Exploring Psychology 10th Edition by David G. Myers -Test Bank





Exploring Psychology 10th Edition by David G. Myers -Test Bank

TB1 Chapter 02- Essays


1. After Lola began using a street drug to enhance her moods, she discovered that she needed larger and larger doses of the drug in order to feel the drug’s effect. Use your understanding of the neurotransmission process to explain Lola’s experience.



2. The ancient Greek physician Hippocrates believed that four basic body fluids (blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm) influenced human behavior, emotions, and personality. Use your understanding of the body’s rapid and slower chemical communication systems to support or refute the general logic of Hippocrates’ theory.



3. Describe specific functions of our older brain structures, which reveal that our brains are responsible for much more than simply our capacity to think.



4. Describe how damage to specific structures in your limbic system would likely affect your experience of  (a) emotions such as anxiety and elation, (b) motives such as hunger and sex drive, and (c) memories such as recall of familiar faces or locations.



5. After suffering a head injury in an auto accident, Alyssa says that she remembers what her mother looks like, and she can accurately recall many of her mother’s distinctive facial features. However, when she is shown pictures of her mother, Alyssa is unable to recognize who it is, even though she can see clearly. Use your understanding of the functioning brain to account for Alyssa’s strange pattern of experience.



6. Describe how an understanding of both a normally functioning brain and a split brain enables us to better appreciate the fact that most information processing takes place outside of conscious awareness.



7. Describe one of your personality traits that you believe to be heavily influenced by your unique genetic profile and another trait that seems to be much less so. Provide reasons for your answer, and explain why you would expect genetics to exert a greater impact on some personality traits than on others.



8. Mr. Firkin is a shy and reserved person who often feels tense and nervous. In therapy, he recalled that he had an unhappy childhood, feeling that he did not receive enough attention from his mother and resenting the conservative family discipline and lifestyle enforced by his father. He blames both parents for his current anxiety, unhappiness, and loneliness. In light of your understanding of the interactive influences of nature and nurture, explain why Mr. Firkin’s complaints about his parents may be somewhat unfair and unhelpful.



9. Biological fathers are so much less likely than unrelated boyfriends to abuse and murder the children with whom they share a home. Use the principles of evolutionary psychology and natural selection to explain why this is so.



TB1 Chapter 02- Multiple Choice

1. The study of the links between biology and behavior is called
  A) neurology.
  B) cognitive psychology.
  C) endocrinology.
  D) biological psychology.



2. Dr. Wolski conducts research on the relationship between neurotransmitter deficiencies and mood states. Dr. Wolski’s research focus is most characteristic of
  A) tomography.
  B) biological psychology.
  C) psychoanalysis.
  D) cognitive psychology.



3. A biological psychologist would be most interested in conducting research on the relationship between
  A) neurotransmitters and depression.
  B) age and bone density.
  C) self-esteem and popularity.
  D) genetics and eye color.



4. Neurons are best described as
  A) positively charged sodium and potassium ions.
  B) chemical molecules that cross the synaptic gap.
  C) nerve cells that function as the building blocks of the nervous system.
  D) bundled axon cables that connect the CNS with muscles, glands, and sense organs.



5. Dendrites are branching extensions of
  A) neurotransmitters.
  B) endorphins.
  C) neurons.
  D) glial cells.



6. The function of dendrites is to
  A) receive incoming signals from other neurons.
  B) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.
  C) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
  D) control pain through the release of opiate-like chemicals into the brain.



7. An axon is
  A) a cell that serves as the basic building block of the nervous system.
  B) a layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons.
  C) a molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites.
  D) the extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body.



8. Dendrite is to ________ as axon is to _________.
  A) sensory neuron; motor neuron
  B) sodium ion; potassium ion
  C) signal reception; signal transmission
  D) central nervous system; peripheral nervous system



9. The longest part of a motor neuron is likely to be the
  A) dendrite.
  B) axon.
  C) cell body.
  D) synapse.



10. In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the ________ of a single neuron.
  A) dendrites to the axon to the cell body
  B) axon to the cell body to the dendrites
  C) dendrites to the cell body to the axon
  D) axon to the dendrites to the cell body



11. A myelin sheath is a
  A) nerve network within the spinal cord that controls physical arousal.
  B) large band of neural fibers connecting the two adrenal glands.
  C) layer of fatty tissue encasing the axons of some nerve cells.
  D) bushy extension of a neuron that conducts impulses toward the cell body.



12. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n)
  A) endorphin.
  B) myelin sheath.
  C) glial cell.
  D) synaptic vesicle.



13. Degeneration of the myelin sheath results in
  A) reuptake.
  B) multiple sclerosis.
  C) the fight-or-flight response.
  D) an action potential.



14. Gerald has experienced increasing difficulties with muscle weakness, motor coordination, and body balance, which physicians have attributed to multiple sclerosis. These symptoms are most likely to be directly linked with the degeneration of
  A) endorphins.
  B) synaptic gaps.
  C) the pituitary gland.
  D) the myelin sheath.



15. Neurons are surrounded by ________, which guide neural connections and mop up ions and neurotransmitters.
  A) endorphins
  B) glial cells
  C) hormones
  D) agonists



16. One function of glial cells is to
  A) increase the speed of neural impulses.
  B) mimic the effects of neurotransmitters.
  C) provide nutrients to neurons.
  D) stimulate the production of hormones.



17. Which brain cells play a role in learning and memory by communicating with neurons?
  A) endorphins
  B) glial cells
  C) agonists
  D) myelin cells



18. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the
  A) synapse.
  B) agonist.
  C) action potential.
  D) refractory period.



19. Mathematical computations by a computer are faster than your quickest mathematical computations because the top speed of a neural impulse is about ________ times slower than the speed of electricity through the wired circuitry in a computer.
  A) 3 hundred
  B) 3 thousand
  C) 3 hundred thousand
  D) 3 million



20. An action potential is generated by the movement of ________ through an axon membrane.
  A) glial cells
  B) glands
  C) neurotransmitters
  D) ions



21. A state in which the fluid outside an axon has a mostly positive charge and the fluid inside the axon has a mostly negative charge is called
  A) the action potential.
  B) the resting potential.
  C) the refractory period.
  D) depolarization.



22. A resting axon’s fluid interior has a mostly negative charge thanks to the presence of large ________ ions.
  A) sodium
  B) serotonin
  C) protein
  D) dopamine



23. Neurons generate electricity from a chemical process involving the exchange of
  A) ions.
  B) enzymes.
  C) cortisol.
  D) oxytocin.



24. The resting potential of an axon results from the fact that an axon membrane is
  A) encased by a myelin sheath.
  B) selectively permeable.
  C) sensitive to neurotransmitter molecules.
  D) part of a larger neural network.



25. The depolarization of a neural membrane creates a(n)
  A) action potential.
  B) myelin sheath.
  C) neural network.
  D) interneuron.



26. An action potential involves the temporary ________ through an axon membrane.
  A) inflow of positively charged ions
  B) inflow of negatively charged ions
  C) outflow of positively charged ions
  D) outflow of negatively charged ions



27. The loss of an electrical charge difference between the inside and outside of an axon membrane is called
  A) reuptake.
  B) depolarization.
  C) the resting potential.
  D) selective permeability.



