Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Scanlon – Sanders-Test Bank

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Essentials of Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Scanlon – Sanders-Test Bank

Chapter 2 (MC): Some Basic Chemistry

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol?
a. carbon – C c. nitrogen – N
b. potassium – P d. cobalt – Co

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol?
a. sodium – S c. magnesium – Mg
b. oxygen – O d. chlorine – Cl

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol?
a. hydrogen – H c. calcium – Ca
b. sulfur – S d. iron – I

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. For sodium, sulfur, zinc, and chlorine, the correct chemical symbols, in order, are:
a. S, Su, Z, Cl c. No, Su, Z, C
b. Na, S, Zn, Cl d. Na, S, Z, Cl

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. For iron, iodine, potassium, and phosphorus, the correct chemical symbols, in order, are:
a. I, Io, P, Ph c. I, Io, K, P
b. Fe, I, P, Ph d. Fe, I, K, P

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. For cobalt, copper, calcium, and carbon, the correct chemical symbols, in order, are:
a. Cb, Co, Ca, C c. Cb, Cu, Cm, C
b. Co, Cp, Ca, Cr d. Co, Cu, Ca, C

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. An ionic bond is formed when:
a. an atom of sodium loses an electron to another atom of sodium
b. an atom of sodium shares two electrons with two atoms of chlorine
c. an atom of sodium gains an electron from an atom of chlorine
d. an atom of sodium loses an electron to an atom of chlorine

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of ions?
a. An ion has either a positive or negative charge.
b. Atoms become ions by gaining or losing protons.
c. Ions with unlike charges are attracted to one another and form ionic bonds.
d. An atom that loses an electron will have a charge of +1.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An atom that has gained an electron is now called:
a. an ion that is neutral c. an ion with a charge of –1
b. an ion with a charge of +1 d. an atom with a charge of +1

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A cation has a:
a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. neutral charge
d. none of these, because the charge may vary

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An anion has a:
a. positive charge
b. negative charge
c. neutral charge
d. none of these, because the charge may vary

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A cation has a:
a. positive charge, and an example is a chloride ion
b. negative charge, and an example is a potassium ion
c. positive charge, and an example is a calcium ion
d. negative charge, and an example is an iron ion

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An anion has a:
a. positive charge, and an example is a hydrogen ion
b. negative charge, and an example is a bicarbonate ion
c. positive charge, and an example is a chloride ion
d. negative charge, and an example is a sodium ion

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of ionic bonds?
a. They form salts. c. In water, many ionic bonds weaken.
b. In the solid state they are very strong. d. They involve the sharing of electrons.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The term dissociation refers to:
a. ionic bonds
b. the breaking of bonds in a water solution
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and covalent bonds

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A synonym for dissociation is:
a. decomposition c. synthesis
b. ionization d. reformulation

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Dissociation of salts is important to:
a. free ions to take part in other reactions
b. produce energy
c. keep salt molecules stable in water
d. keep salt molecules stable as solids

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Ionization of salts such as sodium chloride takes place:
a. when the temperature rises c. in the solid state
b. when the temperature falls d. in water

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A covalent bond is formed when:
a. two or more atoms share electrons
b. two atoms form ions and are attracted to each other
c. one atom loses two electrons that are gained by another atom
d. a carbon atom loses all of its electrons to other atoms

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. A bond in which electrons are shared between atoms is:
a. ionic c. covalent
b. reciprocal d. di-electron

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. An atom of carbon has ___ electrons to share to form ___ bonds.
a. 2/ionic c. 2/covalent
b. 4/covalent d. 4/ionic

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of covalent bonds?
a. These bonds are not weakened when in water.
b. A molecule of water is formed by covalent bonds.
c. These bonds involve the sharing of electrons.
d. The atoms of most inorganic molecules are bonded by covalent bonds.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The bonds that help maintain the three-dimensional shape of proteins and nucleic acids are:
a. covalent bonds c. ionic bonds
b. hydrogen bonds d. water bonds

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The bonds that make water cohesive are:
a. disulfide bonds c. ionic bonds
b. hydrogen bonds d. water bonds

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The bonds that hold the two chains of an insulin molecule together are:
a. disulfide bonds c. ionic bonds
b. peptide bonds d. protein bonds

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Disulfide bonds may be part of:
a. some starches c. DNA and RNA
b. some proteins d. true fats

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Large molecules of glycogen are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. glucose c. amino acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol d. nucleotides

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Glucose molecules are the subunits of:
a. starch c. both A and B
b. glycogen d. both A and B, and cellulose

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Glycogen and starch are ___ that are made of ___.
a. disaccharides/sucrose c. disaccharides/glucose
b. polysaccharides/glucose d. polysaccharides/sucrose

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Glucose is a molecule that is a:
a. hexose sugar c. both A and B
b. monosaccharide d. both A and B, and inorganic

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Glucose is a molecule that is a:
a. double sugar c. pentose sugar
b. hexose sugar d. triple sugar

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The chemical formula for glucose is:
a. C12H6O12 c. C6H6O6
b. C12H6O6 d. C6H12O6

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are:
a. hexose sugars
b. monosaccharides
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and all have the same chemical formula

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Large molecules of true fats are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. fatty acids and glucose c. amino acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol d. nucleotides

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Fatty acids and glycerol are the subunits of:
a. phospholipids c. both A and B
b. true fats d. both A and B, and cholesterol

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Large molecules of protein are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. glucose c. amino acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol d. nucleotides

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of amino acids?
a. They all contain the elements C, H, O, and N.
b. They are the subunits of proteins.
c. A chain of amino acids is linked by ionic bonds.
d. There are about 20 different amino acids in human proteins.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Large molecules of DNA and RNA are made of the smaller subunits called:
a. glucose c. amino acids
b. fatty acids and glycerol d. nucleotides

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the subunits of organic molecules?
a. Glycogen is made of glucose.
b. Glycerol is found in true fats and in diglycerides.
c. DNA subunits are called deoxyprecursors.
d. The subunits of enzymes are amino acids.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of saturated fats?
a. Most are plant oils.
b. They have the maximum number of hydrogens.
c. They have single bonds between carbons.
d. They have been implicated in heart disease.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of unsaturated fats?
a. They have one or more double bonds between carbons.
b. They have the maximum number of hydrogens.
c. Most are plant oils.
d. They are made of fatty acids and glycerol.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The fluid found within lymph vessels is called:
a. lymph c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. tissue fluid

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Lymph is a fluid that is found:
a. in lymph vessels c. both A and B
b. in tissue spaces d. both A and B, and between cells

