gland but NOT of an endocrine gland?

  1. A) produces hormones
  2. B) can generate and transmit nerve impulses
  3. C) releases its products into a duct
  4. D) releases gland products into the blood
  5. E) is composed entirely of connective tissue

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Which one of the following is found directly beneath the cells of an epithelial tissue?

  1. A) fibrous connective tissue
  2. B) basement membrane
  3. C) collagen and elastic fibers
  4. D) bi or multipolar extensions
  5. E) muscle tissue

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) What kind of cells make up the basement membrane?

  1. A) cuboidal epithelial cells
  2. B) squamous epithelial cells
  3. C) columnar epithelial cells
  4. D) connective tissue cells
  5. E) no cells, the basement membrane is an acellular structure, composed of protein

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) A student in a histology class was asked to describe the structure of a stratified squamous epithelium. Which one of the following is the best description?

  1. A) tissue composed of protein fibers in a ground substance and a few cells
  2. B) tissue composed of one layer of flat cells located on a basement membrane
  3. C) tissue composed of contracting protein fibers enclosed by plasma membranes
  4. D) tissue composed of several layers of tall cells resting on a basement membrane
  5. E) tissue composed of several layers of flat cells resting on a basement membrane

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Application

 

 

9) In regions of the human body that must precisely control what enters or exits tissues, which one of the following is(are) present to ensure adjacent cells are packed close together?

  1. A) basement membrane
  2. B) adhesion junctions
  3. C) collagen
  4. D) tight junctions
  5. E) gap junctions

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) Goblet cells are critical to the movement of food in the body because they

  1. A) secrete mucus in the digestive tract
  2. B) produce basement membrane for epithelial tissues
  3. C) synthesize cholesterol
  4. D) form gap junctions
  5. E) produce sodium-potassium pumps

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) A student is describing the tissue that makes up the walls of the alveoli in the lungs. It appears that these walls are composed of flattened cells arranged in a single layer to facilitate gas exchange. Which one of the following terms best describes this tissue?

  1. A) simple cuboidal
  2. B) stratified squamous
  3. C) simple squamous
  4. D) simple columnar
  5. E) stratified cuboidal

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

12) All of the following are types of connective tissue EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) bone
  2. B) cartilage
  3. C) blood
  4. D) muscle
  5. E) adipose

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

13) A connective tissue differs from an epithelial tissue in that connective tissue

  1. A) is composed of cells supported by a basement membrane
  2. B) can produce and secrete products into the bloodstream
  3. C) is composed of cells that can be described as squamous or cuboidal
  4. D) is composed primarily of a nonliving extracellular material, which is located between the cells
  5. E) is composed of cells interconnected by gap junctions or adhesion junctions

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Which one of the following functions is associated with one type of connective tissue?

  1. A) contraction
  2. B) a membrane potential
  3. C) absorption of digestive products
  4. D) transport
  5. E) secretion

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) In which one of the following locations would one expect to find cartilage?

  1. A) between the skin and the underlying muscle
  2. B) between the vertebrae
  3. C) in a tendon
  4. D) in the wall of a blood vessel
  5. E) in adipose tissue

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Which one of the following wraps around, supports, and holds organs in proper position within the body?

  1. A) loose areolar tissue
  2. B) tendons
  3. C) ligaments
  4. D) cytoskeleton
  5. E) reticular tissue

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) Which type of tissue is characteristic of ligaments and tendons?

  1. A) loose connective tissue
  2. B) dense connective tissue
  3. C) elastic connective tissue
  4. D) reticular connective tissue
  5. E) muscle tissue

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Which one of the following types of tissues surrounds hollow organs that change shape or size regularly?

  1. A) loose connective tissue
  2. B) dense connective tissue
  3. C) elastic connective tissue
  4. D) reticular connective tissue

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) All of the following are functions of cartilage EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) mineral (calcium, phosphorus) storage
  2. B) maintaining shape of body parts, such as nose and ears
  3. C) protection and cushioning of joints
  4. D) reduction of friction at joints
  5. E) prebone models in the fetus that develop into bones

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

20) What general type of tissue is characterized by few cells, separated by a nonliving extracellular matrix?

  1. A) epithelial tissue
  2. B) connective tissue
  3. C) muscle tissue
  4. D) nervous tissue
  5. E) organ tissue

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

21) The type of muscle responsible for involuntary contractions of the stomach is ________ muscle.

  1. A) smooth
  2. B) cardiac
  3. C) intercalated
  4. D) striated
  5. E) skeletal

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Vasoconstriction is a term that refers to the contraction of muscle in the walls of the blood vessels, thus causing the diameter of the blood vessel to decrease. Which one of the following types of muscle would be involved in this contraction?

  1. A) skeletal
  2. B) smooth
  3. C) cardiac
  4. D) both cardiac and smooth
  5. E) both skeletal and smooth

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Which type of tissue is able to contract?

  1. A) epithelial
  2. B) loose connective
  3. C) dense connective
  4. D) muscle
  5. E) nervous

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

24) Which one of the following tissues can respond to the environment by generating electrical signals?

  1. A) dermis
  2. B) nervous
  3. C) muscle
  4. D) epithelial
  5. E) connective

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

25) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding glial cells?

  1. A) They are located in the matrix of cartilage.
  2. B) They transmit nerve impulses from the brain to the internal organs.
  3. C) They stimulate the contraction of cardiac muscle.
  4. D) They support and protect neurons.
  5. E) They produce blood plasma.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Which one of the following are structures in the body that are composed of two or more different tissue types joined together to perform a specific function?

  1. A) tissues
  2. B) organs
  3. C) organ systems
  4. D) junctions
  5. E) body cavities

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) The abdominal cavity is separated from the thoracic cavity by the

  1. A) stomach
  2. B) diaphragm
  3. C) liver
  4. D) heart
  5. E) lungs

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Which one of the following is a tissue membrane positioned in thin cavities between bones in movable joints?

  1. A) synovial membrane
  2. B) basement membrane
  3. C) cutaneous membrane
  4. D) mucous membrane
  5. E) serous membrane

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Which one of the following membranes lines the airways and digestive tract?

  1. A) serous
  2. B) cutaneous
  3. C) membranous
  4. D) synovial
  5. E) mucous

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) The wrist is located ________ to the elbow.

  1. A) superior
  2. B) distal
  3. C) proximal
  4. D) anterior
  5. E) inferior

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

31) Which one of the following is found in the dermis?

  1. A) cardiac muscle
  2. B) keratinocytes
  3. C) sweat gland
  4. D) melanocytes
  5. E) skeletal muscle

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Skin functions to

  1. A) absorb sunlight to facilitate the synthesis of vitamin A
  2. B) initiate muscle contractions
  3. C) provide protection from dehydration
  4. D) synthesize components for bone tissue
  5. E) produce vitamin C

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding skin?

  1. A) Beneath the dermis is the basement membrane, which separates the dermis from the hypodermis.
  2. B) Keratin is a protein in the cells of the epidermis that provides strength and waterproofing.
  3. C) Melanocytes and keratinocytes are two skin cell types that are prevalent in the dermis.
  4. D) The sebaceous glands and the sweat glands are two types of endocrine glands located in the dermis.
  5. E) Melanocytes produce calcium, which strengthens the skin.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) A fluid-filled blister develops when excessive rubbing of the skin causes the ________ and ________ to separate from each other.

