Essential Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Charlotte W. Pratt – Kathleen Cornely – test bank

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Essential Biochemistry 3rd Edition by Charlotte W. Pratt – Kathleen Cornely – test bank

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 2

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) In a water molecule, hydrogens are partially _____;  oxygens are partially _____.

 

  1. A) negative; negative
  2. B) negative; positive
  3. C) positive; positive
  4. D) positive; negative
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

2) At any given moment, a single water molecule participates in _____ strong hydrogen bond(s).  The role played by the water molecule is best characterized as _____.

 

  1. A) two ; one H-bond donor, one H-bond acceptor
  2. B) two ; two H-bond donor
  3. C) two ; two H-bond acceptor
  4. D) one; H-bond donor
  5. E) one; H-bond acceptor

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

3) Which of the following is a physical property of water that results from hydrogen bonding?

 

  1. A) high boiling point relative to molecular weight
  2. B) a solid state that is less dense than the liquid state
  3. C) high surface tension
  4. D) ability to solubilize polar molecules
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

 

4) In a hydrogen bond between a water molecule and another biomolecule, _____.

 

  1. A) a hydrogen ion on the water molecule forms an ionic bond with a hydride ion on the other molecule
  2. B) the hydrogen bond will typically form between a hydrogen atom and either a nitrogen, sulfur, or oxygen atom
  3. C) the partial charge on a hydrogen of the water interacts with the partial charge on a hydrogen of the other molecule
  4. D) a hydrogen on the water molecule forms a covalent bond to an oxygen or nitrogen atom on the other molecule
  5. E) the hydrogen atom is located between an oxygen atom of the water and a carbon atom of the other molecule

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

5) The strongest non-covalent interactions are _____.

 

  1. A) van der Waals interactions
  2. B) London dispersion forces
  3. C) hydrogen bonds
  4. D) dipole-dipole interactions
  5. E) ionic interactions

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

6) Hydrogen bonds are approximately _____% of the bond strength of covalent C-C or C-H bonds.

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 20
  4. D) 50
  5. E) 95

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

7) Due to the formation of hydrogen bonds, _____ is highly soluble in water.

 

  1. A) carbon dioxide
  2. B) sodium chloride
  3. C) methanol
  4. D) octane
  5. E) cholesterol

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

8) Which of the following explains the interactions that occur between the atoms of water molecules and the ions that form when sodium chloride dissolves in water?

 

  1. A) hydrogens interact with the sodium ion, oxygens interact with the chloride ion
  2. B) hydrogens interact with the chloride ion, oxygens interact with the sodium ion
  3. C) hydrogens interact with the sodium ion and the chloride ion
  4. D) oxygens interact with the sodium ion and the chloride ion
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

9) Which of the following functional groups has two hydrogen bond donors and one hydrogen bond acceptor?

 

  1. A) alcohol
  2. B) ester
  3. C) thiol
  4. D) amine
  5. E) amide

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

10) Hydrogen bonds within liquid water are _________.

 

  1. A) attractions between the protons of the oxygen nuclei
  2. B) ion-induced dipole interactions
  3. C) dipole-dipole interactions
  4. D) attractions between two oxygen atoms
  5. E) attractions between the H+ and OH ions of the liquid

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-1

Learning Objective:  Explain water’s properties in terms of its ability to form hydrogen bonds

 

 

11) When a non-polar substance is added to water, how do the molecules of water behave?

 

  1. A) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in a decrease of entropy
  2. B) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in an increase of entropy
  3. C) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in a decrease of enthalpy
  4. D) the regular hydrogen bond pattern is disrupted resulting in an increase of enthalpy
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

12) What term is used to describe the exclusion of nonpolar substances from an aqueous solution?

 

  1. A) nonpolar effect
  2. B) lipid effect
  3. C) hydrophobic effect
  4. D) oil droplet effect
  5. E) amphiphilic effect

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

13) Which of the following is an example of the hydrophobic effect?

 

  1. A) the lipid membrane of cells and organelles
  2. B) protein folding that places hydrophobic amino acids in the interior of the protein
  3. C) the separation of salad dressing
  4. D) oil sheens seen on the ocean following an oil spill
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

14) Which of the following explains the attractive forces between hydrophobic molecules in an aqueous solution?