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The fluid found within veins is called:
a. lymph c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. tissue fluid

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Plasma is a fluid that is found:
a. in veins c. both A and B
b. in arteries d. both A and B, and in capillaries

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The fluid found within cells is called:
a. intercellular fluid c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. extracellular fluid

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Intracellular fluid is found:
a. within cells c. both A and B
b. between cells d. both A and B, and in tissue spaces

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The fluid found in spaces between cells is called:
a. lymph c. intracellular fluid
b. plasma d. tissue fluid

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The fluid found in spaces between cells is called:
a. tissue fluid c. both A and B
b. intercellular fluid d. both A and B, and lymph

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Intercellular fluid is found:
a. within cells c. both A and B
b. between cells d. both A and B, and around cells

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The fact that water changes temperature slowly is important for:
a. digestion of food
b. pumping of the heart
c. keeping a fairly constant body temperature
d. nerve impulse transmission

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Water can absorb a great deal of heat, and this is important for:
a. sweating to lose excess body heat c. nerve impulse transmission
b. digestion of very large meals d. production of RBCs

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The process of sweating depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. transporter
b. lubricant d. heat absorber

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The sense of taste depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. transporter
b. lubricant d. heat absorber

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The excretion of waste products in urine depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. cushion
b. lubricant d. heat absorber

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which of these is NOT an example of the importance of water as a solvent?
a. the senses of smell and taste c. transport of nutrients in the blood
b. synovial fluid in joints d. excretion of waste products in urine

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Swallowing depends upon water as a:
a. solvent c. cushion
b. lubricant d. heat absorber

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which of these is an example of the lubricant function of water?
a. the senses of smell and taste c. transport of nutrients in the blood
b. synovial fluid in joints d. excretion of waste products in urine

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The storage form for glucose in the liver is:
a. glycogen c. pentose sugars
b. true fats d. oligosaccharides

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The storage form for energy in adipose tissue is:
a. glycogen c. pentose sugars
b. true fats d. oligosaccharides

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The carbohydrates that are part of DNA and RNA are:
a. glucose c. pentose sugars
b. starch d. oligosaccharides

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The pentose sugars are part of:
a. starches c. specialized enzymes
b. DNA and RNA d. cell membranes

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The self antigens on cell membranes are:
a. starch c. glucose
b. pentose sugars d. oligosaccharides

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The oligosaccharides are attached to:
a. DNA and RNA as part of the genetic code
b. certain enzymes as part of the active site
c. structural proteins to provide stability
d. cell membranes as self antigens

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The disaccharides are sugars that:
a. will be digested and used for energy, such as sucrose
b. will become part of DNA and RNA
c. will be digested for energy, such as fructose
d. are part of specialized enzymes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a disaccharide?
a. sucrose c. maltose
b. galactose d. lactose

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Disaccharides in the diet are digested and used for:
a. energy c. proteins
b. amino acids d. cell membranes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Sucrose and lactose are:
a. monosaccharides c. oligosaccharides
b. disaccharides d. polysaccharides

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The precursor molecule for steroid hormones is:
a. cholesterol c. phospholipids
b. cellulose d. enzymes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Cholesterol is important for the:
a. synthesis of steroid hormones
b. production of vitamin D
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and as part of cell membranes

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Vitamin D may be synthesized in the body from:
a. amino acids c. cholesterol
b. phospholipids d. disaccharides

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The undigested part of food that promotes peristalsis is:
a. cholesterol c. true fats
b. cellulose d. proteins

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. For people, the function of cellulose is to promote:
a. energy production between meals c. loss of heat in hot weather
b. peristalsis d. retention of heat in cold weather

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The genetic material (genetic code) within cells is:
a. enzymes c. DNA
b. RNA d. phospholipids

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The function of DNA is to:
a. be the genetic code within cells
b. serve as the site of protein synthesis
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and form chromosomes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The function of RNA is:
a. protein synthesis c. to help synthesize DNA
b. cell respiration d. to help synthesize ATP

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. RNA is different from DNA in that:
a. RNA is a single strand of amino acids
b. RNA has the base uracil where DNA has thymine
c. both A and B
d. neither A nor B

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The catalysts of cellular reactions are:
a. phospholipids c. hexose sugars
b. nucleic acids d. enzymes

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Within the body, proteins may be:
a. enzymes c. structural components of tissues
b. hormones d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which organic molecule is NOT part of cell membranes?
a. glucose c. phospholipid
b. protein d. cholesterol

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which of the following are energy-storage molecules?
a. glucose and proteins c. proteins and glycogen
b. glycogen and true fats d. true fats and amino acids

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of organic molecules?
a. DNA is the genetic code in chromosomes.
b. Hormones may be steroids or proteins.
c. Phospholipids are part of cell membranes.
d. Oligosaccharides are energy-storage molecules.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of organic molecules?
a. RNA is important for protein synthesis.
b. Cholesterol is part of cell membranes.
c. Glucose is the most important pentose sugar.
d. All enzymes are proteins.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The raw materials, or reactants, of cell respiration are:
a. glucose and oxygen c. oxygen and carbon dioxide
b. water and glucose d. carbon dioxide and glucose

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a product of cell respiration?
a. water c. ATP
b. carbon dioxide d. oxygen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The purpose of cell respiration is to produce:
a. ATP from water c. carbon dioxide from ATP
b. ATP from glucose d. water from ATP

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The waste product of cell respiration is:
a. carbon dioxide c. ATP
b. water d. heat

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Biologically useful energy is released in cell respiration in the form of:
a. light c. ATP
b. heat d. movement

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Cell respiration enables our cells to release the potential energy found in molecules of:
a. water c. oxygen
b. glucose d. minerals

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. In cell respiration, the breakdown of glucose to form ATP must take place in the presence of:
a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen
b. water d. oxygen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. If too much carbon dioxide accumulates in cells and tissues:
a. the pH will decrease c. the pH will increase
b. cell membranes will rupture d. cell membranes will shrivel

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of cell respiration?
a. It is the link between eating and breathing.
b. The water produced must be excreted or the cell will burst.
c. One of the energy products is heat.
d. ATP is biologically useful energy.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The element that carries oxygen in red blood cells is:
a. iron c. iodine
b. calcium d. cobalt

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element that provides strength in bones and teeth is:
a. iron c. zinc
b. calcium d. iodine

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Two elements that provide strength in bones and teeth are:
a. iron and calcium c. sodium and phosphorus
b. calcium and potassium d. calcium and phosphorus

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element that is part of the hormone thyroxine is:
a. calcium c. iodine
b. cobalt d. sodium