  1. A) tight junctions, gap junctions
  2. B) epidermis, dermis
  3. C) dermis, hypodermis
  4. D) melanocytes, keratinocytes
  5. E) epidermis, hypodermis

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

35) In a negative feedback system, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. A) A sensor detects a stimulus, which in turn amplifies the original disturbance.
  2. B) Deviations from a desired condition are automatically detected and counteracted.
  3. C) Homeostasis cannot be re-established until the effector is turned off.
  4. D) The effector activates the sensor.
  5. E) A sensor is not needed because the body anticipates the coming change.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) Calcium levels in the body are maintained by hormones. If the blood calcium level rises above a set point, calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland and sets into motion responses to lower the blood calcium back to the set point. If the blood calcium level falls below a set point, the parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone that sets into motion responses to raise the blood calcium. These homeostatic responses are examples of

  1. A) positive feedback
  2. B) effectors
  3. C) sensors
  4. D) negative feedback

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

37) Positive feedback control occurs

  1. A) during maintenance of proper body temperature
  2. B) when insulin and glucagon regulate blood glucose levels
  3. C) during the process of childbirth (labor)
  4. D) to counter the effects of negative feedback
  5. E) in other animals but not in humans

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

38) Each of these organ systems is involved in the homeostatic regulation of body temperature EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) nervous system
  2. B) integumentary system
  3. C) circulatory system
  4. D) muscular system
  5. E) skeletal system

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

4.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Although the cells of a multicellular organism are specialized for certain functions, those cells must also be integrated and organized in order to work together to benefit the organism.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Control systems most likely involved in maintaining homeostasis are termed positive feedback.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) A stratified epithelium is often composed of multiple layers of cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells, and usually located in body regions to provide protection.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Desmosomes allow materials to pass directly from one cell to another.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

5) A connective tissue made up primarily of fat and elastic tissue would confer strength to the structure in which it is located.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Cartilage functions well as a cushioning structure because it is composed primarily of collagen fibers in a ground substance with a lot of water.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) A torn tendon sidelines athletes for long periods of time because the tissues possess less vascular tissue than bone.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) Weight loss typically leads to a reduction in both the number and size of adipocytes.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Since skin is made up of several types of tissues and has a number of different functions, it is best classified as an organ.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Tanning increases the number and density of melanocytes in the epidermis.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Sweat is released by exocrine glands on the skin surface as a means to lower body temperature.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4.3   Matching Questions

 

Match each of the following items with its description.

 

  1. A) smooth
  2. B) skeletal
  3. C) both cardiac and smooth
  4. D) all forms of muscle
  5. E) cardiac

 

1) gap junctions between adjacent cells

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) composed of tightly packed cells called muscle fibers

Topic: Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) connects to tendons

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) ability to contract

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) located in walls of hollow organs and tubes

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) involuntary

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) possesses intercalated discs and the cells branch

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) E

 

 


Match each of the following diagrams in the figure below to the type of tissue it represents.

 

8) designed for secretion and absorption

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) connective

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) muscle

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) nervous

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension


Match each of the following descriptions to the appropriate term.

 

  1. A) distal
  2. B) inferior
  3. C) proximal
  4. D) sagittal
  5. E) posterior
  6. F) anterior

 

12) a plane that divides the body into left and right sections

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) at or near the front

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) near to a point of reference

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) located below another structure

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) farther away from a point of reference

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) at or near the back

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 12) D 13) F 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) E

 

Using the figure above, identify the type of cell junction used in each of the following.

 

18) These junctions join cardiac cells, allowing transfer of ions and water between cells.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

19) These junctions are found between cells lining the digestive tract and prevent the passage of any substances between adjoining cells.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

20) These junctions allow for movement and flexibility, such as is needed for tissues like the epithelium of the skin that must stretch and bend.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

 

 


Match each organ system with its description.

 

  1. A) reproductive
  2. B) digestive
  3. C) integumentary
  4. D) circulatory
  5. E) endocrine
  6. F) urinary
  7. G) skeletal
  8. H) respiratory
  9. I) nervous

 

21) functions to remove metabolic waste products; maintains body water composition

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) responds to stimuli by producing and releasing hormones

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) responds to stimuli by producing electrical and chemical signals

Topic: Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) mechanically and chemically breaks down food into smaller units

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) protects the body from injury and dehydration; receives sensory information from the environment

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) promotes gas exchange between the body and the environment

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) moves gases, nutrients, and metabolic wastes through body

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) protects and supports softer body parts; produces blood cells

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

29) produces sex cells

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 21) F 22) E 23) I 24) B 25) C 26) H 27) D 28) G 29) A

 

4.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) The type of tissue that makes up the sweat glands, salivary glands, and endocrine glands is ________.

Answer:  epithelial

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

2) Specialized epithelial tissues that produce and secrete a product are known as ________.

Answer:  glands

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) The type of epithelial cells most commonly associated with absorption in the small intestine is ________.

Answer:  columnar

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) An epithelium consisting of multiple layers of flat cells is classified as a(n) ________ epithelium.

Answer:  stratified squamous

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Glands that secrete their product into a duct are classified as ________ glands.

Answer:  exocrine

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Epithelial tissues are classified according to the cell ________ as well as the number of cell layers making up the tissue.

Answer:  shape

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) A(n) ________ epithelium allows gas exchange in the lungs.

Answer:  simple or simple squamous

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Spot desmosomes are actually ________ junctions, which allow for slight flexibility in an epithelium.

Answer:  adhesion

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) A supportive noncellular proteinaceous layer underneath epithelial tissue is the ________ membrane.

Answer:  basement

Topic:  Sec. 4.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Connective tissue is unique because the cells secrete a(n) ________ that can be semiliquid or hardened.

Answer:  extracellular matrix

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

11) ________ is an abundant protein found in dense connective tissue (tendons and ligaments) and in cartilage.

Answer:  Collagen

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Connective tissue cells that produce collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers are the ________.

Answer:  fibroblasts

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Cells in cartilage that produce the ground substance are the ________.

Answer:  chondroblasts

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Blood, cartilage, and bone are types of ________ tissue.

Answer:  connective or specialized connective

Topic:  Sec. 4.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The function of smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle is ________ in response to stimulus.

Answer:  contraction or to contract

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) Skeletal muscle attaches to ________, which connect the muscle to bone.

Answer:  tendons

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Cardiac muscle is located only in the ________.

Answer:  heart

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Nervous tissue is composed of two types of cells: ________ that conduct impulses and ________ that surround and protect these cells.

Answer:  neurons, glial cells

Topic:  Sec. 4.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) A group of two or more tissues that function as a unit is a(n) ________.

Answer:  organ

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) The toes are located ________ to the knee.

Answer:  distal

Topic:  Sec. 4.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Skeletal muscle is considered ________ muscle because conscious control can be exercised over its movement.

Answer:  voluntary

Topic:  Sec. 4.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) The skin provides a waterproof barrier surrounding the body because of the presence of ________, a protein in the epidermal cells.

Answer:  keratin

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) The presence of a suntan is due to increased activity of ________ in response to increased levels of ultraviolet radiation.

Answer:  melanocytes

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) A gland located in the dermis of the skin that helps to regulate body temperature is the ________ gland, which is a type of ________ gland.