 

  1. A) in an aqueous environment, London dispersion forces between hydrophobic molecules become stronger
  2. B) in an aqueous environment, London dispersion forces between hydrophobic molecules and water become stronger
  3. C) since nonpolar molecules do not form hydrogen bonds with hydrogen bonds with water, they can form hydrogen bonds with other nonpolar molecules
  4. D) there is no increase in attractive forces between nonpolar molecules in an aqueous environment
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

15) Considering the energetics of transferring nonpolar molecules from water to a nonpolar solvent, the factor TDS is generally _____, causing DG to be _____.

 

  1. A) positive; negative
  2. B) negative; negative
  3. C) positive; positive
  4. D) positive; positive
  5. E) negligible; either positive or negative

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

16) A molecule that has both a polar and nonpolar region is called _____________.

 

  1. A) micelleic
  2. B) amphiphilic
  3. C) endergonic
  4. D) a membrane
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

17) Which of the following is an example of an amphipathic molecule?

 

  1. A) adenine, a base found in nucleic acids
  2. B) glucose, a monosaccharide
  3. C) serine, an amino acid
  4. D) palmitic acid, a fatty acid
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

18) In aqueous solution, globules of up to several thousand amphiphilic molecules arranged with the hydrophilic groups on the surface and the hydrophobic groups buried in the center are called _____.

 

  1. A) micelles
  2. B) vacuoles
  3. C) liposomes
  4. D) bilayers
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

19) Fatty acid anions most commonly assemble into _____ in aqueous solution.

 

  1. A) lipid bilayers
  2. B) solvent-filled vesicles
  3. C) micelles
  4. D) liposomes
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

20) Which of the following molecules would be prevented from readily crossing a lipid bilayer?

 

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) sodium ions
  3. C) potassium ions
  4. D) water
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

21) Which of the following is true regarding hydrophobic interactions between nonpolar molecules or groups?

 

  1. A) they result from the tendency to maximize water’s contact with nonpolar molecules
  2. B) they require the presence of surrounding water molecules
  3. C) they are the result of strong attractions between nonpolar regions
  4. D) they are the result of strong repulsion between water and nonpolar regions
  5. E) they depend on strong permanent dipoles in the nonpolar molecules

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-2

Learning Objective:  Relate the solubility of substances to the hydrophobic effect

 

 

22) In an aqueous solution, if the [OH] is 3.0´10-5 M, what is the [H+]?

 

  1. A) 7.0´10-9
  2. B) 7.0´10-2
  3. C) 3.3´10-3
  4. D) 3.3´10-10
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

23) What is the [H+] of an aqueous solution with a pH of 6.2?

 

  1. A) 6.2´10-6
  2. B) 1.6´10-8
  3. C) 6.3´10-7
  4. D) 3. 3´10-5
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

24) What would be the resulting pH if one drop (0.05 ml) of 1.0 M HCl was added to one liter of pure water (assume pH 7.0)?

 

  1. A) 2.7
  2. B) 4.3
  3. C) 5.0
  4. D) 0 (there would be no significant change)
  5. E) 9.7

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

25) What would be the resulting pH if one ml of 1.0 M NaOH was added to one liter of pure water (assume pH 7.0)?

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 7.3
  4. D) 11
  5. E) 13

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

26) Which of the following would be the strongest acid?

 

  1. A) formic acid, pK=3.75
  2. B) succinic acid, a diprotic acid with pK=4.21 and 5.64
  3. C) acetic acid, pK=4.76
  4. D) ammonium ion, pK=9.25
  5. E) cannot be determined from the given information

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

27) What is the pH of a solution that contains three parts of acetic acid and one part sodium acetate?  The pK for acetic acid is 4.76.

 

  1. A) 5.24
  2. B) 5.06
  3. C) 4.46
  4. D) 4.28
  5. E) cannot be determined from the given information

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

28) If the pK values for phosphoric acid are 2.15, 6.82 and 12.38, at what pH would one observe equal amounts of H2PO4 and HPO42-?

 

  1. A) 2.15
  2. B) 4.49
  3. C) 6.82
  4. D) 9.60
  5. E) 12.38

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

29) If 1.0 mL of 1.0 M acetic acid (pK = 4.76, K = 1.74 x 10–5) was added to one liter of pure water, what is the resulting pH?

