Contemporary Clinical Immunology and Serology by Rittenhouse Olson – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS

 

Contemporary Clinical Immunology and Serology by Rittenhouse Olson – Test Bank

 

Sample  Questions

 

 

Chapter 2   Antibody

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

 

1. The two different cells needed to produce a monoclonal antibody are
 
a. a myeloma cell that survives in the media used after fusion and a spleen cell from an immunized animal
b. a myeloma cell from an immunized animal and a spleen cell that survives in the media used after fusion
c. a myeloma cell that does not survive in the media used after fusion and a spleen cell from an immunized animal
d. a HAT myeloma cell and a spleen cell from an immunized animal

 

2. Immunoglobulin diversity is produced in three stages. Which stage(s) is(are) accomplished after interaction with antigen?
 
a. random recombinational events of DNA gene segments during B cell maturation
b. clonal deletion of self-reactive B cells
c. somatic mutation and affinity maturation
d. A and B
e. B and C

 

3. In which peak in the figure is the albumin?

 

 
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

 

4. Given that the heavy chain has 100 V regions, 5 D regions, and 20 J regions; that the heavy chain has 200 V regions and 5 J regions; and that IgG has 4 subclasses, how many different specificities can be formed with the kappa light chain and the heavy chain given?
 
a. 107
b. 106
c. 4 X 107
d. 4 X 108

 

5. If a particular IgG molecule and IgM molecule have the same affinity, which would have a higher avidity?
 
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. Both would have the same avidity
d. More data are needed to know the avidity

 

6. At pH 8.6, most serum proteins
 
a. have a negative charge that causes them to move toward the anode
b. have a positive charge that causes them to move toward the anode
c. have a negative charge that causes them to move toward the cathode
d. have a positive charge that causes them to move toward the cathode

 

7. The area in which somatic mutation occurs and increased affinity of antibody develops is the
 
a. bone marrow
b. lymph node
c. thymus
d. none of the above

 

8. In the original experiment which determined the structure of immunoglobulin, it was broken into heavy and light chains using
 
a. papain
b. pepsin
c. urea and mercaptoethanol
d. none of the above

 

9. IgG, IgM, IgA, and IgE
 
a. can bind the same antigen
b. have the same Fc region
c. have different Fc regions
d. can bind the same antigen and have the same Fc region
e. can bind the same antigen and have different Fc regions

 

10. Plasma cells that make IgE are located
 
a. near where mast cells are located
b. along the respiratory tract, the skin, and the alimentary tract
c. primarily in the spleen
d. near where mast cells are located and along the respiratory tract, the skin, and the alimentary tract
e. near where mast cells are located and primarily in the spleen

 

11. To get antibody diversity to the level that is needed,
 
a. recombination events occur
b. slight changes in the junctional region during recombination can occur
c. somatic mutation can occur
d. recombination events occur and somatic mutation can occur
e. all of the above

 

12. Protein A is a protein
 
a. on the surface of Staphylococcus aureus
b. which binds immunoglobulin
c. both of the above
d. none of the above

 

13. One of the immunoglobulin molecules found as a dimer in secretions is
 
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

 

14. Two immunoglobulin classes that have a J chain are
 
a. IgA and IgM
b. IgM and IgG
c. IgG and IgD
d. IgD and IgE
e. IgE and IgA

 

15. The antibody that is protective in serum, is made after IgM, and does not cause allergy is
 
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

 

16. The antibody molecule that has 10 binding sites but because of steric hinderance often binds only five antigen molecules is
 
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

 

17. A part of the immunoglobulin molecule that is between two globular regions, is rich in prolines, and is flexible is called
 
a. the amino terminal end
b. the carboxyterminal end
c. the idiotype
d. the hinge region

 

18. Treating IgG with pepsin causes production of
 
a. the hinge region
b. 2 Fab and an Fc
c. (Fab’)2 +Fc fragments
d. heavy and light chains
e. epitopes

 