Answer:  sweat, exocrine

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) The ability of living organisms to maintain a constant internal environment despite changes in the external environment is ________.

Answer:  homeostasis

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Body temperature is controlled by a negative feedback control system. The hypothalamus is the ________ for this system.

Answer:  control center

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4.5   Essay Questions

 

1) If you were in a bike accident that resulted in bleeding, explain why the injury must be deeper than the epidermis.

Answer:  The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. It is composed mostly of dead epithelial cells, which do not require a blood supply. The closest blood vessels to the skin surface lie in the dermis, so the injury must have at least penetrated the second layer of the integumentary system.

Topic:  Sec. 4.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

2) Blood pressure is carefully regulated by a negative feedback control system in the body. When the blood pressure falls below a set point, this decreased pressure is detected by baroreceptors (pressure receptors) in the aorta and carotid arteries. These receptors send signals to a region of the brain known as the medulla oblongata. This region of the brain integrates incoming signals and sends signals to the heart to increase the strength of contractions and to the blood vessels, to constrict arterioles so as to increase the blood pressure, returning it to normal. Based on this information, identify each of the parts of this control system:

  1. a) controlled variable
  2. b) sensor
  3. c) control center
  4. d) effector(s)

Answer:  The controlled variable in this system is the blood pressure, specifically the arterial blood pressure. The sensors are the baroreceptors located in the aorta and carotid arteries. These sensors send information about arterial blood pressure to the medulla oblongata, which is the location of the control center. The control center in the medulla communicates with the effectors via nerve impulses. The effectors are the heart muscle itself (which can beat more forcefully) and the arterioles (which can dilate or constrict) in response to the signals from the medulla oblongata.

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) During long, sustained aerobic exercise, a lot of heat is generated that elevates body temperature. Describe how a homeostatic control system would likely work to cool body temperature back to normal. Specify each component of the control system.

Answer:  In this case, the controlled variable that needs to be realigned is body temperature—it is too hot. A negative feedback control system would be expected to respond by generating an effector response that moves the controlled variable in the opposite direction of what aerobic exercise induced. Typically sweating and panting help release heat so that normal body temperature can be reached.

Topic:  Sec. 4.8

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 9   The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense

 

9.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) Body defenses that respond to generalized tissue damage and many common pathogens are referred to as

  1. A) phagocytic
  2. B) antipathogenic responses
  3. C) nonspecific mechanisms
  4. D) lymphomas
  5. E) specific mechanisms

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

  1. A) rabies
  2. B) Lyme disease
  3. C) syphilis
  4. D) toxic shock syndrome
  5. E) tuberculosis

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) production of antibiotics
  2. B) breakdown of raw sewage
  3. C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine
  4. D) production of soy sauce
  5. E) production of vitamins for the human body

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) Developing strategies for treating HIV infection and preventing AIDS in sub-Saharan Africa have been complicated by

  1. A) an overabundance of medical personnel in the region
  2. B) the inability to identify AIDS patients located in sub-Saharan Africa
  3. C) a complex network of roads for travel to villages
  4. D) medical records being coded differently than in North America
  5. E) intense competition from European and North American pharmaceutical corporations in providing funds for education and treatment of AIDS

Answer:  B

Topic:  Current Issue

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) When comparing viruses and bacteria, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  1. A) Viruses are larger than bacteria.
  2. B) Viruses are pathogens; bacteria are decomposers.
  3. C) Viruses have membrane-bound organelles; bacteria do not have membrane-bound organelles.
  4. D) Viruses and bacteria are both able to reproduce on their own.
  5. E) Viruses and bacteria both contain genetic material.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The bubonic plague epidemic that swept through Europe between 1348 and 1350 A.D. was induced by a(n)

  1. A) virus
  2. B) prion
  3. C) protozoan
  4. D) bacterium
  5. E) unidentified eukaryotic organism

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Once a prion enters a nerve cell, it essentially

  1. A) assumes the correct folding orientation for the protein
  2. B) stops the cascade of misfolding events associated with adjacent cells
  3. C) becomes self-propagating, causing misfolding of nearby normal proteins
  4. D) differentiates into a nonreplicating virus
  5. E) differentiates into a replicating virus

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) Antibiotics are most likely to be effective in the treatment of infections caused by

  1. A) bacteria
  2. B) viruses
  3. C) parasitic worms
  4. D) lice and ticks
  5. E) prions

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding lymph nodes?

  1. A) They are located only in the digestive tract and neck.
  2. B) They remove microorganisms and abnormal cells from the lymph and return them to blood circulation.
  3. C) Macrophages but not lymphocytes can be found within lymph nodes.
  4. D) They filter lymph fluid, trapping microorganisms and abnormal cells.
  5. E) Lymph flows from the lymph vessels to the urinary system.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

10) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the spleen?

  1. A) It is located in the lower portion of the thoracic cavity.
  2. B) Red pulp of the spleen stores excess blood.
  3. C) White pulp of the spleen contains macrophages that kill microorganisms circulating in the lymph.
  4. D) Red pulp of the spleen contains primarily lymphocytes.
  5. E) The spleen has the same functions as the tonsils.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Which one of the following is/are located in the tonsils to filter out many of the microorganisms that enter the throat?

  1. A) thymus
  2. B) adenoids
  3. C) lymphocytes
  4. D) platelets
  5. E) red blood cells

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

12) Skin is able to prevent most microorganisms from entering the body by

  1. A) producing alkaline secretions
  2. B) having keratin in the uppermost layer
  3. C) production of antibodies
  4. D) the adhesion junction in the skin preventing bacteria from entering
  5. E) releasing macrophages on the skin surface

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Why do some physicians advise patients with a bladder infection to drink a lot of cranberry juice?

  1. A) Cranberry juice contains chemicals that kill viruses and bacteria.
  2. B) The increased volume of fluid in the bladder causes bacterial cells to burst as they absorb the excess fluid.
  3. C) Cranberry juice makes the urine more acidic, decreasing the rate at which microorganisms can grow and reproduce.
  4. D) Cranberry juice increases the efficiency of urine production by the kidneys.
  5. E) Cranberry juice enhances the action of phagocytic cells.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

14) Which of the following is associated with the specific defenses of the body?

  1. A) cell-mediated immunity
  2. B) phagocytosis
  3. C) interferons
  4. D) the inflammatory response
  5. E) the complement system

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) All of the following represent physical and/or chemical barriers that form the body’s first line of defense against pathogens EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) tears
  2. B) resident bacteria
  3. C) skin surface
  4. D) earwax
  5. E) antibodies

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) The release of chemicals from injured cells triggers histamine release from

  1. A) macrophages
  2. B) B cells
  3. C) neutrophils
  4. D) phagocytes
  5. E) mast cells

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) The following is a list of steps involved in the process of phagocytosis. Which of the following answers indicates these steps in the CORRECT order?

  1. Lysosome fuses with the vesicle containing a foreign cell.
  2. Wastes from the foreign cell are removed.
  3. Foreign cell is surrounded by the cell membrane of the phagocyte.
  4. Lysosomal enzymes break down the foreign cell.
  5. Foreign cell is contained within a vesicle.
  6. A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
  7. B) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
  8. C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
  9. D) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
  10. E) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

18) Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be directly involved in the destruction of flukes (a parasitic flatworm)?