 

  1. A) 1.0
  2. B) 1.3
  3. C) 3.0
  4. D) 3.9
  5. E) 10.1

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

30)    If the pK values for phosphoric acid are 2.15, 6.82 and 12.38, _____ would predominate at pH 5 while _____ would predominate at pH 10.

 

  1. A) H3PO4; H2PO4
  2. B) H3PO4; HPO42-
  3. C) H3PO4; PO43-
  4. D) H2PO4; PO43-
  5. E) H2PO4; HPO42-

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

31) What is the conjugate acid of H2PO4?

 

  1. A) HPO42-
  2. B) H2PO4
  3. C) H3PO4
  4. D) PO43-
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-3

Learning Objective:  Calculate the effect of acids and bases on a solution’s pH

 

 

32) Considering a 0.1 M formic acid buffer, what is the concentration of formic acid present in a solution of pH 4.25 if the pK of formic acid is 3.75?

 

  1. A) 0.024 M
  2. B) 0.033 M
  3. C) 0.067 M
  4. D) 0.076 M
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

33) Which of the following shows the buffer that is found in the blood stream?

 

  1. A) H3PO4 H2PO42- + H+
  2. B) H2PO4 HPO42- + H+
  3. C) HPO42- PO43- + H+
  4. D) H2CO3 HCO3+ H+
  5. E) HCO3CO32-  + H+

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

34) Which of the following shows the intracellular buffer?

 

  1. A) H3PO4 H2PO42- + H+
  2. B) H2PO4 HPO42- + H+
  3. C) HPO42- PO43- + H+
  4. D) H2CO3 HCO3+ H+
  5. E) HCO3CO32-  + H+

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

35) If a phosphate buffer (pK=6.82) was formulated such that its pH was 7.3, it would be best suited to buffer against _____.  If instead, it was formulated such that its pH was 6.3, it would be best suited to buffer against _____.

 

  1. A) acid; base
  2. B) acid; acid
  3. C) base; acid
  4. D) base; base
  5. E) a buffer with a pH that far from the pK would not be an effective buffer

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

36) Which of the following could be used to formulate 100 mls of a 0.10 M acetate buffer (pK=4.76) at pH 5 if you start with 64 mls of 0.10 M sodium acetate?

 

  1. A) 3.6 mls of 1 M HCl
  2. B) 3.6 mls of 1 M NaOH
  3. C) 34 mls of 0.10 M HCl
  4. D) 34 mls of 0.10 M NaOH
  5. E) 34 mls of 0.10 M acetic acid

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

37) Which of the following could be used to formulate 100 mls of a 0.10 M phosphate buffer (pK=6.82) at pH 7.2?

 

  1. A) 2.9 mmoles of Na2HPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of NaHPO4
  2. B) 10 mmoles of Na2HPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of NaOH
  3. C) 10 mmoles of NaHPO4 and 7.1 mmoles of HCl
  4. D) 10 mmoles of H3PO4 and 17.1 mmoles of NaOH
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

38) Metabolic acidosis often causes increased respiratory rates.  What portion of the bloodstream buffer is lost through increased respiration?

 

  1. A) H+
  2. B) HCO3
  3. C) H2CO3
  4. D) CO2
  5. E) H2O

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

39) What is the resulting pH if 10 millimoles of HCl is added to 1 liter of a 0.1 M phosphate buffer at pH 7.00 (pK=6.82)?

 

  1. A) 6.82
  2. B) 6.98
  3. C) 7.01
  4. D) 7.19
  5. E) cannot be determined

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

40) During vigorous exercise, hydrogen ions are produced within cells as a result of increased metabolism.  What component of the intracellular buffer would increase as a result of the increased H+ production?

 

  1. A) H3PO4
  2. B) H2PO4
  3. C) HPO42-
  4. D) PO43-
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  2-4

Learning Objective:  Describe how buffer solutions resist changes in pH

 

 

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 10

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) Hormones bind to _____ with _____ affinity.

