Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition Plus Mastering Biology 2nd Ed By Jane B. Reece – Test Bank

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Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition Plus Mastering Biology 2nd Ed By Jane B. Reece – Test Bank

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 2   The Chemical Context of Life

 

1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?

  1. A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
  2. B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
  3. C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
  4. D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
  5. E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) calcium
  3. C) iodine
  4. D) sodium
  5. E) phosphorus

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Which of the following statements is false?

  1. A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter.
  2. B) Some trace elements are very abundant on Earth.
  3. C) Virtually all organisms require the same elements in the same quantities.
  4. D) Iron is an example of an element needed by all organisms.
  5. E) Other than some trace elements, animals are mostly made up of the same elements as plants, in similar proportions.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

4) What factors are most important in determining which elements are most common in living matter?

  1. A) the relative abundances of the elements in Earth’s crust and atmosphere
  2. B) the emergent properties of the simple compounds made from these elements
  3. C) the reactivity of the elements with water
  4. D) the chemical stability of the elements
  5. E) both the relative abundances of the elements and the emergent properties of the compounds made from these elements

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

5) Why is each element unique and different from other elements in chemical properties?

  1. A) Each element has a unique atomic mass.
  2. B) Each element has a unique atomic weight.
  3. C) Each element has a unique number of protons in its nucleus.
  4. D) Each element has a unique number of neutrons in its nucleus.
  5. E) Each element has different radioactive properties.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

  1. A) the chemical properties of the element
  2. B) the number of protons in the element
  3. C) the number of neutrons in the element
  4. D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
  5. E) both the number of protons and the chemical properties of the element

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

7) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same?

  1. A) They have the same number of protons.
  2. B) They have the same number of neutrons.
  3. C) They have the same number of electrons.
  4. D) They have the same number of electrons in their valence shell.
  5. E) They have the same number of electron shells.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

8) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?

  1. A) exactly 8 grams
  2. B) exactly 8 daltons
  3. C) approximately 16 grams
  4. D) approximately 16 daltons
  5. E) 24 amu (atomic mass units)

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?

  1. A) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 7 daltons and an atomic mass of 14.
  2. B) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of approximately 14 daltons and an atomic mass of 7.
  3. C) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of 7 grams.
  4. D) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 7 and an atomic number of 14.
  5. E) The nitrogen atom has a mass number of 14 and an atomic mass of approximately 14 daltons.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers of 92, 94, 95, 96, 97, 98, and 100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?

  1. A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
  2. B) The isotopes of molybdenum have different electron configurations.
  3. C) The isotopes of molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 protons.
  4. D) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 neutrons and have different electron configurations.
  5. E) The isotopes of molybdenum have between 50 and 58 protons and have different electron configurations.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

11) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon, and has an atomic mass of 12 daltons. A mole of carbon in naturally occurring coal, however, weighs slightly more than 12 grams. Why?

  1. A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
  2. B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
  3. C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
  4. D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
  5. E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

12) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?

Atom 1      Atom 2

H                              H

  1. A) They are isomers.
  2. B) They are polymers.
  3. C) They are isotopes.
  4. D) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively.
  5. E) They each contain 1 neutron.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) The precise weight of a mole of some pure elements like silicon (Si) can vary slightly from the standard atomic mass, or even from sample to sample. Why?

  1. A) The element may undergo radioactive decay.
  2. B) The element may react with itself and gain or lose subatomic particles.
  3. C) The atoms of the element form chemical bonds with each other, and that changes the weight of the element.
  4. D) The element may have multiple stable isotopes, and the isotopic composition may vary from sample to sample.
  5. E) The amount of energy absorbed by the element affects the mass of its electrons, and thus the atomic mass can vary slightly.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

14) One difference between carbon-12 (C) and carbon-14 (C) is that carbon-14 has

  1. A) two more protons than carbon-12.
  2. B) two more electrons than carbon-12.
  3. C) two more neutrons than carbon-12.
  4. D) two more protons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.
  5. E) two more electrons and two more neutrons than carbon-12.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) An atom has 6 electrons in its outer shell. How many unpaired electrons does it have?

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 2 or 4

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

16) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 is heavier than nitrogen-14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains how many neutrons?

  1. A) 6
  2. B) 7
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 14

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs sufficient energy, a possible result is that

  1. A) an electron may move to an electron shell farther away from the nucleus.
  2. B) an electron may move to an electron shell closer to the nucleus.
  3. C) the atom may become a radioactive isotope.
  4. D) the atom would become a positively charged ion, or cation, and become a radioactive isotope.
  5. E) the atom would become a negatively charged ion, or anion.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) The atomic number of neon is 10. Therefore, which of the following is most correct about an atom of neon?