28. Following depolarization, the sodium/potassium pump transports ________ ions ________ a neuron.
  A) positively charged; into
  B) negatively charged; into
  C) positively charged; out of
  D) negatively charged; out of



29. The minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse is called the
  A) reflex.
  B) threshold.
  C) synapse.
  D) action potential.



30. Excitatory signals to a neuron must exceed inhibitory signals by a minimum intensity in order to trigger
  A) reuptake.
  B) a refractory period.
  C) an action potential.
  D) selective permeability.



31. The ______ occurs at an electrical charge of about –70 mV and the ______ occurs at a charge of about +40 mV.
  A) action potential; resting potential
  B) resting potential; threshold
  C) threshold; resting potential
  D) resting potential; action potential



32. With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which
  A) chemical messengers cross synaptic gaps between neurons.
  B) a neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by a sending neuron.
  C) an action potential cannot occur.
  D) an organism reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.



33. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron’s reaction is
  A) inhibited by the myelin sheath.
  B) delayed by a refractory period.
  C) an all-or-none response.
  D) dependent on neurotransmitter molecules.



34. A neuron’s reaction of either firing at full strength or not firing at all is described as
  A) an all-or-none response.
  B) a refractory period.
  C) the resting potential.
  D) a reflexive response.



35. A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers
  A) the release of endorphins.
  B) more intense neural impulses.
  C) the release of GABA.
  D) more neurons to fire, and to fire more often.



36. Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took an unexpectedly long time to travel a neural pathway. His observation provided evidence for the existence of
  A) antagonists.
  B) synaptic gaps.
  C) interneurons.
  D) neural networks.



37. A synapse is a(n)
  A) chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions.
  B) automatic response to sensory input.
  C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
  D) neural cable containing many axons.



38. The axon of a sending neuron is separated from the dendrite of a receiving neuron by a
  A) myelin sheath.
  B) neural network.
  C) glial cell.
  D) synaptic gap.



39. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called
  A) hormones.
  B) neurotransmitters.
  C) synapses.
  D) genes.



40. Neurotransmitters are released from knob-like terminals at the end of the
  A) dendrites.
  B) cell body.
  C) axon.
  D) myelin sheath.



41. Reuptake refers to the
  A) movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap.
  B) release of hormones into the bloodstream.
  C) inflow of positively charged ions through an axon membrane.
  D) reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron.



42. The number of neurotransmitter molecules located within a specific synaptic gap would most clearly be reduced by
  A) an action potential.
  B) ACh-producing neurons.
  C) acupuncture.
  D) reuptake.



43. Which neurotransmitter plays the most direct role in learning and memory?
  A) dopamine
  B) acetylcholine
  D) oxytocin



44. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that
  A) causes sleepiness.
  B) lessens physical pain.
  C) reduces depressed moods.
  D) triggers muscle contractions.



45. Mr. Anderson suffers from Parkinson’s disease and his shaking arm movements are so severe that he has difficulty feeding or dressing himself without help. His symptoms are most likely to be linked with an undersupply of the neurotransmitter
  A) cortisol.
  B) dopamine.
  C) serotonin.
  D) oxytocin.



46. Schizophrenia is most closely linked to an oversupply of the neurotransmitter
  A) dopamine.
  B) epinephrine.
  C) acetylcholine.
  D) serotonin.



47. An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to
  A) Alzheimer’s disease.
  B) schizophrenia.
  C) Parkinson’s disease.
  D) depression.



48. An undersupply of the major inhibitory neurotransmitter known as ________ is linked to seizures.
  A) glutamate
  C) serotonin
  D) ACh



49. Jacob’s severe migraine headaches have led him to seek medical help. It is likely that his symptoms are most closely linked to an
  A) oversupply of GABA.
  B) undersupply of serotonin.
  C) oversupply of glutamate.
  D) undersupply of acetylcholine.



50. Endorphins are
  A) neurotransmitters.
  B) sex hormones.
  C) endocrine glands.
  D) glial cells.



51. Opiate drugs occupy the same receptor sites as
  A) serotonin.
  B) endorphins.
  C) dopamine.
  D) epinephrine.



52. Which of the following is an opiate that elevates mood and eases pain?
  A) melatonin
  B) acetylcholine
  C) morphine
  D) glutamate



53. José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of
  A) glutamate.
  B) dopamine.
  C) acetylcholine.
  D) endorphins.



54. The body’s natural production of endorphins is likely to be
  A) increased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.
  B) decreased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
  C) increased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
  D) decreased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.



55. Jason’s intensely uncomfortable withdrawal symptoms following heroin use were probably due in part to a reduction in his body’s normal production of
  A) dopamine.
  B) epinephrine.
  C) acetylcholine.
  D) endorphins.



56. A drug molecule that increases a neurotransmitter’s action is called a(n)
  A) antagonist.
  B) endorphin.
  C) agonist.
  D) steroid.



57. Any drug molecule that occupies a neurotransmitter receptor site and blocks the neurotransmitter’s effect is a(n)
  A) glutamate.
  B) agonist.
  C) opiate.
  D) antagonist.



58. Any drug molecule that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter is a(n)
  A) steroid.
  B) agonist.
  C) endorphin.
  D) antagonist.



59. Endorphin agonists are likely to ________ one’s immediate pain, and endorphin antagonists are likely to ________ one’s immediate pain.
  A) decrease; increase
  B) increase; decrease
  C) increase; increase
  D) decrease; decrease



60. Botulin poisoning from improperly canned food causes paralysis by blocking the release of
  A) endorphins.
  B) epinephrine.
  C) acetylcholine.
  D) dopamine.



61. Madison is experiencing symptoms of paralysis after eating food contaminated by botulin. Her paralysis is most likely to be relieved by a drug that functions as a(n)
  A) ACh agonist.
  B) serotonin agonist.
  C) ACh antagonist.
  D) serotonin antagonist.



62. The nervous system is the
  A) complete set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream.
  B) collection of bundled axons that form neural cables carrying information to body muscles.
  C) an organism’s complete set of automatic reflex responses.
  D) electrochemical communication network that includes all the body’s neurons.



63. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the ________ nervous systems.
  A) autonomic
  B) sympathetic
  C) somatic
  D) peripheral



64. The central nervous system consists of
  A) sensory and motor neurons.
  B) somatic and autonomic systems.
  C) the brain and the spinal cord.
  D) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.



65. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the ________ nervous system.
  A) somatic
  B) parasympathetic
  C) sympathetic
  D) autonomic



66. Information travels through axons that are bundled into the cables we call
  A) interneurons.
  B) action potentials.
  C) nerves.
  D) reflex pathways.



67. You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
  A) the myelin sheath
  B) interneurons
  C) motor neurons
  D) sensory neurons



68. Sensory neurons are located in the
  A) synaptic gaps.
  B) endocrine system.
  C) peripheral nervous system.
  D) myelin sheath.



69. Sensory neurons are ________ neurons, and motor neurons are ________ neurons.
  A) agonist; antagonist
  B) afferent; efferent
  C) antagonist; agonist
  D) efferent; afferent



70. Information is carried from the central nervous system to the body’s tissues by
  A) interneurons.
  B) sensory neurons.
  C) motor neurons.
  D) adrenal glands.



71. Some neurons enable you to grasp objects by relaying outgoing messages to the muscles in your arms and hands. These neurons are called
  A) interneurons.
  B) sensory neurons.
  C) neurotransmitters.
  D) motor neurons.