 

  1. A) ligands; low
  2. B) agonists; high
  3. C) antagonists; low
  4. D) G proteins; low
  5. E) receptors; high

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-1

Learning Objective:  Summarize the properties of a receptor

 

 

2) When a receptor loses its ability to transmit a signal following continuous exposure to a ligand, the receptor is said to be _____.

 

  1. A) saturated
  2. B) desensitized
  3. C) transduced
  4. D) specific
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-1

Learning Objective:  Summarize the properties of a receptor

 

 

3) Which of the following can be a hormone?

 

  1. A) amino acid derivatives
  2. B) steroids
  3. C) polypeptides
  4. D) eicosanoids
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-1

Learning Objective:  Summarize the properties of a receptor

 

 

4) A sample of cells with a total receptor concentration of 50 mM was incubated with a ligand concentration of 100 mM.  Following the incubation period, the concentration of unbound receptors was determined to be 15 mM.  What is the Kd for the receptor-ligand interaction?

 

  1. A) 28 mM
  2. B) 43 mM
  3. C) 143 mM
  4. D) 217 mM
  5. E) 333 mM

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  10-1

Learning Objective:  Summarize the properties of a receptor

 

 

5) A small molecule produced inside a cell in response to a hormone binding to its receptor is called a(n) _____.

 

  1. A) inside messenger
  2. B) agonist
  3. C) antagonist
  4. D) second messenger
  5. E) G protein

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-1

Learning Objective:  Summarize the properties of a receptor

 

 

6) Which of the following is a ligand of the b2-adrenergic receptor?

 

  1. A) tyrosine
  2. B) serotonin
  3. C) norepinephrine
  4. D) caffeine
  5. E) adenosine

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

7) Activation of a G protein in response to hormone binding requires binding of _____ to the _____ subunit.

 

  1. A) GDP; b
  2. B) GTP; a
  3. C) GDP; g
  4. D) GTP; b
  5. E) GDP; a

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

8) What enzyme is activated by association with an active G protein?

 

  1. A) adenylate cyclase
  2. B) cAMP phosphodiesterase
  3. C) protein kinase A
  4. D) protein kinase G
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

9) The second messenger _____ is produced by the enzyme _____.

 

  1. A) nitric oxide; arginase
  2. B) cGMP; GTP cyclase
  3. C) cAMP; adenylate cyclase
  4. D) triacylglycerol; phospholipase C
  5. E) inositol diphosphate; phospholipase C

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

10) cAMP binds to the _____ subunits of protein kinase A allowing the tetramer to dissociate into _____.

 

  1. A) active subunits; an active dimer and two inactive monomers
  2. B) active subunits; two active monomers and an inactive dimer
  3. C) regulatory subunits; an active dimer and two inactive monomers
  4. D) regulatory subunits; two active monomers and an inactive dimer
  5. E) regulatory subunits; two active monomers and two inactive monomers

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

11) What two amino acid residues are the targets of protein kinase A?

 

  1. A) Asn and Gln
  2. B) Thr and Ser
  3. C) Tyr and Thr
  4. D) Ser and Tyr
  5. E) Cys and Ser

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

12) Desensitization of a G protein-coupled receptor is caused by phosphorylation of the receptor by a specific kinase.  What protein recognizes the phosphorylated receptor?

 

  1. A) phospholipase C
  2. B) the G protein g subunit
  3. C) cAMP phosphodiesterase
  4. D) adenosine receptor
  5. E) arrestin

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

13) The second messenger _____ opens Ca2+ channels in the endoplasmic reticulum.

 

  1. A) inositol trisphosphate
  2. B) diacylglycerol
  3. C) cAMP
  4. D) cGMP
  5. E) nitric oxide

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-2

Learning Objective:  Describe the GPCR signaling pathways from receptors to second messengers

 

 

14) Ligand binding to a receptor tyrosine kinase causes _____ of the receptor which then _____ the next protein in the signaling pathway.

 

  1. A) methylation; hydrolyzes
  2. B) hydrolysis; inhibits
  3. C) phosphorylation; phosphorylates
  4. D) acylation; activates
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-1 and 10-3

Learning Objective:  Describe how tyrosine kinase pathways are activated

 

 

15) The _____ receptor is a receptor tyrosine kinase.