  1. A) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell.
  2. B) It is inert.
  3. C) It has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.
  4. D) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell and it is inert.
  5. E) It has 8 electrons in its outer electron shell, it is inert, and it has an atomic mass of 10 daltons.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has

  1. A) 15 neutrons.
  2. B) 15 protons.
  3. C) 15 electrons.
  4. D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell.
  5. E) 15 protons and 15 electrons.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

20) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to

  1. A) form ions in aqueous solutions.
  2. B) form hydrogen bonds in aqueous solutions.
  3. C) be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert.
  4. D) be gaseous at room temperature.
  5. E) be both chemically inert and gaseous at room temperature.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) The atomic number of each atom is given to the left of each of the elements below. Which of the atoms has the same valence as carbon (C)?

  1. A) 7N nitrogen
  2. B) 9F fluorine
  3. C) 10Ne neon
  4. D) 12Mg magnesium
  5. E) 14Si silicon

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

22) Two atoms appear to have the same mass number. These atoms

  1. A) must have the same atomic number.
  2. B) must have the same number of electrons.
  3. C) must have the same chemical properties.
  4. D) must have the same number of protons + neutrons.
  5. E) must have the same atomic number, the same number of protons + neutrons, the same number of electrons, and the same chemical properties.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

23) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 0
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 9

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

24) What is the maximum number of electrons in a single 2 p orbital of an atom?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

25) The organic molecules in living organisms have a measurably lower ratio of carbon-13/carbon-12, two stable isotopes of carbon that comprise approximately 1.1% and 98.9% of atmospheric carbon, respectively. What is a reasonable explanation for this phenomenon?

  1. A) Photosynthesis preferentially uses carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-12, and the lower carbon-13/carbon-12 ratio propagates through the food chain.
  2. B) Carbon dioxide molecules with carbon-13 stay in the upper atmosphere and are less available to terrestrial plants and algae.
  3. C) Carbon-13 has a different valence electron configuration and is therefore less chemically reactive than carbon-12.
  4. D) Oxygen atoms preferentially react with carbon-13, thereby enriching the atmosphere with carbon dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 atoms.
  5. E) Carbon dioxide molecules containing carbon-13 are heavier and sink into the ocean depths, making them less available to living organisms.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 2.2, 2.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

26) Phosphorus-32, a radioactive isotope of phosphorus-31 (atomic number 15), undergoes a form of radioactive decay whereby a neutron turns into a proton and emits radiation in the form of an electron. What is the product of such radioactive decay of phosphorus-32?

  1. A) phosphorus-31
  2. B) a positively charged phosphorus-31 ion
  3. C) a negatively charged phosphorus-32 ion
  4. D) sulphur-32 (atomic number 16)
  5. E) the conversion of the phosphorus-32 atom into pure energy

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

27) An atom with atomic number 12 would have what type of chemical behaviour in bonding with other elements?

  1. A) It would form ions with a +1 charge.
  2. B) It would form ions with a +2 charge.
  3. C) It would form ions with a -1 charge.
  4. D) It would form ions with a -2 charge.
  5. E) It would form two covalent bonds with other atoms.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

28) If a salamander relied on hydrogen bonds to cling to surfaces, what type of surface would cause the most problems for this animal?

  1. A) a surface coated with a thin film of water
  2. B) a surface made with carbon and hydrogen atoms covalently bonded together
  3. C) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
  4. D) a surface made with carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together
  5. E) a surface made with silicon and oxygen atoms covalently bonded together

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

29) A covalent chemical bond is one in which

  1. A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged.
  2. B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms.
  3. C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill the outer electron shells of both atoms.
  4. D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom.
  5. E) an electron occupies a hybrid orbital located between the nuclei of two atoms.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

30) What is the best explanation for why molecules that an organism does not produce, but when exposed to react, can still impact the organisms function?

  1. A) Molecules will always have electrons in their outermost shell that can interact with atoms ofother molecules.
  2. B) The molecule’s shape is similar to a molecule the organism produces.
  3. C) The molecule has a strong hydrogen (atomic number 1), which of the molecules belowbonding capability.
  4. D) The molecule is able to form covalent bonds on interacting with molecules in the organism.
  5. E) The organism would be formed?have produced the molecule earlier in the organism’s evolutionary history.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

31) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 6

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Nitrogen (N) is much more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following statements is correct about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?

  1. A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge.
  2. B) The nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
  3. C) Each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge; the nitrogen atom has a strong positive charge.
  4. D) The nitrogen atom has a slight positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a slight negative charge.
  5. E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and polar bonds between each hydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form

  1. A) hydrogen bonds.
  2. B) van der Waals interactions.
  3. C) polar covalent bonds.
  4. D) nonpolar covalent bonds.
  5. E) ionic bonds.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

34) What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?