72. Motor neurons transmit signals to
  A) glands.
  B) interneurons.
  C) sensory neurons.
  D) all of these parts.



73. Neurons that function within the brain and spinal cord are called
  A) sensory neurons.
  B) interneurons.
  C) endorphins.
  D) motor neurons.



74. Central nervous system neurons that process information between sensory inputs and motor outputs are called
  A) neurotransmitters.
  B) interneurons.
  C) synapses.
  D) dendrites.



75. The two divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the
  A) brain and spinal cord.
  B) sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.
  C) endocrine system and circulatory system.
  D) somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.



76. The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
  A) peripheral
  B) central
  C) sympathetic
  D) parasympathetic



77. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the movements of your mouth and jaws as you eat is called the
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) sympathetic nervous system.
  C) endocrine system.
  D) autonomic nervous system.



78. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) endocrine system.
  C) sensory nervous system.
  D) autonomic nervous system.



79. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your heart muscles by the
  A) sensory nervous system.
  B) somatic nervous system.
  C) central nervous system.
  D) autonomic nervous system.



80. Which division of the autonomic nervous system arouses the body and mobilizes its energy in stressful situations?
  A) the parasympathetic nervous system
  B) the sympathetic nervous system
  C) the somatic nervous system
  D) the central nervous system



81. You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) sympathetic nervous system.
  C) parasympathetic nervous system.
  D) sensory nervous system.



82. The parasympathetic nervous system
  A) stimulates digestion and slows heartbeat.
  B) inhibits digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
  C) stimulates digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
  D) inhibits digestion and slows heartbeat.



83. After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard, Ralph’s blood pressure decreased and his heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions were most directly regulated by his
  A) parasympathetic nervous system.
  B) sympathetic nervous system.
  C) somatic nervous system.
  D) sensory nervous system.



84. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to keep you in a steady internal state called
  A) depolarization.
  B) reuptake.
  C) homeostasis.
  D) the resting potential.



85. An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the ________ nervous system is to the ________ nervous system.
  A) somatic; autonomic
  B) autonomic; somatic
  C) sympathetic; parasympathetic
  D) parasympathetic; sympathetic



86. Neural networks refer to
  A) the branching extensions of a neuron.
  B) interrelated clusters of neurons in the central nervous system.
  C) neural cables containing many axons.
  D) junctions between sending and receiving neurons.



87. The strengthening of the brain’s synaptic connections facilitates the formation of
  A) interneurons.
  B) endorphins.
  C) neural networks.
  D) glial cells.



88. A football quarterback can simultaneously make calculations of receiver distances, player movements, and gravitational forces. This best illustrates the activity of multiple
  A) endocrine glands.
  B) endorphin agonists.
  C) neural networks.
  D) acetylcholine antagonists.



89. The part of the central nervous system that carries information from your senses to your brain and motor-control information to your body parts is the
  A) pituitary gland.
  B) pancreas.
  C) spinal cord.
  D) myelin sheath.



90. A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus is called a(n)
  A) neural network.
  B) action potential.
  C) neurotransmitter.
  D) reflex.



91. The knee-jerk reflex is controlled by interneurons in the
  A) synaptic gap.
  B) spinal cord.
  C) sympathetic nervous system.
  D) parasympathetic nervous system.



92. In a tragic diving accident, Andrew damaged his spinal cord. As a result, his legs were paralyzed. Andrew’s injury was located in his
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) autonomic nervous system.
  C) sympathetic nervous system.
  D) central nervous system.



93. Aaron consistently exhibits a knee-jerk response without having any sensations of the taps on his knees. Aaron’s experience is most indicative of
  A) botulin poisoning.
  B) a severed spinal cord.
  C) a sympathetic nervous system injury.
  D) a refractory period.



94. The endocrine system consists of the
  A) communication network that includes all the body’s neurons.
  B) regions of the brain that regulate emotion.
  C) interneurons within the spinal cord.
  D) glands that secrete hormones.



95. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
  A) autonomic nervous system.
  B) somatic nervous system.
  C) endocrine system.
  D) central nervous system.



96. The speedy nervous system zips messages by way of neurotransmitters. Endocrine messages, however, are delivered more slowly because hormones travel through
  A) myelinated neurons.
  B) the bloodstream.
  C) glial cells.
  D) interneurons.



97. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the
  A) somatic nervous system.
  B) endocrine system.
  C) autonomic nervous system.
  D) central nervous system.



98. The release of hormones by the adrenal glands is most likely to trigger
  A) depression.
  B) the fight-or-flight response.
  C) the pain reflex.
  D) a refractory period.



99. If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably release ________ into your bloodstream.
  A) endorphins
  B) acetylcholine
  C) epinephrine
  D) insulin



100. The release of epinephrine into the bloodstream is most likely to
  A) increase blood sugar.
  B) lower blood pressure.
  C) stimulate digestion.
  D) decrease perspiration.



101. The master gland of the endocrine system is the
  A) thyroid gland.
  B) adrenal gland.
  C) pituitary gland.
  D) pancreas.



102. At the age of 22, Mrs. LaBlanc was less than 4 feet tall. Her short stature was probably influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produced by the
  A) pancreas.
  B) thyroid.
  C) adrenal gland.
  D) pituitary gland.



103. During a laboratory game, those given a nasal squirt of ________ rather than a placebo were more likely to trust strangers with their money.
  A) epinephrine
  B) oxytocin
  C) dopamine
  D) serotonin



104. Oxytocin is secreted by the
  A) pancreas.
  B) thyroid gland.
  C) pituitary gland.
  D) adrenal gland.



105. The hypothalamus influences the ________ to send messages to the ________.
  A) adrenal glands; pancreas
  B) pituitary; endocrine glands
  C) motor neurons; sensory neurons
  D) somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system



106. Surgical destruction of brain tissue is called a(n)
  A) EEG.
  B) diffusion spectrum.
  C) lesion.
  D) MRI.



107. An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the surface of the brain is called a(n)
  A) fMRI.
  B) EEG.
  C) PET scan.
  D) MRI.



108. The release of gamma waves from radioactive blood sugar in different regions of the brain is detected by a(n)
  A) MRI scan.
  B) EEG.
  C) PET scan.
  D) fMRI.



109. To identify which of Lucy’s brain areas was most active when she talked, neuroscientists gave her a temporarily radioactive form of glucose and a(n)
  A) fMRI.
  B) PET scan.
  C) EEG.
  D) MRI scan.



110. Magnetic resonance imaging uses magnetic fields and ________ to produce computer-generated images of soft tissue.
  A) radio waves
  B) brain lesions
  C) a radioactive form of glucose
  D) electrodes placed on the scalp



111. The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have schizophrenia is to use a(n)
  A) EEG.
  B) MRI.
  C) PET scan.
  D) brain lesion.



112. To detect Mr. Ziegler’s loss of brain tissue from a degenerative disease, his physicians are most likely to request that he receive a(n)
  A) EEG.
  B) MRI scan.
  C) brain lesion.
  D) PET scan.



113. To identify which specific brain areas are most active during a particular mental task, researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n)
  A) fMRI.
  B) microelectrode insertion.
  C) MRI.
  D) brain lesion.