 

  1. A) a1– adrenergic
  2. B) b2-adrenergic
  3. C) calmodulin
  4. D) insulin
  5. E) cortisol

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-3

Learning Objective:  Describe how tyrosine kinase pathways are activated

 

 

16) Activity of the Ras protein is analogous to the _____ in terms of its ability to bind GTP.

 

  1. A) G protein a subunit
  2. B) G protein b subunit
  3. C) G protein g subunit
  4. D) calmodulin
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-3

Learning Objective:  Describe how tyrosine kinase pathways are activated

 

 

17) Where are the ultimate targets of the Ras-dependent signaling cascade located within the cell?

 

  1. A) cytoplasm
  2. B) nucleus
  3. C) endoplasmic reticulum
  4. D) mitochondria
  5. E) cell membrane

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-3

Learning Objective:  Describe how tyrosine kinase pathways are activated

 

 

18) The ability for some receptor tyrosine kinases to ultimately activate phospholipase C is an example of _____.

 

  1. A) antagonism
  2. B) desensitization
  3. C) autophosphorylation
  4. D) poor receptor-ligand specificity
  5. E) cross-talk

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-2 and 10-3

Learning Objective:  Describe how tyrosine kinase pathways are activated

 

 

19) Which of the following hormones is able to cross biological membranes and thus the receptor is found inside the cell, not on the cell surface?

 

  1. A) insulin
  2. B) glucagon
  3. C) cortisol
  4. D) epinephrine
  5. E) platelet derived growth factor

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-4

Learning Objective:  List some types of lipid hormones and their physiological effects

 

 

20) The complex formed between a lipid hormone and its receptor binds to _____ which are specific DNA sequences.

 

  1. A) transcription factors
  2. B) nuclear localization sequences
  3. C) DNA-binding domains
  4. D) hormone response elements
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-4

Learning Objective:  List some types of lipid hormones and their physiological effects

 

 

21) The eicosanoids are derived from the membrane fatty acid _____.

 

  1. A) stearic acid
  2. B) linoleic acid
  3. C) a-linolenic acid
  4. D) arachidonic acid
  5. E) docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-4

Learning Objective:  List some types of lipid hormones and their physiological effects

 

 

22) Which of the following is an inhibitor of cyclooxygenase?

 

  1. A) acetaminophen
  2. B) aspirin
  3. C) eicosanoic acid
  4. D) thromboxane
  5. E) progesterone

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  10-4

Learning Objective:  List some types of lipid hormones and their physiological effects

 

 

23) Which of the following can be regulated by eicosanoids?

 

  1. A) blood pressure
  2. B) blood coagulation
  3. C) inflammation
  4. D) fever
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  10-4

Learning Objective:  List some types of lipid hormones and their physiological effects

 

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 22

 

 

Question type: Multiple Choice

 

 

1) The genetic code is said to be _____ because several codons may correspond to the same amino acid.

 

  1. A) deteriorate
  2. B) despicable
  3. C) degenerate
  4. D) decadent
  5. E) depraved

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-intro

 

 

2) What is the similarity between the amino acids that have only one codon each?

 

  1. A) they are aromatic amino acids
  2. B) they are the sulfur containing amino acids
  3. C) they are neutral polar amino acids
  4. D) they occur very infrequently in proteins
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-intro

 

 

3) The codon is found _____ while the anticodon is found _____.

 

  1. A) on the proteins of the ribosome; in the mRNA
  2. B) in the mRNA; on the RNA of the ribosome
  3. C) on the tRNA; on the RNA of the ribosome
  4. D) on the tRNA; in the mRNA
  5. E) in the mRNA; on the tRNA

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-intro

 

 

4) Which of the following describes the general three-dimensional structure of a tRNA?

 

  1. A) a cloverleaf shape with the anticodon and acceptor stem on “leaves” that are opposite each other
  2. B) an L shape with the anticodon at one end of the L and the acceptor stem at the other
  3. C) a large loop with the anticodon and 3¢ end in very close proximity to each other
  4. D) an elongated cylinder shape with the anticodon and acceptor stem at opposite ends
  5. E) since all tRNAs have very different three-dimensional structure, it is difficult describe a general shape

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

5) Which of the following is the only tRNA loop that is exclusively single stranded RNA?