  1. A) a nonpolar covalent bond
  2. B) a polar covalent bond
  3. C) an ionic bond
  4. D) a hydrogen bond
  5. E) a hydrophobic interaction

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

  1. A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
  2. B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
  3. C) oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons.
  4. D) one of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the other atom.
  5. E) the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

36) Which of the following molecules contains the most polar covalent bond?

  1. A) H2
  2. B) O2
  3. C) CO2
  4. D) H2O
  5. E) CH4

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

37) In comparing covalent bonds and ionic bonds, which of the following would you expect?

  1. A) An atom can form covalent bonds with multiple partner atoms, but only a single ionic bond with a single partner atom.
  2. B) Covalent bonds and ionic bonds occupy opposite ends of a continuous spectrum, from nearly equal to completely unequal sharing of electrons.
  3. C) Both involve electrical attraction between the electrons of one atom and the nucleus of the other atom.
  4. D) Ionic interactions remain when covalent bonds are broken in water. Ionic bonds are much stronger than covalent bonds.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

38) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

  1. A) Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds.
  2. B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms.
  3. C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms.
  4. D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms.
  5. E) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) In ammonium chloride salt (NH4Cl) the anion is a single chloride ion, Cl. What is the cation of NH4Cl?

  1. A) N, with a charge of +1
  2. B) NH, with a charge of +1
  3. C) H3, with a charge of +1
  4. D) NH4, with a charge of +1
  5. E) NH4, with a charge of +4

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

40) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the formula for magnesium chloride?

  1. A) MgCl
  2. B) MgCl2
  3. C) Mg2Cl
  4. D) Mg2Cl2
  5. E) MgCl3

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

41) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the formula C2H4?

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 1
  3. C) 2
  4. D) 3
  5. E) 4

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

42) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?

  1. A) covalent bond
  2. B) hydrogen bond
  3. C) van der Waals interaction
  4. D) ionic bond
  5. E) either covalent bonds or ionic bonds

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?

  1. A) nonpolar covalent bond
  2. B) polar covalent bond
  3. C) ionic bond
  4. D) hydrogen bond
  5. E) hydrophobic interaction

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

44) Van der Waals interactions result when

  1. A) hybrid orbitals overlap.
  2. B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule.
  3. C) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water.
  4. D) two polar covalent bonds react.
  5. E) a hydrogen atom loses an electron.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

45) What bonding or interaction is most likely to occur among a broad array of molecules of various types (polar, nonpolar, hydrophilic, hydrophobic)?

  1. A) covalent bonding
  2. B) polar covalent bonding
  3. C) ionic bonding
  4. D) hydrogen bonding
  5. E) van der Waals interactions

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

46) Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?

  1. A) a covalent bond
  2. B) a van der Waals interaction
  3. C) an ionic bond in the presence of water
  4. D) a hydrogen bond
  5. E) both a hydrogen bond and a covalent bond

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

47) Which of the following would be regarded as compounds?

  1. A) H2O, O2, and CH4
  2. B) H2O and O2
  3. C) O2and CH4
  4. D) CH4and O2, but not H2O
  5. E) H2O and CH4, but not O2

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

48) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a molecule containing two carbon atoms?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 8

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

49) Which of the following is true for this reaction?

3 H2 + N2 ↔ 2 NH3

  1. A) The reaction is nonreversible.
  2. B) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
  3. C) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
  4. D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
  5. E) Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

50) Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium?

  1. A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products.
  2. B) Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
  3. C) Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
  4. D) Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
  5. E) There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?

  1. A) The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
  2. B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
  3. C) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
  4. D) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
  5. E) Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

52) Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium?

  1. A) a test tube of living cells
  2. B) a test tube of organic molecules, kept in the freezer
  3. C) a test tube of dry organic molecules, kept at room temperature
  4. D) a test tube of organic molecules dissolved in water, kept at room temperature
  5. E) a test tube of dead cells in water, kept at room temperature

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

53) The combining of the metal, sodium, with the poisonous gas, chlorine, to produce an edible product, salt, is a good example of

  1. A) essential elements.
  2. B) emergent properties.
  3. C) covalent interactions.
  4. D) Van der Waals interactions.
  5. E) chemical equilibrium.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

54) Plants that are capable of thriving in serpentine soil can do so as a result of

  1. A) natural selection.
  2. B) chance.
  3. C) chemical neutralization of contaminants.
  4. D) generating their own essential elements.
  5. E) serpentine soil poses no challenge to plants.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) The three types of subatomic particles pertinent to the study of biology are

  1. A) electrons, protons, and neutrinos.
  2. B) electrons, positrons, and neutrons.
  3. C) electrons, protons, and neutrons.
  4. D) electrons, photons, and neutrons.
  5. E) quarks, photons, and gravitons.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) A dalton is a unit of

  1. A) distance.
  2. B) weight.
  3. C) mass.
  4. D) bond strength.
  5. E) energy.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

57) Chemical bond/interaction strength appears in what order?