19. Denaturing and breaking disulfide bonds gives
 
a. the hinge regions
b. 2 Fab and an Fc
c. (Fab’)2 +Fc fragments
d. heavy and light chains

 

20. The paratope that is seen as an antigen is called an
 
a. allotrope
b. isotype
c. idiotype
d. allotype

 

21. In serum protein electrophoresis, the protein that moves most quickly toward the anode is
 
a. albumin
b. alpha 1
c. alpha 2
d. gamma globulins

 

22. A spleen cell and a myeloma cell are used to produce a monoclonal antibody. How do they help produce a monoclonal antibody?
 
a. The myeloma cell produces factors that help the spleen cell live longer.
b. The myeloma cell and the spleen cell are fused to become one cell, a hybridoma.
c. Two myeloma cells fuse with one spleen cell to become a hybridoma.
d. Because the myeloma cell is defective, it can’t make immunoglobulin, but it takes up just the genetic material from making immunoglobulin from the spleen cell and becomes a hybridoma.

 

23. Immunoglobulin diversity and T cell receptor diversity both involve random recombinational events to create diversity
 
a. After antigen exposure, B and T cells also have somatic mutational events to improve affinity.
b. After antigen exposure, B cells have somatic mutational events to improve affinity, but T cells do not.
c. Before antigen exposure, B cells have somatic mutational events to improve affinity, but T cells do not.
d. Before antigen exposure, B and T cells have somatic mutational events to improve affinity.

 

24. Given that there are 200 V regions, 5 D regions, and 20 J regions for the heavy chain; 200 V regions for the kappa light chain and 5 J regions; and 4 subclasses of IgG, how many different specificities can be formed with the kappa light chain and the heavy chain given?
 
a. 2 X 107
b. 2 X10 6
c. 8 X 107
d. 8 X 108

 

25. Compared to a secondary response, a primary response is
 
a. faster and higher in amount of IgG
b. slower and lower in amount of IgG
c. slower but higher in amount of IgG
d. faster, more specific but lower in amount of IgG

 

26. Secretory IgA   
 
a. is made by one cell
b. is made by two cells
c. is made by three cells
d. none of the above

 

27. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by cells that are hybrids of 
 
a. pleen cells and skin tumor cells
b. neutrophils and myeloma cells
c. spleen cells and myeloma cells
d. macroglobulinemia cells and myeloma cells

 

 

Matching Questions

 

28.  
  a. binds to mast cells IgA
  b. first antibody produced IgM
  c. highest in serum concentration IgG
  d. highest in secretions IgD
  e. a maturational marker on B cells IgE

 

29.  
  a. After treating antibody with urea and mercaptoethanol you get this or these the hinge region
  b. After treating an antibody with papain you get this or these 2 Fab and an Fc
  c. An antigen seen in the binding region of an immunoglobulin molecule heavy and light chains
  d. Found in between the CH1 and CH2 regions of the heavy chain idiotype

 

Answer Key

 

 

1. c. a myeloma cell that does not survive in the media used after fusion and a spleen cell from an immunized animal

 

2. e. B and C

 

3. e. E

 

4. a. 107

 

5. b. IgM

 

6. a. have a negative charge that causes them to move toward the anode

 

7. b. lymph node

 

8. c. urea and mercaptoethanol

 

9. e. can bind the same antigen and have different Fc regions

 

10. d. near where mast cells are located and along the respiratory tract, the skin, and the alimentary tract

 

11. e. all of the above

 

12. c. both of the above

 

13. a. IgA

 

14. a. IgA and IgM

 

15. c. IgG

 

16. b. IgM

 

17. d. the hinge region

 

18. c. (Fab’)2 +Fc fragments

 

19. d. heavy and light chains

 

20. c. idiotype

 

21. a. albumin

 

22. b. The myeloma cell and the spleen cell are fused to become one cell, a hybridoma.

 

23. b. After antigen exposure, B cells have somatic mutational events to improve affinity, but T cells do not.