 

  1. A) acceptor step
  2. B) D loop
  3. C) TyC loop
  4. D) anticodon loop
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

6) During the charging of a tRNA, what intermediate is formed?

 

  1. A) aminoacyl-adenylate
  2. B) aminoacyl-tRNA
  3. C) aminoacyl-ADP
  4. D) tRNA-adenylate
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

7) Which of the following explains why the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase for isoleucine rarely incorporates valine despite the similar structure of these two amino acids?

 

  1. A) valine does not fit into the binding site for isoleucine
  2. B) only leucine and isoleucine can fit in the active site of the enzyme
  3. C) the enzyme contains a proofreading site that only allows isoleucine
  4. D) the enzyme contains a proofreading site that only excludes isoleucine
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

8) Which of the following is required for the correct charging of a tRNA?

 

  1. A) tRNA, mRNA, amino acid, GTP and aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
  2. B) tRNA, amino acid, ATP and aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
  3. C) tRNA, amino acid, ATP and transpeptidase
  4. D) tRNA, amino acid, GTP and transpeptidase
  5. E) tRNA, mRNA, amino acid, ATP and transpeptidase

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

9) What type of bond connects the tRNA with its amino acid (AA)?

 

  1. A) ester between AA carboxylate and tRNA 3¢ hydroxyl
  2. B) mixed anhydride of AA carboxylate and tRNA 3¢ phosphate
  3. C) phosphoramide of AA amine and tRNA 3¢ phosphate
  4. D) mixed anhydride of AA carboxylate and tRNA 5¢ phosphate
  5. E) phosphoramide of AA amine and tRNA 5¢ phosphate

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

10) Where is the anticodon in the following structure?

 

 

 

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

11) Given the following anticodon, which mRNA codon would pair with it?

 

5¢-IGC-3¢

 

  1. A) 5¢-UCA-3¢
  2. B) 5¢-UCG-3¢
  3. C) 5¢-ACU-3¢
  4. D) 5¢-GUA-3¢
  5. E) 5¢-GCU-3¢

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-1

Learning Objective:  Describe tRNA structure and aminoacylation

 

 

12) Approximately what fraction of the mass of a ribosome is due to protein?

 

  1. A) 1/2
  2. B) 1/3
  3. C) 1/4
  4. D) 1/5
  5. E) 1/6

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-2

Learning Objective:  Recognize the major features of the ribosome

 

 

13) What are the predominant interactions between the 30S and 50S subunits that allow the formation of the 70S ribosome?

 

  1. A) 30S protein with 50S rRNA
  2. B) 30S rRNA with 50S protein
  3. C) protein-protein interactions from both subunits
  4. D) rRNA-rRNA interactions from both subunits
  5. E) interactions of 50S rRNA with tRNA D loop and interactions of 30S rRNA with anticodon loop are the only interactions holding the 70S ribosome together

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-2

Learning Objective:  Recognize the major features of the ribosome

 

 

14) Why does the mRNA adopt a sharp bend as it moves through the ribosome?

 

  1. A) so that the mRNA can enter the 30S subunit and exit the 50S subunit
  2. B) in order to maximize base pairing with the 23S rRNA
  3. C) so the tRNAs in both the A and P site can interact with their appropriate codons
  4. D) to prevent dissociation of the 30S and 50S subunits
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-2

Learning Objective:  Recognize the major features of the ribosome

 

 

15) Which of the following tRNA binding sites is correctly defined?

 

  1. A) A site: accepts incoming aminoacyl-tRNA
  2. B) E site: entrance site for initial tRNA binding
  3. C) P site: site occupied by the tRNA that accepts the growing peptide chain
  4. D) T site: site that is briefly occupied while the tRNA is passed from the A site to P site
  5. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-2

Learning Objective:  Recognize the major features of the ribosome

 

 

16) Which amino acid is the first incorporated into a prokaryotic protein?

 

  1. A) N-formylthreonine
  2. B) N-formylmethionine
  3. C) N-formylaspartate
  4. D) N-formylglutamine
  5. E) N-formylcysteine

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

17) What sequence is located about 10 bases upstream of the initiation codon?