  1. A) Hydrogen > covalent > ionic > VanderWaals.
  2. B) Covalent > ionic > hydrogen > VanderWaals.
  3. C) Covalent > hydrogen > ionic > VanderWaals.
  4. D) VanderWaals > hydrogen > ionic > covalent.
  5. E) Ionic > hydrogen > VanderWaals > covalent.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

58) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). If life arose on a planet where carbon were absent, which element might fill the role of carbon?

  1. A) boron
  2. B) silicon
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) aluminum
  5. E) phosphorus

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

59) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to Helium (2He)?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom that can form covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

61) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom capable of forming three covalent bonds with other atoms?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

62) Which drawing in the figure above is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na+ ion?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

63) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

64) Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with a valence of 3?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

65) Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with a valence of 2?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

66) In the figure above, how many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 14

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) In the figure above, how many unpaired electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell?

  1. A) 15
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 5

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

68) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus-32 (32P) atom (see the figure above)?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 15
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 17
  5. E) 32

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

69) How many electrons does an atom of sulphur have in its valence shell (see the figure above)?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 16
  5. E) 32

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

70) Based on electron configuration, which of these elements in the figure above would exhibit a chemical behaviour most like that of oxygen?

  1. A) carbon
  2. B) hydrogen
  3. C) nitrogen
  4. D) sulphur
  5. E) phosphorus

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

71) The illustration above shows a representation of formic acid. A formic acid molecule

  1. A) will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.
  2. B) has a tetrahedral configuration of hybrid electron orbitals for the carbon atom.
  3. C) consists of largely nonpolar covalent bonds.
  4. D) is held together by hydrogen bonds.
  5. E) has a tetrahedral shape and will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

72) What results from the chemical reaction illustrated above?

  1. A) a cation with a net charge of +1
  2. B) a cation with a net charge of -1
  3. C) an anion with a net charge of +1
  4. D) an anion with a net charge of -1
  5. E) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of -1

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

73) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated above?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 11
  5. E) 16

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

74) What causes the shape of the molecule shown above?

  1. A) the configuration of the 2 p orbitals in the carbon atom
  2. B) the configuration of the 1 s orbital in the carbon atom
  3. C) the configuration of the sp hybrid orbitals of the electrons shared between the carbon and hydrogen atoms
  4. D) the packing of the carbon and hydrogen atoms in a crystal lattice
  5. E) hydrogen bonding configurations between the carbon and hydrogen atoms

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

75) In the methane molecule shown in the figure above, bonds have formed that include both the s orbital valence electrons of the hydrogen atoms and the p orbital valence electrons of the carbon. The electron orbitals in these bonds are said to be

  1. A) double orbitals.
  2. B) tetrahedral orbitals.
  3. C) complex orbitals.
  4. D) hybrid orbitals.
  5. E) polar orbitals.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

76) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

77) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of -1?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

78) Which of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to form a polar covalent bond?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

79) Which of the following pairs of atoms would be most likely to form an ionic bond?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)
  5. E)

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

80) A group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behaviour. They have turned to you for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone?

  1. A) a compound with the same number of carbon atoms as the hormone
  2. B) a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormone
  3. C) a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone
  4. D) a compound with the same number of orbital electrons as the hormone
  5. E) a compound with the same number of hydrogen and nitrogen atoms as the hormone

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

You are investigating how chemical reactions occur. You place two reactants together and measure the concentration of product at regular intervals. After a time, the amount of product becomes stable.

 

81) This solution has

  1. A) used up all the reactants, so no more product can be made.
  2. B) used up all the product, so no more reaction is occurring.
  3. C) reached equilibrium, where there is no more formation of the product.
  4. D) reached equilibrium, where the net formation of both product and reactants is neutral.
  5. E) become saturated.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

82) If you add more product to the solution, you would expect to see

  1. A) a precipitation of the product.
  2. B) an increase in pH.
  3. C) the reactant concentration to remain the same.
  4. D) the reactant concentration to decrease.
  5. E) the reactant concentration to increase.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

83) In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that

  1. A) the element is required in very small amounts.
  2. B) the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism’s metabolism.
  3. C) the element is very rare on Earth.
  4. D) the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism’s long-term survival.
  5. E) the element passes rapidly through the organism.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

84) Compared with 31P, the radioactive isotope 32P has

  1. A) a different atomic number.
  2. B) a different charge.
  3. C) one more proton.
  4. D) one more electron.
  5. E) one more neutron.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

85) The reactivity of an atom arises from

  1. A) the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
  2. B) the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
  3. C) the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
  4. D) the potential energy of the valence shell.
  5. E) the energy difference between the s and p

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

86) Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?