114. When the brain is unoccupied, an fMRI indicates that blood continues to flow via a web of brain regions called the
  A) reticular formation.
  B) nucleus accumbens.
  C) default network.
  D) diffusion spectrum.



115. The $40 million Human Connectome Project harnesses ________ technology to map neural connections across long distances within the brain.
  A) positron emission tomography
  B) electroencephalogram
  C) diffusion spectrum imaging
  D) microelectrode insertion



116. The part of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the
  A) cerebellum.
  B) medulla.
  C) amygdala.
  D) thalamus.



117. The part of the brainstem that helps to coordinate movements is called the
  A) nucleus accumbens.
  B) hippocampus.
  C) amygdala.
  D) pons.



118. If your ________ is destroyed, the left side of your brain could not control the movements of your right hand.
  A) brainstem
  B) hippocampus
  C) amygdala
  D) hypothalamus



119. Which brain structure receives information from all the senses except smell?
  A) hippocampus
  B) amygdala
  C) pons
  D) thalamus



120. Jason lost his sense of taste because a tumor caused damage to a structure located on top of his brainstem. This structure is known as the
  A) amygdala.
  B) thalamus.
  C) medulla.
  D) hippocampus.



121. Information from higher brain regions is transmitted to the medulla through the
  A) hypothalamus.
  B) hippocampus.
  C) amygdala.
  D) thalamus.



122. The reticular formation is a nerve network that travels through the ________ into the thalamus.
  A) brainstem
  B) amygdala
  C) hypothalamus
  D) cerebellum



123. Which region of your brainstem plays a role in arousing you to a state of alertness when, for example, you accidentally stumble over another person’s misplaced pair of shoes?
  A) reticular formation
  B) hypothalamus
  C) amygdala
  D) hippocampus



124. Severing a cat’s reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to
  A) become violently aggressive.
  B) cower in fear.
  C) experience convulsive seizures.
  D) lapse into a coma.



125. Which baseball-sized structure at the rear of the brainstem serves many functions, including helping you to judge time and to discriminate sounds and textures?
  A) amygdala
  B) cerebellum
  C) hippocampus
  D) basal ganglia



126. The ________ at the back of the brain enables nonverbal learning and skill memory.
  A) amygdala
  B) cerebellum
  C) hypothalamus
  D) nucleus accumbens



127. With assistance from the ______, the cerebellum regulates ________.
  A) hypothalamus; hunger and thirst
  B) amygdala; heartbeat and breathing
  C) pons; physical coordination and balance
  D) medulla; fear and rage



128. After Kato’s serious motorcycle accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum. Kato is most likely to have difficulty
  A) reading printed words.
  B) understanding what others are saying.
  C) tasting the flavors of foods.
  D) playing his guitar.



129. A neural system at the border between the brainstem and the cerebral hemispheres is known as the
  A) pons.
  B) limbic system.
  C) reticular formation.
  D) medulla.



130. The sequence of brain regions from the oldest to newest is
  A) limbic system, brainstem, cerebral cortex.
  B) brainstem, cerebral cortex, limbic system.
  C) limbic system, cerebral cortex, brainstem.
  D) brainstem, limbic system, cerebral cortex.



131. The amygdala consists of emotion-linked neural clusters in the
  A) brainstem.
  B) reticular formation.
  C) limbic system.
  D) cerebellum.



132. S. M. is a patient who has been called “the woman with no fear,” even of being threatened with a gun. Her fearlessness is best attributed to damage to her
  A) pons.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) hypothalamus.
  D) amygdala.



133. To demonstrate that brain stimulation can make a rat violently aggressive, a neuroscientist should electrically stimulate the rat’s
  A) reticular formation.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) medulla.
  D) amygdala.



134. Which limbic system structure regulates thirst and body temperature?
  A) medulla
  B) amygdala
  C) hippocampus
  D) hypothalamus



135. The brain structure that provides a major link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is the
  A) cerebellum.
  B) amygdala.
  C) reticular formation.
  D) hypothalamus.



136. A brain tumor caused extensive damage to Mr. Thorndike’s hypothalamus. It is most likely that he may suffer a loss of
  A) visual perception.
  B) muscular coordination.
  C) sexual motivation.
  D) language comprehension.



137. James Olds and Peter Milner located reward centers in the brain structure known as the
  A) hypothalamus.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) medulla.
  D) amygdala.



138. A limbic system reward center located in front of the hypothalamus is called the
  A) amygdala.
  B) reticular formation.
  C) pons.
  D) nucleus accumbens.



139. Our pleasurable “chills” response to a favorite piece of music is facilitated by the release of the neurotransmitter
  A) GABA.
  B) cortisol.
  C) ACh.
  D) dopamine.



140. Addictive disorders may stem from malfunctioning reward centers in the
  A) thalamus.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) reticular formation.
  D) limbic system.



141. Some researchers believe that a reward deficiency syndrome contributes to
  A) schizophrenia.
  B) amygdala lesions.
  C) muscular paralysis.
  D) substance use disorders.



142. The neural center in the limbic system that processes explicit memories for storage is called the
  A) hypothalamus.
  B) thalamus.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) medulla.



143. Those who survive a hippocampal brain tumor in childhood are likely to have difficulty ________ in adulthood.
  A) getting adequate sleep
  B) remembering new information
  C) maintaining body balance while walking
  D) experiencing feelings of fear



144. About 85 percent of human brain weight comes from the
  A) hippocampus.
  B) cerebrum.
  C) corpus callosum.
  D) frontal lobes.



145. The cerebral cortex is the covering layer of the
  A) brainstem.
  B) corpus callosum.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) cerebrum.



146. Your conscious awareness of your own name and self-identity depends primarily on the normal functioning of your
  A) somatosensory cortex.
  B) amygdala.
  C) motor cortex.
  D) cerebral cortex.



147. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is most closely adjacent to the ears?
  A) parietal lobes
  B) temporal lobes
  C) occipital lobes
  D) frontal lobes



148. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is located nearest the top of the head just behind the frontal lobes?
  A) occipital lobes
  B) hippocampus
  C) parietal lobes
  D) temporal lobes



149. The occipital lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________.
  A) hearing; sensing movement
  B) seeing; sensing touch
  C) seeing; hearing
  D) speaking; hearing



150. Applying mild electrical stimulation to parts of an animal’s cortex, Gustav Fritsch and Edward Hitzig discovered what is now called the
  A) motor cortex.
  B) visual cortex.
  C) auditory cortex.
  D) somatosensory cortex.



151. The motor cortex is located in the ________ lobes.
  A) occipital
  B) temporal
  C) frontal
  D) parietal



152. A laboratory cat could be made to twitch its whiskers by direct stimulation of the ________ lobes of its cerebral cortex.
  A) temporal
  B) occipital
  C) frontal
  D) parietal



153. During open-brain surgery, Adam’s left ankle twitched whenever the surgeon electrically stimulated a specific area within Adam’s
  A) left frontal lobe.
  B) right frontal lobe.
  C) left parietal lobe.
  D) right parietal lobe.



154. Which of the following body parts is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue in the motor cortex?
  A) arms
  B) face
  C) trunk
  D) knees



155. In a clinical trial of brain-implanted microelectrodes, a paralyzed 25-year-old man constructed shapes on a computer screen by activating neurons in his
  A) somatosensory cortex.
  B) occipital lobes.
  C) motor cortex.
  D) hippocampus.