 

  1. A) Watson-Crick sequence
  2. B) Meselson-Stahl sequence
  3. C) Hershey-Chase sequence
  4. D) Avery-MacLeod sequence
  5. E) Shine-Dalgarno sequence

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

18) What two elements of translation are paired by a Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

 

  1. A) initial tRNA with the initiation codon
  2. B) initial tRNA with the ribosomal A site
  3. C) mRNA with 23S rRNA of the ribosome
  4. D) mRNA with 16S rRNA of the ribosome
  5. E) mRNA with initial tRNA

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

19) In E. coli translation, _____ aids with binding of the fMet-tRNA to the 30S subunit while _____ blocks the A site.

 

  1. A) IF-1; IF-2
  2. B) IF-1; IF-3
  3. C) IF-2; IF-1
  4. D) IF-2; IF-3
  5. E) IF-3; IF-1

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

20) Which of the following initiation steps results in GTP hydrolysis?

 

  1. A) binding of mRNA to the 30S subunit
  2. B) binding of the 50S subunit to the 30S subunit
  3. C) binding of the fMet-tRNA to the ribosome
  4. D) binding of IF-2 to the 30S subunit
  5. E) binding of IF-1 to the A site

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

21) How is the initiation codon found in eukaryotic translation?

 

  1. A) a sequence similar to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is located
  2. B) the 5¢ cap binds just beyond the P site of the ribosome
  3. C) the fMet-tRNA is able to locate the initiation codon before binding to the ribosome
  4. D) when the mRNA circularizes, the poly(A) tail enables location of the initiation codon
  5. E) the first AUG codon is found when the 40S subunit scans the mRNA from the 5¢ end

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

22) Which of the following best describes the preparation of fMet-tRNA for translation in prokaryotes?

 

  1. A) Met is first added to a tRNA specific for the start codon that differs from that designed to carry Met, then formylated
  2. B) Met is first formylated, then added to a tRNA specific for the start codon and differs from the tRNA designed to carry Met
  3. C) Met is first added to a “regular” tRNAMet, then formylated; the fact that it has the formyl group allows use in the initiation codon
  4. D) Met is first formylated, then added to a “regular” tRNAMet; the fact that it has the formyl group allows use in the initiation codon
  5. E) fMet isn’t used in prokaryotes, only in eukaryotes

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

23) Which of the following is true regarding the interaction of EF-Tu with aminoacyl-tRNAs?

 

  1. A) the higher the occurrence of an amino acid in a protein, the stronger the interaction
  2. B) EF-Tu binds charged and uncharged tRNAs with the same affinity
  3. C) free aminoacyl-tRNAs can only bind to the ribosome in vitro
  4. D) binding occurs with about equal affinity for all aminoacyl-tRNAs
  5. E) the interaction always involves the anticodon loop

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

24) The interaction used to insure correct codon-anticodon recognition involves RNA interactions from _____ that specifically check interactions at _____.

 

  1. A) mRNA and tRNA; first and second codon positions
  2. B) mRNA and tRNA; second and third codon positions
  3. C) mRNA, tRNA and rRNA; first and second codon positions
  4. D) mRNA, tRNA and rRNA; second and third codon positions
  5. E) mRNA, tRNA and rRNA; all three codon positions

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

25) Hydrolysis of GTP by EF-Tu is thermodynamically required for _____.

 

  1. A) proofreading
  2. B) transpeptidation
  3. C) translocation
  4. D) aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the ribosomal A site
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

26) Besides the proofreading function of EF-Tu, what other mechanism is used to insure the proper tRNA is in the A site?

 

  1. A) interaction between the D loop and the 50S subunit
  2. B) interaction between the TyC loop and the 30S subunit
  3. C) interaction of the aminoacyl group with certain proteins in the A site
  4. D) interaction of the codon with the 50S subunit
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

27) Polypeptide synthesis proceeds from the _____ to the _____.

 

  1. A) entrance site; exit site
  2. B) 50S subunit; 30S subunit
  3. C) C-terminus; N-terminus
  4. D) N-terminus; C-terminus
  5. E) peptidyl site; aminoacyl site

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

28) Which of the following provides the energy for the peptidyl transferase reaction?