  1. A) The atom has more electrons than protons.
  2. B) The atom has more protons than electrons.
  3. C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
  4. D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.
  5. E) The net charge is 1-.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

87) Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

  1. A) The concentrations of products and reactants are equal.
  2. B) The reaction is now irreversible.
  3. C) Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
  4. D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
  5. E) No reactants remain.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

88) We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons—for example,

2p+; 2n0; 2e– for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?

  1. A) 6p+, 8n0, 6e
  2. B) 8p+, 10n0, 8e
  3. C) 9p+, 9n0, 9e
  4. D) 7p+, 2n0, 9e
  5. E) 10p+, 8n0, 9e

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

89) The atomic number of sulphur is 16. Sulphur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulphur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound.

  1. A) HS
  2. B) HS2
  3. C) H2S
  4. D) H3S2
  5. E) H4S

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

90) What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products?

C6H12O6 → ________ C2H6O + ________ CO2

  1. A) 1; 2
  2. B) 3; 1
  3. C) 1; 3
  4. D) 1; 1
  5. E) 2; 2

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

91) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a magnesium ion?

  1. A) a +1 charge
  2. B) a +2 charge
  3. C) a -1 charge
  4. D) a -2 charge

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

92) Which of the following correctly describes water’s unique properties?

  1. A) Hydrogen bonds in liquid water form a crystalline structure.
  2. B) Water has a low heat of vaporization resulting in the evaporative cooling effect we experience when we sweat.
  3. C) Water has a low specific heat resulting in a significant amount of heat being released when hydrogen bonds form.
  4. D) Water is a non-polar molecule because oxygen and hydrogen have the same electronegativities.
  5. E) Water molecules like to stick together due to hydrogen bonding.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Make Connections

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

93) Which of the following accurately describes radioactive isotopes when used as diagnostic tracers?

  1. A) Radioactive isotopes are used by cells differently than the analogous chemical. This allows for the identification of differences in cellular metabolism.
  2. B) Radioactive isotopes used in chemical reactions in the cell are not hazardous to organisms.
  3. C) Radioactive isotopes are incorporated into biological molecules allowing for the tracking of cellular metabolism.
  4. D) Elevated isotope in a location in the body indicates the isotope is not being metabolized by the cell.
  5. E) Positron-emission-tomography detects reduced chemical incorporation of the radioactive isotope.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

94) Which of the following correctly describes electrons?

  1. A) An electron can move from one shell to another only if the energy the electron gains is greater than the difference in energy between the energy levels of the two shells.
  2. B) Electrons are involved in the chemical reactions between atoms.
  3. C) Electrons are neutral.
  4. D) Electrons can move from the nucleus to higher energy levels when they absorb energy.
  5. E) Protons, neutrons and electrons have equal mass.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

95) Why does radiometric dating allow researchers to determine the age of fossils?

  1. A) Radioactive isotopes are incorporated into living organisms easier than the corresponding non-radioactive isotope.
  2. B) The half-life for all isotopes are all long, in the order of years.
  3. C) The “parent” isotope decays into the “daughter” isotope at a fixed rate.
  4. D) All radioactive isotopes have the same half-life.
  5. E) All elements incorporated into living organisms have radioactive isotopes.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

96) What are electrons in the outermost shell called?

  1. A) high-energy
  2. B) valence
  3. C) inert
  4. D) unreactive
  5. E) low-energy

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

97) Which statement correctly describes chemical reactions?

  1. A) All chemical reactions result in the making and breaking of bonds.
  2. B) There is less mass after molecules have undergone a chemical reaction.
  3. C) Most chemical reactions are reversible.
  4. D) Chemical reactions proceed until all reactant becomes product.
  5. E) The rate of chemical reactions is determined by reactant structure not reactant concentration.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

98) What is the Lewis dot structure better at showing than the space filling model?

  1. A) All electrons for a molecule.
  2. B) The sharing of electrons within a molecule.
  3. C) The molecule’s shape.
  4. D) The molecule’s size.
  5. E) The type of bond formed within the molecule.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 2.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 14   Mendel and the Gene Idea

 

1) What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?

  1. A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
  2. B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.
  3. C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.
  4. D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
  5. E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel’s classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties?

  1. A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
  2. B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression.
  3. C) The traits blended together during fertilization.
  4. D) One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
  5. E) Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?

  1. A) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
  2. B) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”
  3. C) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1generation than do dominant ones.
  4. D) Genes are composed of DNA.
  5. E) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 32
  5. E) 64

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

5) The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?

  1. A) segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
  2. B) recurrent mutations forming new alleles
  3. C) crossing over during prophase I
  4. D) different possible alignments of chromosomes
  5. E) the tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 or F3 generation?

  1. A) to obtain a larger number of offspring on which to base statistics
  2. B) to observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear
  3. C) to observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear
  4. D) to distinguish which alleles were segregating
  5. E) to be able to describe the frequency of recombination

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

7) Which of the following differentiates between independent assortment and segregation?