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element iodine is an essential part of the hormone:
a. insulin c. estrogen
b. thyroxine d. growth hormone

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element that is part of vitamin B12 is:
a. sodium c. calcium
b. copper d. cobalt

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element cobalt is an essential part of vitamin:
a. C c. B6
b. D d. B12

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Two elements that are necessary for nerve impulse transmission are:
a. sodium and potassium c. calcium and phosphorus
b. iron and copper d. sulfur and cobalt

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element that is necessary for blood clotting is:
a. sulfur c. copper
b. calcium d. potassium

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The element that is part of some amino acids and forms bonds in proteins is:
a. sulfur c. copper
b. calcium d. potassium

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Two elements that are necessary for cell respiration are:
a. sodium and potassium c. iodine and sulfur
b. calcium and phosphorus d. iron and copper

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. All organic molecules contain the elements:
a. C, H, and N c. C, O, and N
b. C, H, and O d. H, O, and N

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. A large organic molecule made of the elements C, H, O, N, and P would most likely be a:
a. nucleic acid c. protein
b. polysaccharide d. true fat

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. A large organic molecule made of the elements C, H, O, N, and S would most likely be a:
a. nucleic acid c. protein
b. polysaccharide d. true fat

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the elements in the human body?
a. Iron is part of hemoglobin.
b. The hormone thyroxine contains copper.
c. Sodium is needed for nerve-impulse transmission.
d. Phosphorus is part of bones and teeth.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the elements in the human body?
a. Calcium is necessary for blood clotting.
b. Potassium is needed for nerve-impulse transmission.
c. Sulfur is part of some carbohydrates.
d. Vitamin B12 contains cobalt.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. A solution that has more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions is:
a. a base c. neutral
b. an acid d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. An acid solution has:
a. more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions
b. more hydroxyl ions than water ions
c. more hydrogen ions than water ions
d. more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. A solution that has more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions is:
a. neutral c. an acid
b. a base d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. An alkaline (basic) solution has:
a. more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions
b. more hydroxyl ions than water ions
c. more hydrogen ions than water ions
d. more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. A solution that has equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions is:
a. neutral c. an acid
b. a base d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. On the pH scale, acids are indicated by numbers:
a. above 10 c. above 7
b. below 10 d. below 7

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. On the pH scale, bases are indicated by numbers:
a. below 4 c. above 4
b. below 7 d. above 7

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. A solution with a pH of 7.5 would be:
a. slightly acidic c. slightly alkaline
b. strongly acidic d. strongly alkaline

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. A solution with a pH of 2.5 would be:
a. slightly acidic c. slightly alkaline
b. strongly acidic d. strongly alkaline

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the pH scale?
a. It ranges from 0 through 14.
b. It is a measure of the hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in a solution.
c. The more hydrogen ions present, the higher the pH.
d. A pH of 7 is considered neutral.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of pH and human body fluids?
a. Blood has a very narrow normal pH range.
b. Gastric juice may have a pH of 2.
c. The pH of urine may be acidic or alkaline and still be in the normal range.
d. The normal pH range of intestinal secretions is acidic.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The normal pH range of blood is ________, which is __________.
a. 6.75–6.95/slightly acidic c. 7.10–7.20/slightly alkaline
b. 7.35–7.45/slightly alkaline d. 6.90–7.15/neutral

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which pH would NOT be in the normal range for human blood?
a. 7.30
b. 7.39
c. 7.40
d. All of these are within the normal range.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. A blood pH of 7.36 is:
a. slightly alkaline and in the normal range
b. slightly acidic and in the normal range
c. slightly alkaline and too high for the normal range
d. slightly acidic and too low for the normal range

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. A blood pH of 7.44 is:
a. slightly alkaline and in the normal range
b. slightly acidic and in the normal range
c. slightly alkaline and too high for the normal range
d. slightly acidic and too low for the normal range

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. The purpose of a buffer system is to:
a. maintain a normal growth rate c. prevent drastic changes in pH
b. ensure proper digestion d. speed up nerve impulses

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. When the bicarbonate buffer system buffers the strong acid HCl:
a. carbonic acid is formed, which only slightly lowers pH
b. sodium chloride is formed, which raises pH
c. water is formed, which lowers pH
d. sodium chloride is formed, which lowers pH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. Salts are molecules that when in solution will:
a. have no effect on pH
b. only slightly lower pH
c. only slightly raise pH
d. all of these, depending on the particular salt

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. When a buffer system forms a weak acid from a strong acid:
a. the pH is lowered only slightly, instead of greatly
b. the pH is raised only slightly, instead of greatly
c. the pH is raised only slightly, because more hydrogen ions are produced
d. all of these are possible, depending on the particular reaction

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. If body fluids are becoming too acidic, this means that there are excess ___ ions in the fluid.
a. sodium c. hydroxyl
b. potassium d. hydrogen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. If the body fluids are becoming too alkaline, this means that there are not enough _________ ions in the fluid.
a. sodium c. hydroxyl
b. potassium d. hydrogen

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. The product of cell respiration that will cause acidosis if present in excess is:
a. water c. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide d. ATP

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 14

 

  1. All enzymes are:
a. carbohydrates c. proteins
b. lipids d. steroids

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The active site of an enzyme:
a. is the part where the substrate molecules fit
b. has a particular and specific shape
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and it changes when other reactions are needed

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the active site theory of enzyme functioning?
a. An enzyme may catalyze many different kinds of reactions.
b. It depends on the shapes of the enzyme and the substrate molecules.
c. An enzyme remains unchanged when the reaction is complete.
d. An enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. The purpose of enzyme catalysts is to:
a. slow down reactions
b. transmit electrical nerve impulses
c. speed up reactions by adding heat
d. speed up reactions without the addition of heat

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. Heat may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. human enzymes function only at 98.6°F
b. heat can break peptide bonds
c. water molecules are attracted to the enzyme, and denature it
d. heat can break hydrogen bonds and denature the enzyme

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. A heavy-metal ion may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. substrates bond to the metal ion
b. a metal ion may change the shape of the active site
c. metal ions raise the pH of cellular fluid
d. metal ions displace enzymes in intracellular fluid

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. A decrease in pH may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
a. the enzyme must help out the bicarbonate buffer system
b. the active site becomes clogged with excess water
c. the substrate fits into the active site but cannot get out
d. excess hydrogen ions may block the active site

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 15

 

  1. A synthesis reaction involves:
a. the formation of bonds c. the release of energy
b. the breaking of bonds d. the creation of smaller molecules

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. A decomposition reaction involves:
a. the creation of large molecules c. the need for energy to create bonds
b. the formation of bonds d. the breaking of bonds