  1. A) natural killer cells
  2. B) eosinophils
  3. C) neutrophils
  4. D) B lymphocytes
  5. E) basophils

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Which of the following leukocytes kills its target cells, such as cancer cells or virus-infected cells, by releasing chemicals that break down the target cell membrane?

  1. A) natural killer cells
  2. B) B lymphocytes
  3. C) basophils
  4. D) T lymphocytes
  5. E) macrophages

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) All of the following are ways in which a mild fever participates as part of the body’s second line of defense and aids the body EXCEPT

  1. A) increasing the metabolic rate of body cells
  2. B) speeding up defense reactions
  3. C) increasing the rate of tissue repair
  4. D) creating an inhospitable internal environment for pathogenic bacteria
  5. E) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by plasma cells

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) All of the following are involved in the inflammatory response EXCEPT

  1. A) antibodies
  2. B) mast cells
  3. C) histamine
  4. D) basophils
  5. E) phagocytes

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

22) Which of the following are proteins in the blood, which when activated can lyse bacterial cells, mark other bacterial cells for destruction, and enhance inflammation?

  1. A) albumins
  2. B) antibodies
  3. C) complement
  4. D) interferons
  5. E) lymphokines

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Viral-infected human cells often send out special proteins that serve as an early warning system to uninfected cells. In response, the uninfected cells develop antiviral proteins that protect them. The early warning proteins sent out by viral-infected cells are

  1. A) complement
  2. B) interferon
  3. C) antibodies
  4. D) antigens
  5. E) antibiotics

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) Antibodies are classified by size, location, and function, and which one of the following represents the most common type of immunoglobulin?

  1. A) IgM
  2. B) IgG
  3. C) IgA
  4. D) IgD
  5. E) MHC

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge

 

25) Which one type of cells are responsible for producing and releasing antibodies?

  1. A) red bone marrow
  2. B) B lymphocytes
  3. C) T lymphocytes
  4. D) macrophages
  5. E) natural killer cells

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

26) Which one of the following is characteristic of T lymphocytes but NOT B lymphocytes?

  1. A) direct attack of antigen-bearing cells
  2. B) production of immunoglobulins
  3. C) maturation in the red bone marrow
  4. D) production of plasma cells
  5. E) antibody-mediated immunity

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) The advantage of having memory cells in specific defenses is that

  1. A) they remain in an active state, continuously producing antibodies
  2. B) if exposed to an antigen a second time, they quickly become plasma cells
  3. C) they prevent production of other proteins so that antibodies can be produced
  4. D) they produce antibodies and can become phagocytic
  5. E) they prevent viruses from entering the body a second time

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 


Use the figure below to answer the following questions.

 

 

28) Identify the figure above.

  1. A) complement
  2. B) antibody
  3. C) antigen
  4. D) interferon
  5. E) pyrogen

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) Once a macrophage engulfs a bacterium, what happens to the foreign cell?

  1. A) It is released into the lymph system for removal from the body.
  2. B) It is released into the digestive tract for removal from the body.
  3. C) The macrophage is attacked by antibodies, killing the cell and bacterium.
  4. D) Antibodies penetrate the macrophage to lyse the bacterial cell.
  5. E) The bacterium is killed by digestive enzymes released from lysosomes.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Which of the following antibodies would most likely be involved with the immune response against a microorganism entering the digestive or reproductive tract?

  1. A) IgA
  2. B) IgD
  3. C) IgG
  4. D) IgM
  5. E) IgE

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which of the following classes of antibodies activates the inflammatory response by causing the release of histamine?

  1. A) IgG
  2. B) IgE
  3. C) IgD
  4. D) IgM
  5. E) IgA

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) During cytotoxic T cell attack of a target cell, which one of the following is released to pierce the cell membrane of the foreign cell, which ultimately kills the target cell?

  1. A) interferon
  2. B) eosinophil
  3. C) histamine
  4. D) perforin
  5. E) antibody

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) Which one of the following is correct regarding the structure of an antibody?

  1. A) An antibody is made up of two polypeptide chains linked by hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) The four polypeptide chains that make up an antibody molecule are linked by disulfide bonds.
  3. C) The constant regions of the polypeptides in an antibody form antigen-binding sites.
  4. D) Only one polypeptide in an antibody has a constant region and a variable region.
  5. E) The polypeptides making up an antibody are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Which one of the following types of T cells is a critical component of the immune system because it stimulates and enhances the activity of other components of the immune system?

  1. A) T suppressor cell
  2. B) T memory cell
  3. C) T helper cell
  4. D) cytotoxic T cell
  5. E) natural killer cells

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

35) Which one of the following enables T helper cells to stimulate and activate other cells of the immune response?

  1. A) interferon
  2. B) cytokines
  3. C) antibodies
  4. D) complement
  5. E) histamine

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) Which immune system cell must be presented with antigen by an antigen-presenting cell such as a macrophage, in order to become appropriately activated?

  1. A) B lymphocyte
  2. B) plasma cell
  3. C) macrophage
  4. D) T lymphocyte
  5. E) natural killer cell

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Understanding

 

 

37) The figure above illustrates antibody titers produced during a primary and secondary immune response. All of the following statements about the primary and secondary immune response are correct EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) Antibody is produced at a much higher rate during the secondary immune response.
  2. B) The antibody level produced in the secondary response is three times greater than that produced during the primary immune response.
  3. C) There is a lag time between antigen exposure and antibody production in the primary immune response that is not seen in the secondary immune response.
  4. D) The difference between the two responses is due to the presence of memory cells during the secondary response.
  5. E) Antibody levels stay elevated for a longer time following a secondary response.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

38) Which one of the following best explains why people get so many colds in their lifetime?

  1. A) The immune system has a hard time identifying the viruses that cause the colds.
  2. B) The viruses that cause these colds constantly produce new antibodies, which cause the symptoms.
  3. C) These individuals do not produce enough white blood cells.
  4. D) The viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure.
  5. E) The B cells of these individuals destroy their T cells.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

39) Vaccines contain

  1. A) memory cells against the pathogen
  2. B) antigens of the pathogen
  3. C) antibodies of the pathogen
  4. D) lymphokines
  5. E) T cells programmed to attack the pathogen

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Passive immunity differs from active immunity in that passive immunity

  1. A) causes long-term immunity
  2. B) involves the administration of preformed antibodies
  3. C) results in the production of antibodies
  4. D) is not effective against a preexisting condition
  5. E) results in the production of memory cells

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

41) An individual with an uncertain vaccine history has been brought to the emergency room after receiving severe lacerations in an accident with farm machinery. In addition to administering a tetanus toxoid vaccine, he is also given a shot of tetanus immune globulin (TIG), a form of passive immunization. Why are both necessary?

  1. A) The tetanus vaccine provides immediate protection, and the tetanus immune globulin provides long-term protection.
  2. B) The doctor is not sure which will work faster in this patient, so decides to administer both.
  3. C) The tetanus immune globulin is given only when there are severe injuries and a high risk of infection.
  4. D) Tetanus immune globulin is always given along with the tetanus vaccine.
  5. E) The tetanus immune globulin provides immediate, short-term protection, and the tetanus vaccine provides long-term protection.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

42) Which one of the following would result in passive immunity?