  1. A) The law of independent assortment requires describing two or more genes relative to one another.
  2. B) The law of segregation requires describing two or more genes relative to one another.
  3. C) The law of segregation requires having two or more generations to describe.
  4. D) The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of prophase I.
  5. E) The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. What does this suggest?

  1. A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits
  2. B) that the trait shows incomplete dominance
  3. C) that a blending of traits has occurred
  4. D) that the parents were both heterozygous for a single trait
  5. E) that each offspring has the same alleles for each of two traits

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

  1. A) tt
  2. B) Hh
  3. C) HhTt
  4. D) T
  5. E) HT

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

10) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that

  1. A) new mutations were frequently generated in the F2progeny, “reinventing” traits that had been lost in the F1.
  2. B) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1and the F2
  3. C) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1.
  4. D) the traits were lost in the F1due to dominance of the parental traits.
  5. E) members of the F1generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2had two alleles for each trait.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following?

  1. A) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.
  2. B) The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
  3. C) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
  4. D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes.
  5. E) The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

13) Mendel was able to draw his ideas of segregation and independent assortment because of the influence of which of the following?

  1. A) his reading and discussion of Darwin’s Origin of Species
  2. B) the understanding of particulate inheritance he learned from renowned scientists of his time
  3. C) his discussions of heredity with his colleagues at major universities
  4. D) his experiments with the breeding of plants such as peas and fuchsia
  5. E) his reading of the scientific literature current in the field

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

14) Mendel’s observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?

  1. A) prophase I of meiosis
  2. B) anaphase II of meiosis
  3. C) metaphase I of meiosis
  4. D) anaphase I of meiosis
  5. E) anaphase of mitosis

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

15) Mendel’s second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of meiosis I?

  1. A) synapsis of homologous chromosomes
  2. B) crossing over
  3. C) alignment of tetrads at the equator
  4. D) separation of homologues at anaphase
  5. E) separation of cells at telophase

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

16) Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?

  1. A) 1/16
  2. B) 3/16
  3. C) 3/8
  4. D) 1/2
  5. E) 9/16

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

17) In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 1/2
  3. C) 1/4
  4. D) 1/6
  5. E) 0

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

18) In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?

  1. A) 1/4
  2. B) 1/8
  3. C) 1/16
  4. D) 1/32
  5. E) 1/64

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

19) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent?

  1. A) 1/4
  2. B) 1/8
  3. C) 3/4
  4. D) 3/8
  5. E) 1

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

20) Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule of probability?

  1. A) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur
  2. B) the probability that two or more independent events will both occur in the offspring of one set of parents
  3. C) the probability that either one of two independent events will occur
  4. D) the probability of producing two or more heterozygous offspring
  5. E) the likelihood that a trait is due to two or more meiotic events

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Which of the following calculations requires that you utilize the addition rule?

  1. A) Calculate the probability of black offspring from the cross AaBb × AaBb, when B is the symbol for black.
  2. B) Calculate the probability of children with both cystic fibrosis and polydactyly when parents are each heterozygous for both genes.
  3. C) Calculate the probability of each of four children having cystic fibrosis if the parents are both heterozygous.
  4. D) Calculate the probability of a child having either sickle-cell anemia or cystic fibrosis if parents are each heterozygous for both.
  5. E) Calculate the probability of purple flower colour in a plot of 50 plants seeded from a self-fertilizing heterozygous parent plant.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

22) In cattle, roan coat colour (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

  1. A) red × white
  2. B) roan × roan
  3. C) white × roan
  4. D) red × roan
  5. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

23) Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects?

  1. A) incomplete dominance
  2. B) multiple alleles
  3. C) pleiotropy
  4. D) epistasis
  5. E) dominance

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?

  1. A) incomplete dominance
  2. B) multiple alleles
  3. C) pleiotropy
  4. D) epistasis
  5. E) codominance

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

  1. A) pink flowers in snapdragons
  2. B) the ABO blood group in humans
  3. C) Huntington’s disease in humans
  4. D) white and purple flower colour in peas
  5. E) skin pigmentation in humans

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

26) Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following?

  1. A) the knowledge that multiple alleles are involved
  2. B) the allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant
  3. C) the alleles being codominant
  4. D) the fact that a mutation has occurred
  5. E) environmental factors such as soil pH

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) Which of the following provides an example of epistasis?

  1. A) Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
  2. B) The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16 do not.
  3. C) In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (cc) prevents any fur colour from developing.
  4. D) In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes.
  5. E) In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

28) Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also true?

  1. A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.
  2. B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
  3. C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
  4. D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
  5. E) More than two alleles in a genotype is considered lethal.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

29) A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for one allele of a particular gene. This and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?