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. A reaction in which the bonds of a large molecule are broken is called a:
a. synthesis reaction c. decomposition reaction
b. catalytic reaction d. debonding reaction

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. A reaction in which smaller molecules are bonded to form larger ones is called a:
a. composition reaction c. thesis reaction
b. synthesis reaction d. decomposition reaction

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. The type of reaction more likely to release energy is a:
a. decomposition reaction c. synthesis reaction
b. composition reaction d. thesis reaction

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

 

  1. With respect to the glucose molecule involved, cell respiration is a(n):
a. synthesis reaction c. thesis reaction
b. decomposition reaction d. antithesis reaction

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 16

Chapter 10 (MC): The Endocrine System

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which statement describes a negative feedback mechanism?
a. The effects of a hormone increase the stimulus for secretion of that hormone.
b. The effects of a hormone decrease the stimulus for secretion of that hormone.
c. The hormone itself is the stimulus for secretion of the hormone.
d. The hormone stimulates secretion of another hormone with the opposite function.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. When the effects of a hormone decrease the stimulus for secretion of that hormone, this sequence of events is called a:
a. positive feedback mechanism c. stimulus-response mechanism
b. negative feedback mechanism d. releasing-hormone mechanism

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. A negative feedback mechanism:
a. always involves three or more hormones
b. contains its own brake or shutoff mechanism
c. requires an external brake to slow it
d. always involves the hypothalamus

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. A positive feedback mechanism:
a. always involves three or more hormones
b. contains its own brake or shutoff mechanism
c. requires an external brake to slow it
d. always involves the hypothalamus

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Hormones exert their effects only on cells that have ______ for the hormone on the cell membrane or in the cytoplasm.
a. receptors c. DNA molecules
b. genes d. effectors

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. In the two-messenger mechanism of the action of protein hormones, the first messenger is the ___, which must bond to a ___ on the cell membrane.
a. receptor/cyclic AMP c. receptor/hormone
b. hormone/receptor d. hormone/cyclic AMP

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. In the two-messenger mechanism of the action of protein hormones, the second messenger is ___, which activates specific ___ in a cell to bring about the cell’s response to the hormone.
a. cyclic AMP/receptors c. cyclic AMP/enzymes
b. an enzyme/cyclic AMP molecules d. a receptor/enzymes

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Protein hormones are believed to exert their effects by activating certain ___ within a cell.
a. other hormones c. RNA molecules
b. enzymes d. genes

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Steroid hormones are believed to exert their effects on cells by activating certain ___ within a cell.
a. cyclic AMP molecules c. RNA molecules
b. other hormones d. genes

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which endocrine gland is NOT paired with its correct location?
a. ovaries – on either side of the uterus
b. testes – in the scrotum between the upper thighs
c. pancreas – between the duodenum and the spleen
d. adrenal glands – one below each kidney

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which endocrine gland is NOT paired with its correct location?
a. parathyroid glands – on the back of the thyroid
b. anterior pituitary gland – below the hypothalamus
c. posterior pituitary gland – below the hypothalamus
d. thyroid gland – above the larynx on the back of the trachea

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The function of ADH is to:
a. increase the reabsorption of water by the kidneys
b. increase the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys
c. decrease the reabsorption of water by the kidneys
d. decrease the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The hormone that directly increases the reabsorption of water by the kidneys is:
a. ADH c. PTH
b. aldosterone d. epinephrine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Increased secretion of ADH will have this effect on urinary output:
a. increase it c. increase then decrease it
b. decrease it d. no effect

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Decreased secretion of ADH will have this effect on urinary output:
a. increase it c. decrease then increase it
b. decrease it d. no effect

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of ADH?
a. It is released from the posterior pituitary gland.
b. It increases the reabsorption of water by the kidneys.
c. Its action increases urinary output.
d. Its action increases blood volume.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A stimulus for secretion of ADH is:
a. water loss in extreme sweating c. both A and B
b. severe hemorrhage d. both A and B, and severe diarrhea

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The hormone that causes strong contractions of the uterus for delivery of a baby is:
a. estrogen c. oxytocin
b. progesterone d. prolactin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The hormone that causes release of milk from the mammary glands is:
a. estrogen c. oxytocin
b. progesterone d. prolactin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The effect of oxytocin on the uterus is to:
a. contribute to the growth of the placenta
b. help increase circulation in the fetus
c. prevent contractions before the end of gestation
d. cause contractions for delivery

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The effect of oxytocin on the mammary glands is to:
a. increase the production of milk c. decrease the release of milk
b. decrease the production of milk d. increase the release of milk

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Oxytocin and ADH are both secreted by the:
a. ovaries c. posterior pituitary gland
b. anterior pituitary gland d. adrenal glands

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of oxytocin?
a. It is released from the posterior pituitary gland.
b. It causes contractions of the uterus.
c. It stimulates milk production in the mammary glands.
d. It is secreted during labor and when a mother is nursing an infant.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The hormone that initiates sperm production in the testes is:
a. FSH c. ACTH
b. LH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that stimulates secretion of testosterone by the testes is:
a. ACTH c. LH
b. FSH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In men, the hormone ___ initiates sperm production in the testes, and ___ stimulates secretion of testosterone.
a. testosterone/LH c. testosterone/FSH
b. LH/FSH d. FSH/LH

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In men, the function of FSH is to:
a. decrease secretion of testosterone
b. initiate sperm production in the testes
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and increase secretion of GnRH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In men, the function of LH is to:
a. increase secretion of testosterone
b. stimulate sperm production in the testes
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and increase secretion of GnRH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that initiates development of egg cells in the ovaries is:
a. LH c. ACTH
b. FSH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that causes ovulation is:
a. GH c. FSH
b. LH d. ACTH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In women, the function of FSH is to:
a. initiate development of egg cells in the ovaries
b. increase the secretion of estrogen
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and increase the secretion of GnRH

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. In women, the function of LH is to:
a. increase secretion of progesterone in the ovary
b. cause ovulation
c. both A and B
d. neither A nor B

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that stimulates secretion of thyroxine is:
a. TSH c. prolactin
b. ACTH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that stimulates secretion of cortisol is:
a. TSH c. prolactin
b. ACTH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The hormone that increases milk production is:
a. estrogen c. prolactin
b. progesterone d. oxytocin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which of these hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?
a. TSH c. ACTH
b. PTH d. GH