  1. A) vaccination
  2. B) past occurrence of an infection or disease
  3. C) production of memory cells
  4. D) movement of antibodies across the placenta from mother to child
  5. E) stimulation of T cells and B cells by an antigen

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) All of the following are used in the production of monoclonal antibodies EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) mouse T cells
  2. B) mouse B cells
  3. C) antigen
  4. D) myeloma (cancer) cells
  5. E) cell culturing media and supplies

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

44) Antibiotics kill bacterial cells but do not (usually) damage human cells by taking advantage of the difference between human and bacterial cells. These differences include

  1. A) bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not
  2. B) bacterial ribosomes are larger than those of humans
  3. C) protein synthesis in bacteria is identical to that in human cells
  4. D) bacterial cells have a cell membrane, human cells do not
  5. E) human and bacterial DNA are enclosed in a nucleus

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

45) All of the following are routinely done to assure a successful organ transplant and minimize the chance of organ rejection EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) match the ABO blood types of donor and recipient
  2. B) match the MHC tissue types of donor and recipient
  3. C) irradiate the recipient to knock out his or her immune system prior to the transplant
  4. D) give the recipient immunosuppressive drugs to suppress reactions against the transplanted tissue
  5. E) give the recipient antibiotics to control any infections

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

46) Any substance that produces an inappropriate response of the immune system is referred to as a(an)

  1. A) allergen
  2. B) antibody
  3. C) plasma cell
  4. D) allergy
  5. E) perforin

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

47) Lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disorder in which the body attacks

  1. A) its own connective tissue
  2. B) the brain
  3. C) the spleen
  4. D) its own antibodies
  5. E) heart tissue

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

48) All of the following are involved in the generation of an allergic response EXCEPT which one?

  1. A) allergen
  2. B) IgE
  3. C) IgG
  4. D) mast cells and basophils
  5. E) histamine

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

49) HIV is classified as a retrovirus because

  1. A) it infects only cells with a CD4 receptor
  2. B) it makes a DNA copy of its RNA once inside the host cell
  3. C) this virus is composed of two cells surrounded by a lipoprotein coat
  4. D) it reverts to an inactive form when it infects B lymphocytes
  5. E) it causes the production of HIV antibodies

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

50) Which of the following body fluids does not transmit HIV from human to human?

  1. A) blood
  2. B) semen
  3. C) saliva
  4. D) vaginal fluid
  5. E) breast milk

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

51) Which of the following is TRUE regarding HIV and AIDS?

  1. A) Most of the people infected with HIV live in South America, where the disease originated.
  2. B) Approximately 100,000 people worldwide die each year from AIDS.
  3. C) Due to improved education and prevention methods in the United States, the number of newly diagnosed cases of AIDS is rapidly declining.
  4. D) Symptoms of AIDS do not normally appear until years after HIV detection.
  5. E) If an individual with AIDS gets proper medical attention, he or she probably will not die from complications associated with this syndrome.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

52) Which of the following best describes Phase I of HIV infection?

  1. A) T cell count of 100 per cubic millimeter of blood
  2. B) presence of an opportunistic infection
  3. C) swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, body aches
  4. D) onset of AIDS
  5. E) absence of HIV antibodies

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

53) Referring to the figure above, the progression from Phase II HIV infection to Phase III is marked by

  1. A) a high fever and swollen lymph nodes
  2. B) drop in the helper T cell count to less than 200/mm3
  3. C) complete absence of antibodies to HIV
  4. D) decreasing number of HIV in the blood
  5. E) helper T cell numbers recovering from an initial drop

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

9.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Bacterial pathogens cause symptoms of a disease by invading host cells or by producing toxins that damage host cells.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

2) Prions are infectious proteins that cause normal proteins in the brain to misfold.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Viral infections can usually be treated with antibiotics.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Lymph nodes filter the blood and remove bacteria and other invading microorganisms that may have entered the blood stream.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) The thymus gland, which is responsible for the development of T cells, stops growing during adolescence and shrinks as one grows into adulthood.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Tears and saliva contain the enzyme dermicidin, which is effective in preventing bacteria from entering the human body.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) The bacteria that normally live on the mucous membranes of the digestive tract and vagina provide protection against infection with harmful disease-producing microorganisms.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The best way to reduce bacterial pathogens in the blood stream is to reduce a fever as quickly as possible.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) Histamine is released by neutrophils to induce an inflammation response when tissues become damaged.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The first type of white blood cell to arrive at the site of an infection is the eosinophil.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

11) One role of MHC proteins is that they serve as self markers to the human immune system.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) The best way to defend the body from a viral infection is to prevent the infection by using a vaccine.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) When considering transfusions or transplants, it is more difficult to match blood than to match tissue types because blood cells have more self markers on their surface.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 9.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Individuals infected with HIV produce antibodies, but these antibodies don’t prevent progression to Phase II and Phase III of infection.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

9.3   Matching Questions

 

The human body uses three lines of defense to protect against pathogens. Match each of the following categories of defense to the type of cell or mechanism involved in the defense. Answers may be used more than once.

 

  1. A) nonspecific defense mechanism
  2. B) physical or chemical barrier
  3. C) specific defense mechanism

 

1) cytotoxic T cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) inflammation

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) acidic pH of skin

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) natural killer cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) release of interferons

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) earwax

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) production of antibodies by plasma cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) release of perforin and granzyme by cytotoxic cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) C


Match each component of the lymphatic system to its function.

 

  1. A) spleen
  2. B) lymphatic vessel
  3. C) lymph node
  4. D) tonsil
  5. E) thymus

 

9) transports lymph in the body

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) removes microorganisms and old red blood cells from the blood

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) filters out microorganisms that enter the throat by food or air

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) secretes hormones important in the maturation of T cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) filters microorganisms and cellular debris from lymph

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) E 13) C


Match each of the following T lymphocytes to its description.

 

  1. A) helper T cells
  2. B) memory T cells
  3. C) cytotoxic T cells

 

14) migrate through blood and lymph, directly attacking and destroying foreign cells

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) activate the immune system when an antigen reenters the body

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) stimulate the immune system by secreting lymphokines and interleukins; they activate B lymphocytes and macrophages

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) primary target of HIV

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) A


Match each of the following disorders associated with the immune system to its description.

 

  1. A) allergy
  2. B) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
  3. C) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
  4. D) rheumatoid arthritis
  5. E) lupus erythematosus

 

18) an autoimmune disorder affecting the synovial membrane of the joints

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) an inherited disorder characterized by insufficient numbers of lymphocytes to fight an infection

Topic: Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) an inappropriate response to a nonpathogenic substance

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) an autoimmune disorder affecting connective tissue

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) a disease caused by HIV infection; results in irreparable damage to the immune system

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) E 22) B

 

 

9.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________.

Answer:  antibiotics

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Bacteria are classified as ________ because they are made up of cells that do not have a nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

Answer:  prokaryotic

Topic:  Sec. 9.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Microbes that cause disease are referred to as ________.

Answer:  pathogens

Topic:  Sec. 9.0

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

4) Microorganisms and cellular debris are removed from lymph by the ________ and from blood by the ________.

Answer:  lymph nodes, spleen

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.

Answer:  tonsils

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Tears and saliva contain ________, an enzyme that kills bacteria.

Answer:  lysozyme

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Helicobacter pylori can survive the acidic conditions of the human stomach and have been found to cause the development of stomach ________.

Answer:  ulcers

Topic:  Sec. 9.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) The two major types of phagocytic cells are the ________ and the ________.