 

24. a. 2 X 107

 

25. b. slower and lower in amount of IgG

 

26. b. is made by two cells

 

27. c. spleen cells and myeloma cells

 

28. a. IgE/b. IgB/c. IgC/d. IgA/e. IgD

 

29. a. heavy and light chains/b. 2 Fab and an Fc/c. idiotype/d. the hinge region

Chapter 4 Cellular Immunity

Multiple-Choice Questions

 

 

1. To measure T-cell response to a particular antigen,
 
a. the antigen is added to a purified population of T cells, and tritiated thymidine is added to measure T-cell proliferation
b. the antigen is added to T cells and antigen-presenting cells, and tritiated thymidine is added to measure T-cell proliferation
c. the antigen is added to T cells and antigen-presenting cells, and Chromium 51 is added to measure T-cell proliferation
d. mitogen and the antigen is added to mononuclear cells, and tritiated thymidine is added to measure T-cell proliferation

 

2. Inflammatory cytokines include the following
 
a. IL-2, GM-CSF
b. IL-4, IL-10
c. IL-1, IL-6, TNF
d. IL-15, IL-7, IL-3

 

3. When a T cell produces IL-2 and upregulates itself and a nearby B cell The resultant response is
 
a. a paracrine and autocrine response that can cause T and B cell proliferation and antibody production.
b. a paracrine and an exocrine response that can cause autoimmunity.
c. a paracrine and endocrine response that can cause the production of GM-CSF by the B cell.
d. an autocrine and endocrine response that can cause T- and B-cell proliferation and antibody formation.

 

4. The term redundancy of cytokines means that
 
a. one cytokine can have many effects
b. one cytokine can act synergistically with another
c. one cytokine produced by one cell can effect another cell
d. more than one cytokine can have the same function

 

5. What cytokine do antibodies use clinically to decrease autoimmunity?
 
a. GM-CSF
b. IL-4
c. TNF
d. IL-3

 

6. If I want to downregulate the immune response, which of the following cytokines has that as its primary effect?
 
a. IL-2
b. IL-4
c. IL-10
d. GM-CSF

 

7. I want to measure T cell killing of a tumor cell, so I
 
a. add tritiated thymidine to measure T-cell proliferation
b. add antigen to T cells and antigen-presenting cells and tritiated thymidine to measure T-cell proliferation
c. incubate the tumor cells with Chromium 51 and add T cells to measure released Chromium 51
D incubate the tumor cells with Chromium 51, add antigen-presenting cells and T cells to measure released Chromium 51

 

8. When a cell releases a chemokine that brings cells to the site from a long distance, this is
 
a. an autocrine response
b. a paracrine response
c. an endocrine response
d. an autocrine and an endocrine response

 

9. Two cytokines work 10-fold better used together than when either one is used separately, this is
 
a. a redundant effect
b. an antagonistic effect
c. a synergistic effect
d. an antagonistic and a synergistic effect

 

10. Negative selection in the thymus occurs
 
a. when the T cells recognize the CD4 molecule
b. when the T cells maturing in the thymus recognize self-antigens
c. when the T cells bind to class I molecules
d. when the T cells bind to class II molecules

 

11. Which of these causes proliferation of certain hematopoietic cells as its primary activity?
 
a. IL-2
b. IL-10
c. GM-CSF
d. none of the above

 

12. Which cytokine(s) increase the class I molecule expression on various cell types?
 
a. interferon gamma
b. tumor necrosis factor
c. IL-6
d. IL-2
e. A and B

 

13. Regulatory T cells Answer are usually
 
a. CD4+
b. CD8+
c. CD4+ and CD 8+
d. CD4– and CD8–

 

14. X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency disorder is due to a defect in
 
a. the synthesis of IL-2
b. the synthesis of IL-1
c. a defect in the IL-2 receptor
d. a defect in a receptor subunit that is shared by many cytokines
e. C and D

 

15. The cells that steer the immune response toward a cell-mediated response are
 
a. B cells
b. dendritic cells
c. TH1 cells
d. TH2 cells
e. C and D

 