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which anterior pituitary hormone is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. Prolactin – increases milk production.
b. TSH – stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroxine.
c. GH – increases mitosis in growing organs.
d. ACTH – stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which anterior pituitary hormone is NOT paired with its correct function?
a. LH – stimulates the ovaries to secrete estrogen
b. FSH – stimulates the development of egg cells in the ovaries
c. LH – stimulates ovulation of a mature egg
d. FSH – initiates sperm production in the testes

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which of these hormones is NOT regulated by a hormone from the anterior pituitary gland?
a. thyroxine c. testosterone
b. cortisol d. epinephrine

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The secretion of the hormones of the anterior pituitary gland is regulated by ___, produced by the ___.
a. enzymes/posterior pituitary gland
b. releasing hormones/hypothalamus
c. enzymes/hypothalamus
d. releasing hormones/posterior pituitary gland

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which of these is a target organ of calcitonin?
a. small intestine c. bones
b. kidneys d. liver

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a target organ of PTH?
a. small intestine c. bones
b. kidneys d. liver

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The hormone that increases the blood calcium level is:
a. thyroxine c. calcitonin
b. PTH d. insulin

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The hormone that decreases the blood calcium level is:
a. thyroxine c. calcitonin
b. PTH d. insulin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The hormone ___ increases blood calcium level, and ___ decreases the blood calcium level.
a. calcitonin/ACTH c. ACTH/calcitonin
b. PTH/ACTH d. PTH/calcitonin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The function of calcitonin is to:
a. decrease the reabsorption of calcium from bones
b. increase the absorption of calcium by the small intestine
c. decrease the absorption of calcium by the small intestine
d. increase the reabsorption of calcium from bones

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a function of PTH?
a. increasing the absorption of calcium by the small intestine
b. increasing the reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys
c. increasing the reabsorption of calcium from bones
d. decreasing the reabsorption of calcium from bones

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of calcitonin and PTH?
a. PTH is produced by the parathyroid glands.
b. Calcitonin is produced by the pituitary gland.
c. Calcitonin helps keep calcium in bones.
d. PTH raises the blood calcium level.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The hormone that enables cells to take in glucose to use for energy production is:
a. insulin c. glucagon
b. cortisol d. GH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The hormone that increases the conversion of glucose to glycogen by the liver is:
a. glucagon c. GH
b. thyroxine d. insulin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The hormone that increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose by the liver is:
a. glucagon c. GH
b. thyroxine d. insulin

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The hormone that decreases the blood glucose level, for instance, after a meal, is:
a. aldosterone c. glucagon
b. insulin d. epinephrine

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The hormone that increases the blood glucose level, for instance, between meals, is:
a. aldosterone c. glucagon
b. insulin d. norepinephrine

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Insulin is produced by the ___, and ___ the blood glucose level.
a. beta cells of the pancreas/lowers c. beta cells of the pancreas/raises
b. alpha cells of the pancreas/lowers d. alpha cells of the pancreas/raises

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Glucagon is produced by the ___, and ___ the blood glucose level.
a. beta cells of the pancreas/lowers c. beta cells of the pancreas/raises
b. alpha cells of the pancreas/lowers d. alpha cells of the pancreas/raises

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the functions of insulin and glucagon?
a. Insulin enables cells to take in glucose from the blood to use for energy production.
b. Glucagon increases the conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates to be used for energy production.
c. Insulin enables cells to take in fatty acids and amino acids for synthesis reactions.
d. Glucagon decreases the use of fats for energy, since this is not important between meals.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the pancreas?
a. The endocrine portions are islets of Langerhans.
b. The beta cells secrete insulin.
c. The pancreas is also an exocrine gland.
d. The delta cells secrete glucagon.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The hormone that increases the use of fats and amino acids for energy production and spares glucose for use by the brain is:
a. insulin c. GH
b. aldosterone d. cortisol

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The hormone that has an anti-inflammatory effect is:
a. glucagon c. thyroxine
b. cortisol d. insulin

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the anti-inflammatory effect of cortisol?
a. It prevents rupture of the lysosomes within cells.
b. It blocks the effects of histamine.
c. It increases the extent of inflammation to destroy pathogens.
d. It decreases the extent of inflammation to prevent excessive tissue damage.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The hormone cortisol is produced by the:
a. adrenal cortex c. pancreas
b. adrenal medulla d. thyroid gland

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the hormone cortisol?
a. It is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
b. It has an inflammatory effect.
c. It spares glucose for use by the brain.
d. It increases the use of fats and amino acids for energy production.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. The hormone that increases the absorption of sodium ions by the kidneys is:
a. aldosterone c. calcitonin
b. ADH d. PTH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormone that increases the excretion of potassium ions by the kidneys is:
a. ADH c. cortisol
b. PTH d. aldosterone

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a result of the function of aldosterone?
a. Blood volume is maintained at a normal level.
b. Blood calcium is kept within normal limits.
c. Blood pressure is maintained at a normal level.
d. Blood pH is kept within normal limits.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The function of aldosterone is to increase the reabsorption of ___ ions and excretion of ___ ions by the kidneys.
a. potassium/sodium c. sodium/potassium
b. calcium/potassium d. calcium/sodium

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The hormone aldosterone is secreted by the ___, and its target organs are the ___.
a. adrenal cortex/blood vessels c. adrenal medulla/kidneys
b. adrenal medulla/blood vessels d. adrenal cortex/kidneys

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. When blood pressure decreases, aldosterone is secreted as a result of the ___ mechanism:
a. sodium-potassium c. renin-potassium
b. sodium-angiotensin d. renin-angiotensin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. The adrenal medulla is the ___ part of the adrenal gland, and produces the hormones ___.
a. inner/epinephrine and norepinephrine c. inner/cortisol and aldosterone
b. outer/cortisol and aldosterone d. outer/epinephrine and norepinephrine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The hormone whose major function is to stimulate vasoconstriction throughout the body is:
a. thyroxine c. aldosterone
b. norepinephrine d. epinephrine

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The major function of the hormone norepinephrine is to:
a. cause the liver to convert glycogen to glucose
b. decrease the heart rate
c. cause vasoconstriction throughout the body
d. increase peristalsis in the intestines

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Epinephrine is secreted in ___ situations, and mimics the effects of the ___ nervous system.
a. non-stressful/sympathetic c. non-stressful/parasympathetic
b. stressful/parasympathetic d. stressful/sympathetic

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are mimicked by ___, which is secreted by the ___.
a. epinephrine/adrenal medulla c. norepinephrine/adrenal cortex
b. cortisol/adrenal medulla d. epinephrine/adrenal cortex

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are very much the same as those of the hormone:
a. epinephrine c. thyroxine
b. insulin d. cortisol