156. The somatosensory cortex is most critical for our sense of
  A) sight.
  B) hearing.
  C) touch.
  D) smell.



157. Which part of your brain is essential for receiving information that you are moving your legs?
  A) corpus callosum
  B) hippocampus
  C) somatosensory cortex
  D) temporal lobes



158. Which of the following body parts is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue in the somatosensory cortex?
  A) toes
  B) knees
  C) neck
  D) lips



159. Which lobes of the brain receive the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back?
  A) parietal
  B) temporal
  C) occipital
  D) frontal



160. The surgical removal of a large tumor from Dane’s occipital lobe resulted in extensive loss of brain tissue. Dane is most likely to suffer some loss of
  A) muscular coordination.
  B) visual perception.
  C) speaking ability.
  D) pain sensations.



161. Auditory stimulation is processed in the ________ lobes.
  A) occipital
  B) temporal
  C) frontal
  D) parietal



162. The auditory hallucinations experienced by people with schizophrenia are most closely linked with the activation of areas in their
  A) motor cortex.
  B) parietal lobes.
  C) temporal lobes.
  D) somatosensory cortex.



163. The association areas are located in the
  A) brainstem.
  B) thalamus.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) cerebral cortex.



164. The most extensive regions of the brain are involved in higher mental functions such as memory and reasoning. These regions are called the
  A) somatosensory cortex.
  B) hippocampus.
  C) corpus callosum.
  D) association areas.



165. After he suffered a stroke, Mr. Santore’s physical coordination skills and responsiveness to sensory stimulation quickly returned to normal. Unfortunately, however, he could no longer figure out how to find his way around his neighborhood. It is most likely that Mr. Santore suffered damage to his
  A) amygdala.
  B) somatosensory cortex.
  C) motor cortex.
  D) association areas.



166. Knowing that you will be punished for breaking Mom’s favorite dish is a function of the
  A) somatosensory cortex.
  B) corpus callosum.
  C) association areas.
  D) motor cortex.



167. The classic case of railroad worker Phineas Gage best illustrated that frontal lobe damage can
  A) trigger muscle spasms.
  B) enhance moral reasoning skills.
  C) alter one’s personality.
  D) facilitate neurogenesis.



168. Cecil Layton displayed increased impulsivity and lowered intelligence test performance following damage to his left ________ lobe in a sawmill accident.
  A) parietal
  B) occipital
  C) frontal
  D) temporal



169. Those with damage to the ________ lobes are often untroubled by the ethical dilemma of choosing to push one person in front of a runaway trolley in order to save five others.
  A) temporal
  B) occipital
  C) parietal
  D) frontal



170. Mathematical and spatial reasoning capacities are especially likely to be linked with association areas in the
  A) parietal lobes.
  B) temporal lobes.
  C) occipital lobes.
  D) frontal lobes.



171. The inability to recognize familiar faces even though one can clearly see and describe features of the faces is associated with damage to the right ________ lobe.
  A) frontal
  B) parietal
  C) occipital
  D) temporal



172. The capacity of a brain area to develop new neural pathways as it adjusts to damage is known as
  A) lateralization.
  B) neurogenesis.
  C) the split brain.
  D) plasticity.



173. Although James lost some manual dexterity following brain damage from a stroke, the development of new neural pathways enabled him to regain most of his lost agility. This best illustrates the value of
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) lateralization.
  C) plasticity.
  D) brain fissures.



174. The benefits of brain plasticity are most clearly demonstrated in
  A) children who have had a cerebral hemisphere surgically removed.
  B) people paralyzed by a severed spinal cord.
  C) individuals with Alzheimer’s disease.
  D) split-brain patients.



175. Areas of the visual cortex that normally help people to see may aid blind people to read Braille by processing tactile sensations from the fingers. This best illustrates the value of
  A) plasticity.
  B) brain fissures.
  C) lateralization.
  D) neurogenesis.



176. If a slow-growing left-hemisphere tumor disrupts language, the right hemisphere may take over this language functioning. This best illustrates the value of
  A) the split brain.
  B) neurogenesis.
  C) brain fissures.
  D) plasticity.



177. Among deaf people, a temporal lobe area normally dedicated to hearing may begin to process visual signals. This best illustrates the impact of
  A) plasticity.
  B) neurogenesis.
  C) lateralization.
  D) brain fissures.



178. After Clark’s hand had been amputated, he gradually began to feel sensations on his nonexistent fingers when his arm was stroked. This best illustrates the consequences of
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) plasticity.
  C) lateralization.
  D) the split brain.



179. The process of forming new neurons within the brain is called
  A) lateralization.
  B) hemispherectomy.
  C) neurogenesis.
  D) plasticity.



180. Physical exercise, sleep, and exposure to nonstressful but stimulating environments are most likely to promote
  A) lateralization.
  B) neurogenesis.
  C) hemispherectomy.
  D) new brain fissures.



181. There is some hope that ________ discovered in the human embryo can someday be used to generate replacements for damaged neurons in the brain.
  A) gene fragments
  B) somatosensory neurons
  C) optic nerves
  D) stem cells



182. A tendency for the brain’s left and right hemispheres to serve different functions is called
  A) hemispherectomy.
  B) lateralization.
  C) neurogenesis.
  D) plasticity.



183. The control of speech production by the left rather than the right hemisphere of the brain best illustrates
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) lateralization.
  C) brain fissures.
  D) plasticity.



184. Damage to the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to reduce people’s ability to
  A) solve arithmetic problems.
  B) copy drawings.
  C) recognize faces.
  D) recognize familiar melodies.



185. The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that
  A) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body.
  B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
  C) sends information from the left half of your field of vision to your right cerebral hemisphere.
  D) transfers neural impulses from the somatosensory cortex to the motor cortex.



186. Those whose corpus callosum is surgically severed are said to be patients with
  A) brain plasticity.
  B) brain fissures.
  C) neurogenesis.
  D) split brains.



187. Neurosurgeons have severed the corpus callosum in human patients in order to reduce
  A) lateralization.
  B) epileptic seizures.
  C) neural plasticity.
  D) neurogenesis.



188. Sensory information is transmitted from the ________ visual field of ________ to the left cerebral hemisphere.
  A) left; only the left eye
  B) right; only the right eye
  C) left; only the right eye
  D) right; both the right and left eyes



189. A picture of a dog is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split-brain patient. At the same time a picture of a boy is flashed in the right visual field. In identifying what she saw, the patient would be most likely to
  A) use her left hand to point to a picture of a dog.
  B) verbally report that she saw a dog.
  C) use her left hand to point to a picture of a boy.
  D) verbally report that she saw a boy.



190. The ability to simultaneously copy different figures with the right and left hand is most characteristic of those whose ________ has been cut.
  A) somatosensory cortex
  B) hippocampus
  C) corpus callosum
  D) motor cortex



191. When a person speaks, brain waves and bloodflow are especially likely to reveal increased activity in the
  A) cerebellum.
  B) left hemisphere.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) right hemisphere.



192. Deaf people who use sign language typically
  A) demonstrate greater mathematical competence than hearing persons.
  B) process language in their left cerebral hemisphere.
  C) have better communication skills than hearing persons.
  D) have a smaller corpus callosum than hearing persons.