  1. A) Screen all newborns of an at-risk population.
  2. B) Design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele.
  3. C) Introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns.
  4. D) Follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis.
  5. E) Test school-age children for the disorder.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

30) An obstetrician knows that one of her patients is a pregnant woman whose fetus is at risk for a serious disorder that is detectable biochemically in fetal cells. The obstetrician would most reasonably offer which of the following procedures to her patient?

  1. A) chorionic villus sampling
  2. B) ultrasound imaging
  3. C) amniocentesis
  4. D) blood transfusion
  5. E) X-ray

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

31) The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?

  1. A) Mendel’s law of independent assortment
  2. B) Mendel’s law of segregation
  3. C) Darwin’s explanation of natural selection
  4. D) Darwin’s observations of competition
  5. E) the malarial parasite changing the allele

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

32) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. The amino acid is not otherwise produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and effective treatment is which of the following?

  1. A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid.
  2. B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors.
  3. C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino acid.
  4. D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, such as twice per week.
  5. E) Feed the patients an excess of the missing product.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

33) Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of approximately 13. Patients, who look very old even as children, do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption?

  1. A) All cases must occur in relatives; therefore, there must be only one mutant allele.
  2. B) Successive generations of a family will continue to have more and more cases over time.
  3. C) The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene.
  4. D) Each patient will have had at least one affected family member in a previous generation.
  5. E) The disease is autosomal dominant.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

34) An individual that has two different alleles for the same trait is said to be

  1. A) homozygotic.
  2. B) heterozygotic.
  3. C) recessive.
  4. D) polygenic.
  5. E) pleiotropic.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Which of the following describes when two alleles separate from each other and end up in separate gametes?

  1. A) law of independent assortment
  2. B) law of segregation
  3. C) chiasmata
  4. D) epistasis
  5. E) aneuploidy

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

36) Visitors at Algonquin Park in Northern Ontario may miss out on the brilliant red colouration of Acer sacchrum in autumn because

  1. A) the timing is genetically programmed and the people didn’t come at the right time.
  2. B) these animals have already gone into hibernation by then.
  3. C) these trees don’t produce anthocyanin so far north.
  4. D) anthocyanin production and chlorophyll loss are responses to environmental cues and it may have happened already.
  5. E) Acer sacchrum doesn’t live in the park.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Analysis

 

37) Which of the following statements is a correct explanation for the observation that all offspring exhibit a phenotype for a particular trait that appears to be a blend of the two parental varieties?

  1. A) Neither of the parental genes is dominate over the other.
  2. B) The genes for the trait are dominant in both of the parents.
  3. C) The genes are linked and do not separate during meiosis.
  4. D) The genes for the trait are recessive in both of the parents.
  5. E) Multiple genes are involved.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

38) When both traits are exhibited in the phenotype, it is said that the alleles display

  1. A) co-dominance.
  2. B) incomplete dominance.
  3. C) complete dominance.
  4. D) recessive traits.
  5. E) gene silencing.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

39) ________ is when a gene on one locus has an influence on the phenotypic expression of an allele at another locus.

  1. A) Polygenic influence
  2. B) Pleiotropy
  3. C) Multifactorial occurrence
  4. D) Epistasis
  5. E) Segregation

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in this figure.

 

 

40) A certain female’s number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following?

  1. A) either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes
  2. B) either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes
  3. C) either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene
  4. D) one chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene
  5. E) two chromosomes of 12 each with one blue gene and two chromosomes of 19 each with one

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

41) If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types?

  1. A) only blue short gene eggs
  2. B) only orange short gene eggs
  3. C) one-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs
  4. D) three-fourths blue long and one-fourth orange short gene eggs
  5. E) three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

42) A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis?

  1. A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.
  2. B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.
  3. C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.
  4. D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.
  5. E) Each egg has a three-fourths chance of having blue long, one-fourth blue short, three-fourths orange long, or one-fourth orange short combinations.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following description and figure to answer the questions below.

 

In a particular plant, leaf colour is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown below, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

 

 

43) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves?

  1. A) 1 only
  2. B) 1 and 2
  3. C) 2 and 3
  4. D) 4 only
  5. E) 1, 2, and 3

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

44) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 1 and 2
  3. C) 1, 2, and 3
  4. D) 2 and 3
  5. E) 2, 3, and 4

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

45) Which of the plants will be true-breeding?

  1. A) 1 and 4 only
  2. B) 2 and 3 only
  3. C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
  4. D) 1 only
  5. E) 1 and 2 only

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the figure below for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

 

 

46) What is the genotype of individual II-5?

  1. A) WW
  2. B) Ww
  3. C) ww
  4. D) WW or ww
  5. E) ww or Ww

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

48) What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?

  1. A) 3/4
  2. B) 1/4
  3. C) 2/4
  4. D) 2/3
  5. E) 1

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following pedigree shown below for a family in which dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual’s age at the time of diagnosis.

 

 

49) What is the genotype of the deceased individual in generation II?