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which of these is NOT an effect of epinephrine?
a. faster heart rate
b. slower peristalsis
c. dilation of the bronchioles
d. conversion of glucose to glycogen in the liver

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. The hormones directly necessary for development of egg cells in the ovary are:
a. LH and estrogen c. FSH and progesterone
b. FSH and estrogen d. LH and progesterone

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormones directly necessary for the development of sperm in the testes are:
a. LH and testosterone c. testosterone and inhibin
b. LH and FSH d. FSH and testosterone

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The hormone inhibin is secreted by the ___, and its function is to ___.
a. testes/decrease the secretion of FSH
b. anterior pituitary/decrease the secretion of testosterone
c. testes/decrease the secretion of LH
d. anterior pituitary/decrease the secretion of LH

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the male sex hormones?
a. FSH initiates sperm production in the testes.
b. Inhibin increases the secretion of FSH.
c. Testosterone is necessary for maturation of sperm.
d. LH increases the secretion of testosterone.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the female sex hormones?
a. FSH stimulates secretion of estrogen by the ovarian follicle.
b. LH causes ovulation.
c. Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum.
d. FSH promotes growth of the corpus luteum.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The name for hormone-like chemicals that are produced from cell membranes and have localized effects is:
a. tissue factors c. releasing factors
b. prostaglandins d. glandular factors

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of prostaglandins?
a. They usually act locally at their site of production.
b. Some are necessary for blood clotting.
c. They are made from the cholesterol in cell nuclei.
d. Some are involved in reproduction.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. The hormones that are necessary for the growth of the endometrium in preparation for a possible pregnancy are:
a. estrogen and progesterone c. FSH and estrogen
b. FSH and LH d. LH and progesterone

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The hormone estrogen is produced by the:
a. egg cell in the ovary c. interstitial cells in the ovary
b. follicle in the ovary d. myometrium of the uterus

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The hormone progesterone is produced by the:
a. interstitial cells in the ovary c. corpus luteum in the ovary
b. follicle in the ovary d. myometrium of the uterus

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The hormone that increases the use of all three food types for energy is:
a. thyroxine c. GH
b. insulin d. cortisol

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The mineral ___ is necessary for the production of thyroxine and T3 by the ___.
a. iron/thyroid gland c. iodine/adrenal gland
b. iodine/thyroid gland d. iron/adrenal gland

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Iodine is necessary for the production of:
a. PTH by the parathyroid glands c. TSH by the anterior pituitary gland
b. calcitonin by the thyroid gland d. thyroxine by the thyroid gland

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The general stimulus for the secretion of thyroxine is ___, and the direct stimulus is ___.
a. increased metabolic rate/TSH c. increased metabolic rate/TRH
b. decreased metabolic rate/TRH d. decreased metabolic rate/TSH

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The functions of thyroxine and T3 include all of these except:
a. they increase the rate of protein synthesis within cells
b. they increase the use of all three food types for energy production
c. they increase the rate of mitosis in growing organs
d. they are necessary for both physical and mental growth

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The hormone that increases the rate of mitosis in growing tissues and organs is:
a. thyroxine c. glucagon
b. insulin d. GH

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The function of growth hormone is to:
a. increase the rate of mitosis in growing tissues
b. increase the rate of protein synthesis
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and enable cells to take in glucose

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Two hormones that increase the rate of protein synthesis in cells are:
a. thyroxine and GH c. insulin and glucagon
b. GH and insulin d. glucagon and thyroxine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Thyroxine and GH both increase the rate of the process of:
a. protein synthesis c. glucose production
b. mitosis in growing tissues d. glycogen production

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Which hormone is NOT paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. insulin – hyperglycemia c. PTH – hypocalcemia
b. glucagon – hyperglycemia d. calcitonin – hypercalcemia

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which hormone is NOT paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. growth hormone – GHRH c. estrogen – LH
b. thyroxine – TSH d. cortisol – ACTH

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which hormone is NOT paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. epinephrine – sympathetic impulses c. testosterone – LH
b. aldosterone – low blood sodium level d. ADH – increased water in the body

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which hormone is paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. insulin – hyperglycemia c. PTH – hypercalcemia
b. glucagon – hyperglycemia d. calcitonin – hypocalcemia

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which hormone is paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. growth hormone – GSH c. estrogen – LH
b. thyroxine – TRH d. cortisol – ACTH

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which hormone is paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
a. epinephrine – sympathetic impulses c. testosterone – FSH
b. aldosterone – high blood sodium level d. ADH – increased water in the body

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which endocrine disorder is NOT paired with its proper cause?
a. giantism – hypersecretion of growth hormone in childhood
b. Graves’ disease – hypersecretion of thyroxine
c. Cushing’s syndrome – hypersecretion of cortisol
d. acromegaly – hypersecretion of aldosterone

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which endocrine disorder is NOT paired with its proper cause?
a. diabetes mellitus – hyposecretion of insulin
b. cretinism – hyposecretion of GH in childhood
c. myxedema – hyposecretion of thyroxine in adulthood
d. Addison’s disease – hyposecretion of cortisol and aldosterone

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which endocrine disorder is NOT paired with its proper description?
a. Graves’ disease – rapid heart rate, excessive heat production and weight loss
b. cretinism – severe mental and physical disability
c. diabetes mellitus – cells use excess glucose; the blood glucose level falls
d. acromegaly – excessive growth of the bones of the hands, feet, and face

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

 

  1. Which endocrine disorder is NOT paired with its proper description?
a. Cushing’s syndrome – bones and skin become fragile
b. myxedema – muscular weakness, slow heart rate, weight gain
c. giantism – excessive growth of long bones
d. Addison’s disease – high blood pressure and hyperglycemia

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 13

Chapter 22 (MC): An Introduction to Microbiology and Human Disease

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Our resident colon flora is important to us because it produces:
a. vitamins c. carbohydrates
b. minerals d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The part of the small intestine with the largest resident flora is the:
a. duodenum c. ileum
b. jejunum d. cecum

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The bacterial population of the urinary bladder is:
a. virtually nonexistent
b. medium sized
c. large
d. very large, but urination keeps removing the bacteria

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. In women, the vagina has:
a. a small bacterial flora
b. a medium-sized bacterial flora of no significance
c. a medium-sized bacterial flora that creates an alkaline pH
d. a large bacterial flora that creates an acidic pH

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. With respect to the skin, the largest resident flora would be found in the:
a. cervical area c. frontal area
b. axillary area d. deltoid area

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. With respect to the skin, the largest resident flora would be found in the:
a. femoral area c. iliac area
b. patellar area d. plantar area