193. People who suffer partial paralysis as a result of damage to the ________ will sometimes obstinately claim they can move a paralyzed limb.
  A) right cerebral hemisphere
  B) corpus callosum
  C) left cerebral hemisphere
  D) occipital lobes



194. Every nongenetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us, is an aspect of our
  A) natural selection.
  B) genome.
  C) environment.
  D) heredity.



195. The impact of our cultural backgrounds on the development of our personal values best illustrates the influence of
  A) our shared human genome.
  B) epigenetic marks.
  C) natural selection.
  D) the environment.



196. Characteristics that are genetically transferred from parents to their offspring are said to be a product of
  A) epigenetics.
  B) heredity.
  C) shared family environments.
  D) behavior genetics.



197. The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior is known as
  A) genomics.
  B) epigenetics.
  C) behavior genetics.
  D) evolutionary psychology.



198. A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on
  A) skin color.
  B) sexual anatomy.
  C) physical attractiveness.
  D) personality traits.



199. A human sperm cell contains
  A) 23 chromosomes.
  B) 23 genes.
  C) 46 chromosomes.
  D) 46 genes.



200. Chromosomes are threadlike structures made of
  A) serotonin molecules.
  B) epigenetic molecules.
  C) DNA molecules.
  D) dizygotic molecules.



201. Chromosomes are contained within
  A) brain cells.
  B) sperm cells.
  C) blood cells.
  D) all of these types of cells.



202. DNA is a complex
  A) sex hormone.
  B) genome.
  C) molecule.
  D) epigenetic mark.



203. The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes are called
  A) genes.
  B) genomes.
  C) epigenetic molecules.
  D) neurotransmitters.



204. A segment of DNA that provides the code for creating protein molecules is called a(n)
  A) organic methyl molecule.
  B) epigenetic mark.
  C) chromosome.
  D) gene.



205. Depending on environmental conditions, specific genes can be either
  A) monozygotic or dizygotic.
  B) active or inactive.
  C) identical or fraternal.
  D) structured or unstructured.



206. The biochemical code for eye color is transmitted from parents to offspring by
  A) neurotransmitters.
  B) natural selection.
  C) epigenetic molecules.
  D) genes.



207. The genome refers to an organism’s complete set of
  A) epigenetic marks.
  B) genetic material.
  C) protein molecules.
  D) zygotic cells.



208. Twin and adoption studies have been most helpful for teasing apart the influences of
  A) genetic mutations and epigenetic marks.
  B) extraversion and neuroticism.
  C) genes and protein molecules.
  D) heredity and environment.



209. Identical twins originate from the fertilization of
  A) a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
  B) two egg cells by a single sperm cell.
  C) a single egg cell by two sperm cells.
  D) two egg cells by two sperm cells.



210. Twins who develop from separate fertilized eggs are called ________ twins.
  A) epigenetic
  B) monozygotic
  C) identical
  D) fraternal



211. Unlike identical twins, fraternal twins are described as
  A) epigenetic.
  B) dizygotic.
  C) extraverted.
  D) monozygotic.



212. Twin studies suggest that the risk of having autism spectrum disorder is influenced by
  A) prenatal genetic testing.
  B) free-floating stress hormones.
  C) heredity.
  D) organic methyl molecules.



213. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins report ________ similarity in neuroticism, and ________ similarity in extraversion.
  A) more; less
  B) less; less
  C) more; more
  D) less; more



214. Juan and Alonzo are fraternal twin brothers, whereas Jake and Alex are identical twin brothers. The similarities between Jake and Alex with respect to ________ are likely to be greater than the similarities between Juan and Alonzo.
  A) extraversion
  B) neuroticism
  C) physical appearance
  D) all of these characteristics



215. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are ________ similar in physical appearance. Compared with unrelated look-alike pairs of individuals, identical twins report ________ similar personalities.
  A) no more; more
  B) more; no more
  C) no more; no more
  D) more; more



216. Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing
  A) identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised apart.
  B) identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together.
  C) identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together.
  D) identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart.



217. Identical twins have been shown to have some amazing psychological similarities. But we should be cautious about attributing these similarities to shared genes because
  A) the twins may have been raised in completely different environments.
  B) genetic factors influence physical, not psychological, characteristics.
  C) any two strangers are likely to share many coincidental similarities.
  D) many fraternal twins have been shown to be psychologically different from each other.



218. Differences between men and women in personality traits that are highly heritable cannot necessarily be attributed to genetic differences between the two groups because
  A) physical growth proceeds at different rates for males than for females.
  B) natural selection contributes to humans’ common genetic endowment.
  C) heritable traits can be influenced by environmental factors.
  D) genes influence the production of sex hormones.



219. The personalities of adopted children
  A) are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families.
  B) are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings.
  C) are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents.
  D) are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the personalities of their biological parents.



220. Jason and Alex are biologically unrelated adolescents who were adopted as infants and raised together. For which of the following are Jason and Alex least likely to resemble each other any more than they resemble a genetically unrelated adolescent from another home in their neighborhood?
  A) extraversion
  B) religious beliefs
  C) table manners
  D) political attitudes



221. Person-to-person differences in religious involvement are ________ attributable to their differing genes, and identical twins have ________ religious beliefs if raised together rather than apart.
  A) not; no more similar
  B) partly; no more similar
  C) not; more similar
  D) partly; more similar



222. The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children’s ________ than on their ________.
  A) political attitudes; economic values
  B) extraversion; table manners
  C) religious beliefs; personality traits
  D) neuroticism; religious beliefs



223. Children in adoptive homes are ________ likely than average to experience parental neglect and abuse. They have typically grown up to be ________ altruistic than average.
  A) more; less
  B) more; more
  C) less; less
  D) less; more



224. When the effect of one factor depends on the presence of another factor, outcomes are said to reflect
  A) an epigenetic mark.
  B) an interaction.
  C) natural selection
  D) adaptive flexibility



225. While you develop callused feet when you go barefoot for a summer, your neighbor remains a tenderfoot by protecting her feet with shoes. The differences in skin toughness between you and your neighbor are best attributed to
  A) the molecular structure of genes.
  B) person-to-person genetic variations.
  C) the impact of epigenetic marks on gene expression.
  D) the interaction of genetic and environmental influences.



226. An African butterfly that is green in the summer turns brown in the fall thanks to a temperature-controlled genetic switch. This best illustrates that genes are
  A) dizygotic.
  B) self-regulating.
  C) epigenetic marks.
  D) protein molecules.



227. The unique genetically influenced traits of children often evoke predictable responses from their caregivers. This best illustrates the ______ of nature and nurture.
  A) heritability
  B) interaction
  C) epigenetics
  D) independence



228. People have always responded so positively to Alyssa’s good looks that she has developed a socially confident and outgoing personality. This best illustrates the interaction of
  A) genes and chromosomes.
  B) evolution and natural selection.
  C) nature and nurture.
  D) behavior genetics and evolutionary psychology.



229. The study of influences on gene expression that occur without a DNA change is called
  A) genomics.
  B) epigenetics.
  C) behavior genetics.
  D) evolutionary psychology.



230. An organic methyl molecule attached to part of a DNA strand has been identified as a(n)
  A) genome.
  B) double helix.
  C) epigenetic mark.
  D) self-regulating gene.



231. The molecules that can block genetic expression are called
  A) genomes.
  B) chromosomes.
  C) stress hormones.
  D) epigenetic marks.