Answer:  neutrophils, macrophages (answers may go in any order)

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

9) B lymphocytes mature in the ________.

Answer:  bone marrow

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Inflammation generally results when tissues become damaged and ________ cells respond by releasing histamine.

Answer:  mast

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Chemicals released by macrophages that cause the onset of a fever are called ________.

Answer:  pyrogens

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Cell-mediated immunity involves the activity of ________ lymphocytes.

Answer:  T

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

13) The unique set of proteins located on the surface of cells that distinguish one organism from another are the ________.

Answer:  major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Plasma cells and memory cells are types of ________ lymphocytes; both types of cells secrete proteins called ________ as part of the immune response.

Answer:  B, antibodies

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Immunoglobulin ________ is the most common type of immunoglobulin and is the only type that can cross the placenta to pass on the mother’s acquired immunity to the developing fetus.

Answer:  IgG

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) While T lymphocytes are maturing, each of them develops one of two sets of proteins on their cell surface. These proteins are known as ________ and ________.

Answer:  CD4, CD8 (answers may go in any order)

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) T cells are activated by macrophages and activated B cells, which fulfill this role by acting as ________.

Answer:  antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) The only T lymphocyte that directly attacks and destroys other cells is the ________ T cell.

Answer:  cytotoxic

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) An immunization that uses prepared antibodies from a human or animal donor and that does not provide long-lasting protection is called ________.

Answer:  passive immunity

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Drugs that kill or inhibit bacteria are known as ________.

Answer:  antibiotics

Topic:  Sec. 9.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) T helper cells release ________, proteins that stimulate the activity of other T cells and macrophages; these chemicals stimulate inflammation as well.

Answer:  lymphokines or cytokines (either term can be used here)

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

22) Following transplant surgery, a patient is given ________ drugs that block the action of the immune response against the transplanted organ.

Answer:  immunosuppressive

Topic:  Sec. 9.8

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Infection by HIV can eventually lead to the development of a condition called ________, which is diagnosed when the T helper cell count drops below ________.

Answer:  AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome), 200

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

24) Symptoms of an allergic reaction such as increased secretion of mucus, swelling, and pain are due to the release of ________ from mast cells.

Answer:  histamine

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

25) A life-threatening allergic reaction (difficulty in breathing, fall in blood pressure, severe stomach cramps) is known as ________.

Answer:  anaphylactic shock

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) A condition that results when the immune system produces antibodies and cytotoxic T cells against its own cells is a(n) ________ disorder.

Answer:  autoimmune

Topic:  Sec. 9.9

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) The main cell of the immune system targeted by HIV is the ________.

Answer:  T helper cell

Topic:  Sec. 9.10

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) The human body’s first exposure to an antigen generates a primary ________ response.

Answer:  immune

Topic:  Sec. 9.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9.5   Essay Questions

 

1) If you travel through an airport during a major holiday season, you are very likely exposed to a number of potential pathogens. Describe some of the first lines of defense that your body uses to keep these pathogens out of your body.

Answer:  The human body depends on several chemical and physical barriers to block pathogens from entering the body. Among these defenses, the skin is of paramount importance as it is a physical barrier, which is reinforced by the protein keratin being deposited in the outer layer. Skin also releases acidic secretions that can kill many microorganisms, and the resident bacteria living on skin can also aid to keep out nonresident microorganisms. Other body fluids like tears, vomit, digestive fluids, mucus, and urine all function as chemical and/or physical barriers.

Topic:  Sec. 9.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

2) During a bacterial infection, the human body usually responds by having an elevated body temperature or a fever. Most over-the-counter cold medications indicate that they contain a fever suppressant. Explain why this is not always good for the treatment of a cold or infection.

Answer:  A mild fever is actually part of the body’s second line of defense for combating the bacteria. The elevated body temperature creates a less hospitable environment for the bacteria, while also stimulating increased metabolic rate in body cells and increasing tissue repair at locations where damage occurred. Therefore, suppressing the fever can actually prolong the illness.

Topic:  Sec. 9.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) Explain why passive immunization is not effective in producing long-term immunity.

Answer:  Passive immunization involves administering a patient prepared antibodies from either a human or animal donor. The antibodies can be very effective in targeting an existing infection, but since the patient did not produce the antibodies using his or her own immune system, memory cells were not produced. Memory cells are essential to immunity because they respond to an antigen they have previously encountered, by mobilizing the specific defense to respond quickly with antibodies specific for that antigen.

Topic:  Sec. 9.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Human Biology, 7e (Johnson)

Chapter 16   Reproductive Systems

 

16.1   Multiple Choice Questions

 

1) The ultimate goal of the male reproductive system is to

  1. A) ensure that sperm is produced at the correct time, coinciding with ovulation
  2. B) deliver sperm into the female’s reproductive system
  3. C) produce testosterone to influence gender development
  4. D) produce large numbers of sperm
  5. E) maintain the homeostatic condition of the male’s body

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Synthesis of new sperm cells occurs in the

  1. A) ductus deferens
  2. B) urethra
  3. C) prostate gland
  4. D) epididymis
  5. E) seminiferous tubules

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) External genitalia of the male reproductive system include the

  1. A) ejaculatory duct
  2. B) urethra and scrotum
  3. C) penis and scrotum
  4. D) penis
  5. E) penis, urethra, and ejaculatory duct

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The release of LH in human males signals that

  1. A) inhibin has inhibited FHS secretion
  2. B) the hypothalamus has been stimulated to release inhibin
  3. C) sperm production must be reduced
  4. D) the positive feedback loop that regulates sperm production is active
  5. E) blood levels of testosterone are low

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) The seminal vesicles produce which one of the following to serve as the energy source to fuel sperm motility?

  1. A) fat
  2. B) fructose
  3. C) glutamine
  4. D) prostaglandin
  5. E) glucose

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) As sperm are produced, they go through several stages. Which one of the following stages develops directly into mature motile sperm?

  1. A) primary spermatocytes
  2. B) spermatogonia
  3. C) spermatids
  4. D) secondary spermatocytes
  5. E) Sertoli cells

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding human gametes?

  1. A) produced by the process of mitosis
  2. B) contain the haploid number of chromosomes
  3. C) produced in the testes and oviducts
  4. D) are also known as primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes
  5. E) contain 46 chromosomes

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Not all sperm produced by the testes are functional. A sperm with a defective acrosome would

  1. A) not be able to swim
  2. B) produce multiple flagella
  3. C) not survive the acid pH of a vagina
  4. D) not be able to penetrate a egg
  5. E) be able to swim, but would travel in circles, unable to navigate a female reproductive tract

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

9) The influence of testosterone on undifferentiated spermatogonia and Sertoli cells results in the hormone dictating

  1. A) mitosis in immature sperm
  2. B) rate of sperm production
  3. C) when and how much LH and FSH are released
  4. D) the production of ADH
  5. E) the occurrence of ovulation

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The production and secretion of testosterone depends on the secretion of three other hormones; GnRH is secreted by the ________, and FSH and LH are secreted by the ________.

  1. A) hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland
  2. B) testes, scrotum
  3. C) posterior pituitary gland, anterior pituitary gland
  4. D) seminal vesicle, prostate gland
  5. E) posterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) A fertilized egg must embed in which one of the following organs for pregnancy to occur?