 

  1. A) GTP ® GDP + Pi
  2. B) GTP ® GMP + PPi
  3. C) ATP ® ADP + Pi
  4. D) ATP ® AMP + PPi
  5. E) since an ester is being converted to an amide, no external energy input is required

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

29) Which of the following is responsible for the catalytic activity of peptidyl transferase?

 

  1. A) protein component of 50S subunit
  2. B) rRNA component of 50S subunit
  3. C) protein component of 30S subunit
  4. D) rRNA component of 30S subunit
  5. E) both protein and rRNA of the 50S subunit

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

30) What type of catalysis is seen by the nucleotides in the active site of peptidyl transferase?

 

  1. A) acid-base catalysis
  2. B) nucleophilic catalysis
  3. C) electrophilic catalysis
  4. D) proximity and orientation effects
  5. E) covalent catalysis

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

31) EF-G is required for _____ as it binds to the ribosome in a manner similar to _____.

 

  1. A) translocation; the EF-Tu-tRNA complex
  2. B) transpeptidation; the EF-Tu-GDP complex
  3. C) transferase; an uncharged tRNA
  4. D) transduction; an aminoacyl-tRNA
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Hard

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

32) Which of the following antibiotics mimics an aminoacyl-tRNA?

 

  1. A) chloramphenicol
  2. B) erythromycin
  3. C) penicillin
  4. D) puromycin
  5. E) streptomycin

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

33) What recognizes stop codons?

 

  1. A) a termination tRNA that does not carry an amino acid on its acceptor stem
  2. B) release factors
  3. C) ribosome recycling factors
  4. D) fMet-tRNA
  5. E) nothing recognizes stop codons, that is why translation ceases

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-3

Learning Objective:  Summarize the events of translation initiation, elongation, and termination

 

 

34) Which of the following aids in protein folding by completely sequestering a polypeptide from its environment?

 

  1. A) ubiquitin
  2. B) trigger factor
  3. C) chaperonin
  4. D) heat shock protein
  5. E) signal recognition particle

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

35) Chaperones such as trigger factor generally bind to what regions of a polypeptide?

 

  1. A) hydrophobic regions
  2. B) acidic regions
  3. C) basic regions
  4. D) both acidic and basic regions
  5. E) neutral polar regions

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

36) Signal recognition particle is a _____ whose function is to _____.

 

  1. A) DNA-protein complex; transport proteins into the eukaryotic nucleus
  2. B) ribonucleoprotein; direct proteins to the membrane or endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C) chaperone; aid in protein folding
  4. D) glycosylase; catalyze posttranslational modification
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

37) In eukaryotic cells, when a protein is to be translocated to the endoplasmic reticulum, what must occur for complete translation to occur?

 

  1. A) the N-terminus binds SRP which then docks with a receptor on the ER
  2. B) the N-terminus binds SRP which is then partially cleaved by a signal peptidase
  3. C) the ribosome must be translocated into the ER
  4. D) the ribosome must be bound to the ER before translation begins
  5. E) a chaperone protein embedded in the ER membrane binds the N-terminus

 

Answer:  A

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

38) Chaperonins such as the GroEL/ES system function _____.

 

  1. A) only when heat shock proteins are activated
  2. B) in a non-aqueous environment
  3. C) only at low pH
  4. D) only when bound to the ER membrane
  5. E) in an ATP-dependent manner

 

Answer:  E

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

39) Which of the following commonly occurs at asparagine residues of extracellular proteins?

 

  1. A) hydrolysis of the amide to form Asp
  2. B) phosphorylation
  3. C) glycosylation
  4. D) peptide cleavage
  5. E) none of the above

 

Answer:  C

 

Difficulty:  Easy

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

40) Which of the following occurs during the post-translational processing of insulin?

 

  1. A) glycosylation
  2. B) phosphorylation
  3. C) acetylation of lysine residues
  4. D) formation of disulfide bonds
  5. E) amidation of the C-terminal amino acid

 

Answer:  D

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

41) Attachment of _____ to a Lys residue of a protein targets it for transport into the nucleus.

 

  1. A) ubiquitin
  2. B) SUMO
  3. C) SRP
  4. D) DnaK
  5. E) trigger factor

 

Answer:  B

 

Difficulty:  Medium

Section Reference:  22-4

Learning Objective:  List the events that occur during post-translational processing

 

 

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