232. Infant rats deprived of their mothers’ normal licking had more ________ that block access to the “on” switch for developing the brain’s stress hormone receptors.
  A) self-regulating genes
  B) neurotransmitters
  C) genomes
  D) epigenetic molecules



233. If chronic child abuse alters a victim’s gene expression in such a fashion as to trigger depression, this would be said to illustrate
  A) natural selection.
  B) an epigenetic effect.
  C) high serotonin levels.
  D) a genetic mutation.



234. Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
  A) behavior genetics.
  B) epigenetics.
  C) genomics.
  D) natural selection.



235. The principle of natural selection was first advanced by
  A) Dmitry Belyaev.
  B) Sigmund Freud.
  C) Charles Darwin.
  D) Thomas Bouchard.



236. Inherited trait variations that contribute to reproduction and survival will most likely to be passed on to succeeding generations. This best illustrates
  A) adaptive flexibility.
  B) behavior genetics.
  C) natural selection.
  D) self-regulation.



237. Several organisms from a strain of bacteria infecting hospital patients inherited a mutation that increased their resistance to the hospital’s antibacterial drugs. Over time, the drug-resistant bacteria increasingly outnumbered the bacteria without the mutation. This best illustrates
  A) domestication.
  B) an epigenetic mark.
  C) natural selection.
  D) behavior genetics.



238. Evolutionary psychology is most likely to emphasize that human adaptiveness to a variety of different environments has contributed to
  A) the second Darwinian revolution.
  B) genetic mutations.
  C) epigenetic marks.
  D) reproductive success.



239. Our adaptive flexibility in responding to different environments contributes to our fitness, which refers to
  A) random errors in the replication of genes.
  B) epigenetic marks that regulate gene expression.
  C) our ability to survive and reproduce.
  D) the interaction of our genes with the environment.



240. A random error in gene replication is known as a(n)
  A) epigenetic mark.
  B) genome.
  C) mutation.
  D) selected trait.



241. A random alteration in the DNA sequence within one of his genes has caused James to suffer a rare form of nearsightedness. His difficulty best illustrates the impact of
  A) an epigenetic mark.
  B) a mutation.
  C) free-floating stress hormones.
  D) an organic methyl molecule.



242. Our shared human genome is the complete
  A) collection of epigenetic marks that regulate gene expression.
  B) range of biological and behavioral traits that contribute to reproductive success.
  C) genetic profile common to all humanity.
  D) set of interactions between our shared genes and our shared environments.



243. If a genetically based aversion to the bitter taste of rhubarb leaves contributes to survival, that trait will likely be passed on from parents to offspring. This best illustrates
  A) behavior genetics.
  B) domestication.
  C) natural selection.
  D) an epigenetic mark.



244. According to evolutionary psychologists, behaviors that promote reproductive success are likely to be
  A) socially prohibited.
  B) genetically predisposed.
  C) ecologically disruptive.
  D) disease-producing.



245. According to evolutionary psychologists, our predisposition to overconsume fatty junk foods most clearly illustrates that we are biologically prepared to behave in ways that promoted the ________ of our ancestors.
  A) hunting skills
  B) epigenetic marks
  C) reproductive success
  D) neuroticism



246. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that
  A) more people are biologically predisposed to fear guns than to fear snakes.
  B) children are more likely to be valued by their biological fathers than by their stepfathers.
  C) people are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically dissimilar to themselves.
  D) genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships.




Answer Key


1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. B
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. C
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. D
55. D
56. C
57. D
58. B
59. A
60. C
61. A
62. D
63. D
64. C
65. A
66. C
67. D
68. C
69. B
70. C
71. D
72. A
73. B
74. B
75. D
76. A
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. B
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. C
85. C
86. B
87. C
88. C
89. C
90. D
91. B
92. D
93. B
94. D
95. C
96. B
97. B
98. B
99. C
100. A
101. C
102. D
103. B
104. C
105. B
106. C
107. B
108. C
109. B
110. A
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. C
115. C
116. B
117. D
118. A
119. D
120. B
121. D
122. A
123. A
124. D
125. B
126. B
127. C
128. D
129. B
130. D
131. C
132. D
133. D
134. D
135. D
136. C
137. A
138. D
139. D
140. D
141. D
142. C
143. B
144. B
145. D
146. D
147. B
148. C
149. C
150. A
151. C
152. C
153. B
154. B
155. C
156. C
157. C
158. D
159. A
160. B
161. B
162. C
163. D
164. D
165. D
166. C
167. C
168. C
169. D
170. A
171. D
172. D
173. C
174. A
175. A
176. D
177. A
178. B
179. C
180. B
181. D
182. B
183. B
184. A
185. B
186. D
187. B
188. D
189. D
190. C
191. B
192. B
193. A
194. C
195. D
196. B
197. C
198. D
199. A
200. C
201. D
202. C
203. A
204. D
205. B
206. D
207. B
208. D
209. A
210. D
211. B
212. C
213. C
214. D
215. D
216. D
217. C
218. C
219. C
220. A
221. D
222. C
223. D
224. B
225. D
226. B
227. B
228. C
229. B
230. C
231. D
232. D
233. B
234. D
235. C
236. C
237. C
238. D
239. C
240. C
241. B
242. C
243. C
244. B
245. C
246. B


TB1 Chapter 02- Web Quiz 1

1. A neuron is best described as a(n)
  A) ion.
  B) cell.
  C) sheath.
  D) molecule.



2. Which of the following is most clearly characterized by a temporary inflow of positively charged sodium ions through an axon membrane?
  A) reuptake
  B) an action potential
  C) a refractory period
  D) the resting potential



3. Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin will thereby increase the concentration of serotonin molecules in the
  A) axon terminals.
  B) synaptic gaps.
  C) glial cells.
  D) endocrine glands.



4. Natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control are called
  A) ACh agonists.
  B) dendrites.
  C) morphine antagonists.
  D) endorphins.



5. Botox injections smooth facial wrinkles because botulin is a(n)
  A) ACh antagonist.
  B) dopamine antagonist.
  C) ACh agonist.
  D) dopamine agonist.



6. The vast majority of neurons in the body’s information system are
  A) glial cells.
  B) interneurons.
  C) motor neurons.
  D) sensory neurons.



7. As needed, the sympathetic nervous system ________ blood sugar levels and ________ the pupils of the eyes.
  A) lowers; dilates
  B) raises; contracts
  C) lowers; contracts
  D) raises; dilates



8. While listening to operatic solos, musicians process the lyrics and the tunes in separate brain areas. This most clearly illustrates the functioning of different
  A) neurotransmitters.
  B) parathyroids.
  C) neural networks.
  D) reflex systems.



9. The endocrine system consists of
  A) myelin sheaths.
  B) neural networks.
  C) interneurons.
  D) glands.



10. Which hormone enables contractions associated with birthing and milk flow during nursing?
  A) insulin
  B) cortisol
  C) oxytocin
  D) epinephrine



11. Which of the following would be particularly useful for detecting the brain areas that are most active as a person performs mathematical calculations?
  A) a brain lesion
  B) enlarged ventricles
  C) a PET scan
  D) an MRI scan



12. The brain’s oldest region is the
  A) hippocampus.
  B) amygdala.
  C) brainstem.
  D) hypothalamus.



13. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
  A) thalamus
  B) amygdala
  C) medulla
  D) cerebellum



14. After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth and coordinated manner. She has probably suffered damage to her
  A) amygdala.
  B) hypothalamus.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) hippocampus.