  1. A) vagina
  2. B) uterus
  3. C) ovaries
  4. D) myometrium
  5. E) oviduct

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) The opening of the uterus is referred to as the

  1. A) endometrium
  2. B) oviduct
  3. C) cervix
  4. D) fimbriae
  5. E) clitoris

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

13) When the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is transported to the uterus through the

  1. A) fimbriae
  2. B) flagella
  3. C) oviduct
  4. D) ductus deferens
  5. E) endometrium

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

14) Prior to the onset of lactation, the mammary glands are prepared for the production of milk by

  1. A) the hormonal action of estrogen and progesterone
  2. B) the completion of ovulation
  3. C) degeneration of the corpus luteum
  4. D) deactivation of FSH, LH, and GnRH
  5. E) synthesis of FSH

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 


Use the figure below to answer the following question.

 

 

15) Which one of the following stages in the figure above occurs due to a surge of LH midway through the ovarian cycle?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

16) Which one of the following structures degenerates if a fertilized egg does not embed in the uterus?

  1. A) ovary
  2. B) oviduct
  3. C) zona pellucida
  4. D) corpus luteum
  5. E) secondary oocyte

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) At the beginning of each ovarian cycle, which one of the following hormones causes the development of a primary oocyte?

  1. A) estrogen
  2. B) LH
  3. C) prolactin
  4. D) progesterone
  5. E) FSH

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) If pregnancy does occur, a layer of tissue from the embryo called the chorion begins to secrete which one of the following hormones?

  1. A) GnRH
  2. B) estrogen
  3. C) FSH
  4. D) hCG
  5. E) LH

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Which one of the following hormones would be tested for in a home pregnancy test?

  1. A) estrogen
  2. B) hCG
  3. C) progesterone
  4. D) LH
  5. E) FSH

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Nourishment is provided to a primary oocyte via which one of the following?

  1. A) the endometrium layer in the uterus
  2. B) the afferent capillaries
  3. C) the zona pellucida
  4. D) the cervical plug
  5. E) a layer of granulosa cells

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Shortly before the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, estrogen from the mature follicle triggers a surge in LH, which stimulates which one of the following events?

  1. A) cervix dilation
  2. B) uterus contractions
  3. C) inhibition of FSH release
  4. D) downward movement of fimbriae
  5. E) ovulation

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Ovulation occurs

  1. A) during the middle of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle
  2. B) at dawn on each day following FHS and LH release by the pituitary gland
  3. C) during the secretory stage of the menstrual cycle
  4. D) at the beginning of menses
  5. E) during the formation of the corpus luteum

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) At which one of the following days in the 28-day cycle is a woman MOST likely to get pregnant?

  1. A) 1 (start of the menses)
  2. B) 7
  3. C) 14
  4. D) 21
  5. E) 28

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

24) Following ovulation, rising levels of estrogen

  1. A) stimulate the endometrium to continue to proliferate
  2. B) inhibit the production of progesterone
  3. C) initiate a hormone cascade that triggers LH to rise, then FSH, followed by a sharp decline in GnRH
  4. D) promote the release of the “old” endometrium
  5. E) prevent implantation of the zygote

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) You are a reproductive physiologist designing an at-home kit that can be used to help predict when ovulation occurs. Which one of the following could be detected that would indicate the time of ovulation?

  1. A) surge in GnRH from the hypothalamus
  2. B) surge in FSH from the anterior pituitary gland
  3. C) surge in estrogen from the ovary
  4. D) surge in LH from the anterior pituitary gland
  5. E) surge in oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

26) If fertilization does not occur following release of the egg by the ovary, then which one of the following degenerates approximately two weeks after ovulation?

  1. A) primary oocyte
  2. B) oviduct
  3. C) endometrium layer
  4. D) corpus luteum
  5. E) choices A through D are correct

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) In which one of the following locations does fertilization usually occur?

  1. A) oviduct
  2. B) ovary
  3. C) uterus
  4. D) cervix
  5. E) vagina

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) Female sexual arousal causes the vagina and area around the labia to

  1. A) constrict
  2. B) secrete lubricants for penis insertion
  3. C) release hormones to intensify intercourse
  4. D) inhibit the plateau phase of the sexual response
  5. E) stimulate ovulation

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Understanding

 

 

29) During male ejaculation, the internal urethral sphincter closes tightly to

  1. A) prevent urine from leaking into the urethra
  2. B) isolate the ureters from the urinary bladder
  3. C) block movement of mucus from the bulbourethral gland into the ejaculatory duct
  4. D) keep sperm from moving into the ductus deferens
  5. E) allow seminal vesicle to transfer sperm to the epididymis

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Understanding

30) During ejaculation, smooth muscle in the ejaculatory duct, seminal vesicles, epididymis, prostate, and bulbourethral glands are stimulated by

  1. A) prostaglandins
  2. B) ejaculatory-stimulation hormone
  3. C) sympathetic nerves
  4. D) parasympathetic nerves
  5. E) LH and FSH

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which one of the following forms of birth control reduces the risk of transmission of sexually transmitted diseases?

  1. A) IUD
  2. B) hysteroscopy
  3. C) cervical cap
  4. D) condom
  5. E) birth control pill

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Which one of the following forms of contraception is the most effective in preventing pregnancy?

  1. A) condom
  2. B) rhythm method
  3. C) diaphragm
  4. D) tubal ligation
  5. E) cervical cap

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) Which one of the following methods of enhancing fertility involves the placement of sperm and unfertilized eggs into the oviduct?

  1. A) artificial insemination
  2. B) in vitro fertilization
  3. C) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
  4. D) hysteroscopy
  5. E) zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) Mature sperm function best

  1. A) at temperatures slightly warmer than body temperature
  2. B) at temperatures slightly cooler than body temperature
  3. C) when high concentrations of glucose are available as an energy source
  4. D) when the pH of semen is below 6.0
  5. E) when the pH of semen is above 8.2

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is characterized by a primary phase that affects the genitals, and secondary and tertiary phases that spread throughout the body?

  1. A) chlamydia
  2. B) genital warts
  3. C) hepatitis B
  4. D) syphilis
  5. E) gonorrhea

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by bacteria?

  1. A) chlamydia
  2. B) genital herpes
  3. C) hepatitis B
  4. D) genital warts
  5. E) trichomoniasis

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

37) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is currently the most prevalent in the United States?

  1. A) gonorrhea
  2. B) syphilis
  3. C) AIDS
  4. D) genital warts
  5. E) chlamydia

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) The human papilloma virus (HPV) causes

  1. A) gonorrhea
  2. B) vaginal yeast infections
  3. C) genital herpes
  4. D) syphilis
  5. E) genital warts

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

39) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be cured by the use of antibiotics?

  1. A) genital herpes
  2. B) AIDS
  3. C) pubic lice
  4. D) gonorrhea
  5. E) hepatitis B

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) Which one of the following viruses is associated with cervical cancer?