16. The cells that steer toward an antibody response through the production of IL4, IL5 among others are
 
a. B cells
b. dendritic cells
c. TH1 cells
d. TH2 cells
e. C and D

 

17. Which of these is named because it interferes with the production of viruses?
 
a. interferon alpha
b. interferon beta
c. interferon gamma
d. A and C
e. A, B, and C

 

18. Which of these promotes IgE production?
 
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. A and D

 

19. Positive selection occurs when
 
a. cells become positive for either CD4 or CD8 by recognizing either the MHC class I or class II molecule
b. cells that recognize self-antigens are allowed to live
c. cells that recognize self-antigens undergo apoptosis
d. none of the above

 

20. Negative selection occurs when
 
a. cells become positive for either CD4 or CD8 when they recognize either the MHC class I or class II molecule
b. cells become negative for both CD4 or CD8 when they recognize either the MHC class I or class II molecule
c. cells that recognize self-antigens are allowed to live
d. cells that recognize self-antigens undergo apoptosis

 

21. Thymocytes start as
 
a. double negative, become CD4 positive, then may become double negative again, become CD8 positive, and then can become double positive
b. double negative, become CD8 positive, then may become double negative again, become CD4 positive, and then can become double positive
c. double negative, become double positive, and then become either CD4 positive or CD8 positive
d. none of the above

 

22. Immunological tolerance
 
a. is a state of unresponsiveness specific for a particular antigen
b. occurs when a group of proteins belonging to the adhesins family turns off the response
c. is caused by T cells that express both CD4 and CD8 molecules
d. is caused by T cells that express neither the CD4 nor the CD8 molecule

 

23. MHC restriction is
 
a. a large group of different proteins sharing structural similarities that are involved in a variety of different functions
b. the ability of a host to react with a particular antigen only when components of that antigen, after processing, are presented to T cells in combination with that individual’s MHC
c. a process in the development of thymocytes in which self-reacting thymocytes are deleted from the host’s T-cell repertoire
d. the name of a set of alleles at different loci from a particular chromosome transmitted together

 

24. Which of the following cytokines are used clinically?
 
a. interferons, IL-2, GM-CSF
b. IL-1, IL-6, TNF alpha
c. TNF-alpha only
d. interferons only

 

25. Activated CD 8 + T cells
 
a. most often cause downregulation of T helper response
b. help B cells make antibody
c. attach to a target cell and kill it with perforins
d. all of the above

 

Answer Key

 

 

1. b. the antigen is added to T cells and antigen-presenting cells, and tritiated thymidine is added to measure T-cell proliferation

 

2. c. IL-1, IL-6, TNF

 

3. a. a paracrine and autocrine response that can cause T and B cell proliferation and antibody production.

 

4. d. more than one cytokine can have the same function

 

5. c. TNF

 

6. c. IL-10

 

7. c. incubate the tumor cells with Chromium 51 and add T cells to measure released Chromium 51
D incubate the tumor cells with Chromium 51, add antigen-presenting cells and T cells to measure released Chromium 51

 

8. c. an endocrine response

 

9. c. a synergistic effect

 

10. b. when the T cells maturing in the thymus recognize self-antigens

 

11. c. GM-CSF

 

12. e. A and B

 

13. a. CD4+

 

14. e. C and D

 

15. c. TH1 cells

 

16. d. TH2 cells

 

17. e. A, B, and C

 

18. d. IL-4

 

19. a. cells become positive for either CD4 or CD8 by recognizing either the MHC class I or class II molecule

 

20. d. cells that recognize self-antigens undergo apoptosis

 

21. c. double negative, become double positive, and then become either CD4 positive or CD8 positive

 

22. a. is a state of unresponsiveness specific for a particular antigen

 

23. b. the ability of a host to react with a particular antigen only when components of that antigen, after processing, are presented to T cells in combination with that individual’s MHC

 

24. a. interferons, IL-2, GM-CSF

 

25. c. attach to a target cell and kill it with perforins

 

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