15. The limbic system structure that regulates hunger is called the
  A) thalamus.
  B) amygdala.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) hypothalamus.



16. The limbic system’s hippocampus
  A) coordinates body movement and balance.
  B) regulates hunger and thirst.
  C) plays a central role in fear and rage.
  D) helps process explicit memories for storage.



17. Which portion of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in making plans and formulating moral judgments?
  A) occipital lobes
  B) frontal lobes
  C) temporal lobes
  D) parietal lobes



18. The brain devotes more tissue within the ________ for body areas requiring the most precise movement control such as the fingers.
  A) hippocampus
  B) corpus callosum
  C) occipital lobes
  D) motor cortex



19. The regions of the parietal lobes that are involved in mathematical and spatial reasoning are known as
  A) the hippocampus.
  B) the corpus callosum.
  C) the somatosensory cortex.
  D) association areas.



20. If you lose a foot, the somatosensory cortex that received its input will begin to pick up signals from the formerly adjoined leg. This best illustrates the value of
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) lateralization.
  C) plasticity.
  D) hemispherectomy.



21. The right hemisphere of Julie’s brain is better than her left hemisphere at recognizing facial expressions of emotion. This best illustrates
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) plasticity.
  C) lateralization.
  D) brain fissures.



22. Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are
  A) less similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and less similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
  B) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
  C) equally similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and more similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.
  D) more similar in their risk of developing autism spectrum disorder and equally similar in risk of being emotionally unstable.



23. Adoptive parents are LEAST likely to influence the ________ of their adopted children.
  A) personality traits
  B) religious beliefs
  C) political attitudes
  D) moral values



24. In emphasizing that heredity’s effects on behavior depend on a person’s home environment, psychologists are most clearly highlighting the importance of
  A) a double helix.
  B) natural selection.
  C) dizygotic development.
  D) nature–nurture interactions.



25. The study of molecular mechanisms by which environments can trigger or block gene expression is called
  A) behavior genetics.
  B) evolutionary psychology.
  C) epigenetics.
  D) genomics.



26. The prevalence of genetically predisposed traits that have a reproductive advantage is best explained in terms of
  A) epigenetic marks.
  B) natural selection.
  C) the human genome.
  D) behavior genetics.



27. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of
  A) gene splicing.
  B) selective mating.
  C) food deprivation.
  D) hormone injections.



28. Which of the following is a major source of genetic diversity?
  A) mutations
  B) epigenetic marks
  C) adaptive flexibility
  D) free-floating stress hormones



29. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to
  A) fear dangerous animals.
  B) love their own children.
  C) seek healthy-looking mates.
  D) do all of these things.




Answer Key


1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. C
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. C
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. A
29. D


TB1 Chapter 02- Web Quiz 2

1. An axon transmits messages ________ the cell body and a dendrite transmits messages ________ the cell body.
  A) away from; toward
  B) away from; away from
  C) toward; away from
  D) toward; toward



2. To excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the
  A) axon.
  B) synaptic gap.
  C) myelin sheath.
  D) endocrine glands.



3. The release of ________ to muscle cell receptors triggers muscle contractions.
  A) ACh
  B) serotonin
  C) dopamine
  D) adrenaline



4. Depressed mood states are linked to ________ levels of serotonin and ________ levels of norepinephrine.
  A) low; low
  B) high; high
  C) low; high
  D) high; low



5. A drug molecule that increases the release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic gap is a(n)
  A) glutamate.
  B) steroid.
  C) agonist.
  D) opiate.



6. The peripheral nervous system consists of
  A) interneurons.
  B) the spinal cord.
  C) endocrine glands.
  D) sensory and motor neurons.



7. The autonomic nervous system most directly controls
  A) speech production.
  B) thinking and memory.
  C) movement of the arms and legs.
  D) bladder contractions.



8. Although Ron has no genital sensations, he is capable of an erection if his genitals are stimulated. Ron’s experience is most indicative of a(n)
  A) morphine antagonist.
  B) severed spinal cord.
  C) synaptic gap.
  D) all-or-none response.



9. The release of epinephrine and norepinephrine ________ blood pressure and ________ blood sugar levels.
  A) raises; raises
  B) lowers; lowers
  C) raises; lowers
  D) lowers; raises



10. To monitor the electrical activity in the brain that is triggered by hearing one’s own name, researchers would make use of a(n)
  A) MRI.
  B) PET scan.
  C) EEG.
  D) brain lesion.



11. Your life would be most immediately threatened if you suffered destruction of the
  A) amygdala.
  B) hippocampus.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) medulla.



12. Stimulation of the reticular formation will cause a
  A) sleeping cat to awaken.
  B) hungry cat to stop eating.
  C) violent cat to become passive.
  D) thirsty cat to drink.



13. Which neural center in the limbic system plays an important role in emotions such as fear and rage?
  A) amygdala
  B) thalamus
  C) nucleus accumbens
  D) hypothalamus



14. Research has suggested that a reward deficiency syndrome may contribute to
  A) insomnia.
  B) substance use disorders.
  C) schizophrenia.
  D) Parkinson’s disease.



15. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is most directly involved in controlling the facial muscle movements necessary for speaking?
  A) occipital
  B) frontal
  C) temporal
  D) parietal



16. The visual cortex is located in the
  A) occipital lobes.
  B) parietal lobes.
  C) temporal lobes.
  D) association areas.



17. Following massive damage to his frontal lobes, Phineas Gage was most strikingly debilitated by
  A) muscle spasms.
  B) memory loss.
  C) auditory hallucinations.
  D) irritability.



18. Brain scans indicate that well-practiced pianists have a larger-than-usual auditory cortex area that encodes piano sounds. This best illustrates the impact of
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) lateralization.
  C) brain fissures.
  D) plasticity.



19. Research with split-brain patients suggests that the ________ typically constructs the theories people offer to explain their own behaviors.
  A) corpus callosum
  B) left cerebral hemisphere
  C) somatosensory cortex
  D) right cerebral hemisphere



20. Chromosomes are composed of
  A) epigenetic molecules.
  B) genomes.
  C) neurotransmitters.
  D) deoxyribonucleic acid.



21. Two individuals are most likely to differ in personality if they are
  A) fraternal twins who were raised together.
  B) identical twins who were raised apart.
  C) fraternal twins who were raised apart.
  D) identical twins who were raised together.



22. Adopted children are especially likely to have similar ________ if raised in the same home.
  A) mutations
  B) genomes
  C) personality traits
  D) attitudes



23. Researchers studying mice have found that in utero exposure to certain chemicals can cause genetically identical twins to have different colored fur. This is best explained by the fact that genetically linked traits can be modified by
  A) serotonin molecules.
  B) epigenetic marks.
  C) natural selection.
  D) behavior genetics.



24. Evolutionary psychology most clearly suggests that human behavioral and biological similarities arise from our shared
  A) neurotransmitter levels.
  B) genome.
  C) epigenetic molecules.
  D) evocative interactions.



25. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute the human tendency to fear spiders and snakes to
  A) epigenetic marks.
  B) domestication.
  C) free-floating stress hormones.
  D) genetic predispositions.




Answer Key


1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. A
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. D



Answer Key





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