  1. A) Treponema pallidum
  2. B) Human papilloma virus
  3. C) Herpes simplex virus
  4. D) Chlamydia trachomatis
  5. E) Hepatitis B

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16.2   True/False Questions

 

1) Since the chance of any one particular sperm fertilizing an egg is very low, large numbers of sperm are produced by the male reproductive system.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) LH is released by the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate Sertoli cells to produce sperm.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Testosterone controls the rate of sperm production.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Secretions from the bulbourethral gland lubricate and cleanse the urethra of urine residue prior to the entry of sperm.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) The menstrual cycle actually consists of two cycles that are interconnected: the ovarian cycle and the uterine cycle.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

6) The lining of the uterus is termed the myometrium.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) Due to the short life span of a sperm cell, fertilization usually occurs in the oviduct.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Eggs are moved through the oviduct by movements of flagella.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

9) Males are considered infertile if they do not produce sufficient numbers of normal, healthy sperm.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The symptoms of genital herpes can be treated, but there is no cure.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Trichomoniasis is a bacterial infection that is sexually transmitted; chronic infection often results in blindness, damage to the nervous system, and eventually death.

Answer:  FALSE

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Mifeprex is a pill that can essentially cause an early abortion.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The noncellular coating around the oocyte is called the zona pellucida.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Endometrial tissue sometimes migrates out of the uterus and attaches to other abdominal organs.

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Untreated gonorrhea or untreated Chlamydia infections may result in pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

Answer:  TRUE

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16.3   Matching Questions

 

Match each hormone to its function.

 

  1. A) estrogen, progesterone
  2. B) GnRH
  3. C) prolactin
  4. D) LH
  5. E) progesterone

 

1) prepares mammary glands for lactation

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) stimulates lactation

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) stimulates testosterone production in males

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) stimulates release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) causes the endometrium to thicken in preparation for implantation

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E

 

 

Using the figure above, match each organ (A-F) to its description.

 

6) gland that secretes an alkaline fluid as part of the semen

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) produces energy source used by sperm inside of a female’s reproductive system

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) site that receives sperm from seminiferous tubules; sperm develop the ability to swim here

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) site of testosterone production

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) structure that transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct; sperm are stored here until ejaculation

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) accessory gland that secretes mucus into the urethra during sexual arousal

Answer:  F

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Using the figure above, identify the organs of the female reproductive system.

 

12) The cervix is indicated by letter ________.

Answer:  D

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The uterus is indicated by letter ________.

Answer:  B

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The vagina is indicated by letter ________.

Answer:  E

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The ovary is indicated by letter ________.

Answer:  C

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) The oviduct is indicated by letter ________.

Answer:  A

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension


Match each disorder associated with the reproductive system to its description.

 

  1. A) pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. B) syphilis
  3. C) dysmenorrhea
  4. D) genital herpes
  5. E) endometriosis

 

17) extensive bacterial infection of the female reproductive system

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) sexually transmitted disease; develops in three phases; can be treated with penicillin

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) condition that results from the movement of uterine lining into the abdominal cavity; symptoms include pain and infertility

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) sexually transmitted disease caused by a viral infection; symptoms include blisters on the genitalia, painful urination, and fever

Topic:  Sec. 16.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) painful menstruation often caused by prostaglandins produced by the uterus

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Answers: 17) A 18) B 19) E 20) D 21) C

 

 

16.4   Short Answer Questions

 

1) Following their production in the testis, immature sperm cells are transferred to the ________.

Answer:  epididymis

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Since the pH of the female vagina is not suitable for the survival of sperm, secretions from the ________ gland of the male are a necessary component of semen to raise the pH.

Answer:  prostate

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

3) Sperm and egg cells contain half the number of chromosomes found in somatic cells, and are referred to as ________.

Answer:  haploid

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) FSH in males targets ________ cells, although the function of the hormone is not fully understood.

Answer:  Sertoli

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Ovulation occurs during the ________ stage of the menstrual cycle.

Answer:  proliferative

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The head of a sperm is covered by the ________, which contains enzymes that help penetrate the layers of cells surrounding the egg.

Answer:  acrosome

Topic:  Sec. 16.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the ________.

Answer:  oviduct

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) A common tissue between the fetus and the endometrium that provides nourishment to the developing fetus is the ________.

Answer:  placenta

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) The muscular layer of the uterus that provides the force necessary to expel the baby during birth is called the ________.

Answer:  myometrium

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The vagina meets the uterus at the ________.

Answer:  cervix

Topic:  Sec. 16.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) The regular pattern by which oocytes grow, mature, and are released from the ovary is known as the ________ cycle.

Answer:  ovarian

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

12) If pregnancy occurs, a layer of tissue associated with the embryo secretes the hormone ________, which maintains the activity of the corpus luteum in the ovaries of the mother.

Answer:  hCG

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) As a primary oocyte develops within a follicle of the ovary, it is nourished by ________ cells.

Answer:  granulosa

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The process by which females are sterilized surgically is called ________.

Answer:  tubal ligation

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) The only completely effective method of birth control is ________.

Answer:  abstinence

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) An extensive bacterial infection of the female reproductive tract is known as ________, which is the most common cause of female infertility.

Answer:  pelvic inflammatory disease

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

17) A condition in females that occurs when endometrial tissue moves through the oviducts and adheres to the ovaries or other organs in the abdominal cavity is ________.

Answer:  endometriosis

Topic:  Sec. 16.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) The process by which eggs in a test tube are fertilized by sperm is called ________.

Answer:  in vitro fertilization

Topic:  Sec. 16.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16.5   Essay Questions

 

1) Sexual intercourse cannot result in pregnancy prior to the middle of the proliferative stage. Explain why.

Answer:  Women must undergo a coordinated menstrual cycle to ensure that the uterus is ready to support the fertilized egg when it arrives. Prior to pregnancy, the old endometrial layer disintegrates and passes out of the women’s body in the blood flow associated with menses. During the early stages of the proliferative stage, a new endometrial layer is produced, and by the middle stages, ovulation occurs. Therefore, even if sperm enters a woman’s body during intercourse, fertilization and pregnancy is not possible until after the middle portion of the proliferative stage.

Topic:  Sec. 16.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

2) During ejaculation, millions of sperm are deposited into the female’s vagina. Despite the extraordinary number of cells transferred from male to female, the chances of fertilization are very low. Explain why.

Answer:  Once sperm enter the female’s reproductive tract, there are many physiological and anatomical obstacles that separate sperm from eggs. Among them, the acidic secretions of the vagina kill most sperm. As well, sperm cells swim randomly, so it is mostly by chance that any of the cells enter the vagina through the cervix, travel in the correct direction once in the vagina, and move into an oviduct that contains an egg at a time following ovulation. The journey is long, so sperm may deplete their energy reserves before reaching the egg, and even if they make it to the egg, the zona pellucida must be penetrated by enzymes in the acrosome. The life of a sperm cell is finite, and in most cases it does not survive long enough to achieve all of the tasks necessary to fertilize an egg.

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Unlike most animals, humans engage in sexual intercourse for pleasure as much or more than for the purpose of reproduction. The process of intercourse is characterized by several phases designed to heighten the arousal, excitement, and/or pleasure associated with contact with a partner. If a man or woman was not easily aroused, or even could not be, sperm transfer to a woman possible, and in turn, for fertilization to occur?

Answer:  It is possible, but intercourse would be more difficult and possibly painful for one or both partners. In men, arousal generally leads to changes in blood flow within the penis that ultimately result in erection of the penis. If an erection failed to occur, smooth muscle contraction would still be necessary to allow sperm release into the vagina. Similarly, women do not need to be aroused to engage in intercourse or for fertilization to occur. However, arousal leads to the release of lubricants in the vagina and surrounding areas that decrease friction during movement of the penis.

Topic:  Sec. 16.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

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