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The sweeping of ciliated epithelium normally prevents pathogens from reaching the:
a. stomach c. skin
b. liver d. lungs

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Hydrochloric acid destroys most pathogens that get to the:
a. intestines c. lungs
b. stomach d. mouth

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. The flaking of the stratum corneum continuously removes pathogens from the:
a. mouth c. skin
b. lining of the trachea d. stomach

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. A microorganism that is usually harmless but may become a pathogen in specific circumstances is called:
a. a facultative anaerobe c. antigenic
b. an opportunist d. self-limiting

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the normal flora of a person?
a. The urinary bladder is virtually free of bacteria.
b. The skin has a small bacterial and fungal population, especially where the skin is dry.
c. The blood should be free of microorganisms.
d. The mouth has fungi and protozoa as well as bacteria.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of the normal flora of a person?
a. The bacteria in the vagina create an alkaline pH that inhibits the growth of pathogens.
b. The colon has bacteria that produce vitamins, especially vitamin K.
c. The cilia of the nasal cavities sweep inhaled microorganisms to the pharynx.
d. The part of the small intestine with the smallest bacterial population is the duodenum.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 1

 

  1. Bacteria that require oxygen in order to reproduce are called:
a. deoxygenated c. aerobic
b. oxygenated d. anaerobic

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Bacteria that cannot reproduce in the presence of oxygen are called:
a. deoxygenated c. facultatively anaerobic
b. aerobic d. anaerobic

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Bacteria that can reproduce in the presence or absence of oxygen are called:
a. easy to please c. facultatively anaerobic
b. multi-aerobic d. pseudo-anaerobic

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An inapparent infection is one in which the person has no:
a. cough c. fever
b. rash d. symptoms at all

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A subclinical infection is one in which the person:
a. has no symptoms
b. does not have to see a doctor because the symptoms are mild
c. can be sure of recovery by drinking lots of fluids to lower the fever
d. should see a doctor if the fever is over 100°F

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An infection in which the person has no symptoms is called:
a. subclinical c. inapparent
b. asymptomatic d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An infection in which the person has symptoms is called:
a. symptomatic c. clinical
b. apparent d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A zoonosis is a disease that:
a. people give to their pets
b. people get from visiting zoos
c. people acquire from animals, the natural hosts
d. people acquire, but without symptoms

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which of these is a zoonosis?
a. measles c. mumps
b. encephalitis d. whooping cough

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which of these is NOT a zoonosis?
a. chickenpox c. plague
b. rabies d. Lyme disease

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Rod-shaped bacteria are called ___, and spiral bacteria are called ___.
a. bacilli/cocci c. spirilla/bacilli
b. spirilla/cocci d. bacilli/spirilla

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Spherical bacteria that grow in chains are called:
a. staphylococci c. diplococci
b. streptococci d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Rod-shaped bacteria that grow in chains are called:
a. staphylobacilli c. streptobacilli
b. diplobacilli d. palisade bacilli

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A secondary infection is possible if a person:
a. is fatigued c. has an infection that lowers resistance
b. is malnourished d. does not take vitamin pills

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. When more than the usual number of cases of a disease occurs in a population, the disease is said to be:
a. endemic c. pandemic
b. epidemic d. epidemiologic

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A disease that is normally present in a population, with an expected number of cases, is said to be:
a. endemic c. pandemic
b. epidemic d. epidemiologic

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. An endemic disease is one that:
a. has gotten out of control
b. is spreading very rapidly
c. must be contained by quarantine measures
d. is expected in a population

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Septicemia is the presence of bacteria in the:
a. blood c. cerebrospinal fluid
b. lungs d. intestines

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. The presence of bacteria in the blood is called:
a. septicemia c. both A and B
b. bacteremia d. both A and B, and a chronic infection

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of disease terminology?
a. An acute infection often has a rapid onset.
b. A self-limiting infection lasts a predictable period of time.
c. A chronic infection is often long lasting.
d. An endogenous infection is one that is acquired from food.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. A systemic infection is one that:
a. has spread from its initial site c. may be spread by the lymph
b. may be spread by the blood d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 2

 

  1. Flagella enable bacteria to:
a. survive without oxygen c. divide and reproduce
b. form spores d. move

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Bacteria capable of self-locomotion have:
a. cilia c. false feet, like amoebas
b. flagella d. microvilli

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The part of a bacterial cell that makes it gram positive or gram negative is the:
a. cell wall c. spore
b. cell membrane d. capsule

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The cell walls of bacteria:
a. prevent rupture of the bacterial cell
b. are often either gram positive or gram negative
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and are the site of ATP production

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. The part of a bacterial cell that enables it to resist phagocytosis by WBCs is the:
a. cell wall c. spore
b. capsule d. cell membrane

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Bacterial cells that have capsules are:
a. able to resist phagocytosis by the host’s WBCs
b. able to move by sliding
c. likely to be stuck in the host’s respiratory mucus
d. able to resist boiling

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Bacteria that might normally be killed by heat may survive if they are able to form:
a. capsules c. spores
b. proteins d. toxins

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Most bacteria that are able to form spores are found in:
a. freshwater c. the soil
b. saltwater d. the bodies of warm-blooded hosts

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. A bacterial spore is a form that is:
a. resistant to heat c. both A and B
b. dormant, that is, inactive d. both A and B, and resistant to cold

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Bacterial chemicals that are harmful to host cells are called:
a. antibodies c. toxins
b. antigens d. minerals

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. If part of a bacterial cell is antigenic, that means it stimulates the formation of:
a. antibodies c. toxins
b. other antigens that are related d. other bacteria

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Most bacteria stimulate antibody production because they:
a. are antigenic, recognized as foreign
b. have receptor sites for antibodies
c. inhibit other aspects of the immune system
d. cannot be phagocytized

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Bacteria usually reproduce by a process called:
a. binary fusion c. spore formation
b. meiosis d. binary fission

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Binary fission is the process by which:
a. viruses reproduce c. viruses cause disease
b. bacteria get into host cells d. bacteria reproduce

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. Which statement is NOT true of bacterial cell structure?
a. The cell membrane is either gram positive or gram negative.
b. Bacteria with flagella are able to move.
c. Spores enable bacteria to survive drying.
d. Capsules inhibit phagocytosis by host WBCs.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 3

 

  1. A nosocomial infection is one that is acquired:
a. at home c. by way of the nose
b. at work d. in a hospital

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. An infection that is acquired in a hospital or other healthcare facility is called:
a. institutional c. nosocomial
b. neonasal d. exoendogenous

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. An antibiotic that is effective against just a few kinds of bacteria is called:
a. broad spectrum c. single spectrum
b. narrow spectrum d. wide spectrum

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. An antibiotic that is effective against many kinds of bacteria is called:
a. broad spectrum c. multispectrum
b. narrow spectrum d. polyspectrum

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. A hospital patient whose urinary bladder infection is caused by the person’s own colon flora is said to have an infection that is:
a. endogenous and localized c. endogenous and systemic
b. exogenous and systemic d. exogenous and localized

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which of these is LEAST important for preventing nosocomial infections?
a. proper disposal of a patient’s urine and feces
b. healthcare personnel washing their hands thoroughly between patient visits
c. proper disposal of syringes
d. closing the door of the patient’s room

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. Which of these is MOST important for preventing nosocomial infections?
a. proper disposal of a patient’s urine and feces
b. healthcare personnel washing their hands thoroughly between patient visits
c. proper disposal of syringes
d. closing the door of the patient’ s room

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 4

 

  1. The way a pathogen gets into a host is called the:
a. access site c. portal of entry
b. transfer site d. portal of exit

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Mucous membrane tracts may be colonized by bacteria because they:
a. have openings to the environment
b. have openings that are portals of entry
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and they have no defenses

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Intestinal pathogens are usually spread by the:
a. oral–oral route c. oral–fecal route
b. fecal–oral route d. fecal–fecal route

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The time between the entry of a pathogen and the beginning of symptoms is called the:
a. dormant stage c. incubation period
b. noncommunicable stage d. outcubation period

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The incubation period of diseases:
a. varies with each disease
b. usually has a normal range for each disease
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and is always measured in weeks

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. Potential sources of infectious disease include:
a. animals c. objects people have touched
b. food and water d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. A potential source of infection for some diseases is:
a. an animal reservoir
b. a human carrier
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and a person with a subclinical infection

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. A portal of entry may be:
a. permanent, such as the mouth
b. temporary, such as a break in the skin
c. both A and B
d. both A and B, and constant, such as the nose

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 5

 

  1. The way a pathogen leaves a host is called the:
a. portal of exit c. portal of embarkation
b. transfer site d. deaccess site

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. Respiratory pathogens are most often spread by:
a. saliva on eating utensils c. cutaneous contact
b. droplets from nasal secretions d. vectors

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. A portal of exit may be:
a. the nose c. skin punctured by a mosquito
b. the mouth d. all of these

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. A person who recovers from a disease but continues to shed the pathogen is called:
a. an alternate host c. a carrier
b. a zoonotic host d. a transmitter

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 6

 

  1. A disease that may be spread directly or indirectly from host to host is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. A disease such as tetanus, which is acquired by soil contamination of a wound, is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. none of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. A disease such as salmonella, which is acquired from contaminated food, is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. gustatory

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. A disease such as cholera, which is spread by contaminated water, is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. aquatic

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. A disease such as malaria, which is spread by a vector, is called:
a. communicable c. noncommunicable
b. contagious d. insectivorous

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. Which statement about the spread of disease is true?
a. A contagious disease is always communicable.
b. A noncommunicable disease is contagious.
c. A communicable disease is always contagious.
d. A noncommunicable disease does not affect people.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 7

 

  1. A chemical that is used to destroy bacteria on the skin is called:
a. a cleansing agent c. a disinfectant
b. an antiseptic d. a sterilizing agent

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Pasteurization of milk involves:
a. moderate heat c. freezing
b. boiling d. low heat

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Drinking water is often ___ to make it safe to drink.
a. pasteurized c. autoclaved
b. sterilized d. chlorinated

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. A bacteriostatic chemical is one that:
a. kills all bacteria c. may not be used on the skin
b. kills viruses d. slows the growth of bacteria

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 8

 

  1. Which of these is NOT ever part of a virus?
a. DNA c. a protein shell
b. RNA d. a cell membrane

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The pathogens that are made of DNA or RNA and a protein shell are the:
a. viruses c. fungi
b. bacteria d. protozoa

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites, which means:
a. they must be in the blood to reproduce
b. they reproduce by binary fission
c. they must be inside living cells to reproduce
d. they cannot reproduce inside living cells

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Viruses cause disease by:
a. reproducing within cells c. secreting toxins in cells
b. reproducing in blood plasma d. secreting toxins in the blood

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. The pathogens that always cause disease by reproducing within cells are the:
a. viruses c. fungi
b. bacteria d. protozoa

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 9

 

  1. Most fungi live on dead organic matter, and are therefore called:
a. parasites c. normal flora
b. saprophytes d. deadbeats

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. A saprophyte is a microorganism that:
a. lives on living organic matter c. may also be called an autophyte
b. lives only in people as hosts d. lives on dead organic matter

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. Small numbers of yeasts may be part of the resident flora of all of these sites except the:
a. mouth c. urinary bladder
b. vagina d. skin

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. An important trigger for some mucosal yeast infections is often the use of:
a. harsh soaps c. mouthwashes
b. vitamin pills d. antibiotics

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 10

 

  1. A superficial mycosis affects the:
a. skin c. both of these
b. mucous membranes d. neither of these

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. Ringworm is a ___ infection of the ___.
a. fungus/skin c. worm/skin
b. worm/intestine d. fungus/intestine

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. A systemic mycosis might involve each of these except the:
a. endocardium c. lungs
b. oral mucosa d. meninges

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 11

 

  1. The term for a parasite that lives on the body surface is:
a. ectoparasite c. cutaneous parasite
b. endoparasite d. external parasite

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The term for a parasite that lives within the body is:
a. ectoparasite c. systemic parasite
b. endoparasite d. internal parasite

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of malaria is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of Lyme disease is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of plague is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of yellow fever is a:
a. mosquito c. tick
b. flea d. louse

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of West Nile virus is a:
a. mosquito c. flea
b. tick d. louse

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The vector of epidemic typhus is a:
a. mosquito c. flea
b. tick d. louse

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Mosquitoes are the vectors of:
a. malaria c. plague
b. Lyme disease d. epidemic typhus

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Mosquitoes are the vectors of:
a. malaria c. both A and B
b. yellow fever d. both A and B, and encephalitis

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Ticks are the vectors of:
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. both A and B
b. Lyme disease d. both A and B, and encephalitis

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. Fleas are the vectors of:
a. plague c. both A and B
b. yellow fever d. both A and B, and Lyme disease

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The human body louse is the vector of:
a. scabies c. both A and B
b. epidemic typhus d. both A and B, and rabbit fever

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

 

  1. The tsetse fly is the vector of:
a. African sleeping sickness c. both A and B
b. African malaria d. both A and B, and African encephalitis

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1                    REF:   Rev Ques 12

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