  1. A) homozygous for a gene for colon cancer
  2. B) homozygous for both cancer alleles from his mother
  3. C) heterozygous for a gene for colon cancer
  4. D) affected by the same colon cancer environmental factor as his mother
  5. E) carrier of all of the several known genes for colon cancer

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

50) In each generation of this family after generation I, the age at diagnosis is significantly lower than would be found in nonfamilial (sporadic) cases of this cancer (~ 63 years). What is the most likely reason?

  1. A) Members of this family know to be checked for colon cancer early in life.
  2. B) Hereditary (or familial) cases of this cancer typically occur at earlier ages than do nonfamilial forms.
  3. C) This is pure chance; it would not be expected if you were to look at a different family.
  4. D) This cancer requires mutations in more than this one gene.
  5. E) Affected members of this family are born with colon cancer, and it can be detected whenever they are first tested.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

51) From this pedigree, how does this trait seem to be inherited?

  1. A) from mothers
  2. B) as an autosomal recessive
  3. C) as a result of epistasis
  4. D) as an autosomal dominant
  5. E) as an incomplete dominant

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

52) The affected woman in generation IV is thinking about her future and asks her oncologist (cancer specialist) whether she can know whether any or all of her children will have a high risk of the same cancer. The doctor would be expected to advise which of the following?

  1. genetic counselling
  2. prenatal diagnosis when/if she becomes pregnant

III.       testing to see whether she has the allele

  1. testing to see whether her future spouse or partner has the allele
  2. A) I only
  3. B) II only
  4. C) I and II only
  5. D) I, II, and III only
  6. E) III and IV only

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower colour and location assort independently.

 

53) If 1000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers?

  1. A) 65
  2. B) 190
  3. C) 250
  4. D) 565
  5. E) 750

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

54) Among the F2 offspring, what is the probability of plants with white axial flowers?

  1. A) 9/16
  2. B) 1/16
  3. C) 3/16
  4. D) 1/8
  5. E) 1/4

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.

 

55) These results indicate which of the following?

  1. A) Brown is dominant to black.
  2. B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
  3. C) Yellow is dominant to black.
  4. D) There is incomplete dominance.
  5. E) Epistasis is involved.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

56) How many genes must be responsible for these coat colours in Labrador retrievers?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4
  5. E) 5

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

57) In one type cross of black × black, the results were as follows:

9/16 black

4/16 yellow

3/16 brown

The genotype aabb must result in which of the following?

  1. A) black
  2. B) brown
  3. C) yellow
  4. D) a lethal result
  5. E) white

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant characteristic.

 

58) If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following?

  1. A) red and long
  2. B) red and oval
  3. C) white and long
  4. D) purple and long
  5. E) purple and oval

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

59) In the F2 generation of the above cross, which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected?

  1. A) 9:3:3:1
  2. B) 9:4:3
  3. C) 1:1:1:1
  4. D) 1:1:1:1:1:1
  5. E) 6:3:3:2:1:1

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) The flower colour trait in radishes is an example of which of the following?

  1. A) a multiple allelic system
  2. B) sex linkage
  3. C) codominance
  4. D) incomplete dominance
  5. E) epistasis

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long wings (+) but mutations in two different genes can result in bent wings (bt) or vestigial wings (vg).

 

61) If a homozygous bent wing fly is mated with a homozygous vestigial wing fly, which of the following offspring would you expect?

  1. A) all +bt +vg heterozygotes
  2. B) 1/2 bent and 1/2 vestigial flies
  3. C) all homozygous + flies
  4. D) 3/4 bent to 1/4 vestigial ratio
  5. E) 1/2 bent and vestigial to 1/2 normal

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

62) If flies that are heterozygous for both the bent wing gene and the vestigial wing gene are mated, what is the probability of offspring with bent wings only?

  1. A) 1/8
  2. B) 3/8
  3. C) 1/4
  4. D) 9/16
  5. E) 3/16

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower colour is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower colour.

 

63) A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?

  1. A) ttRr—dwarf and pink
  2. B) ttrr—dwarf and white
  3. C) TtRr—tall and red
  4. D) TtRr—tall and pink
  5. E) TTRR—tall and red

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

64) If snapdragons are heterozygous for height as well as for flower colour, a mating between them will result in what ratio?

  1. A) 9:3:3:1
  2. B) 6:3:3:2:1:1
  3. C) 1:2:1
  4. D) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
  5. E) 9:4:3

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Skin colour in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles.

 

65) How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 16

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

66) One fish of this type has alleles 1 and 3 (S1S3) and its mate has alleles 2 and 4 (S2S4). If each allele confers a unit of colour darkness such that S1 has one unit, S2 has two units, and so on, then what proportion of their offspring would be expected to have five units of colour?

  1. A) 1/4
  2. B) 1/5
  3. C) 1/8
  4. D) 1/2
  5. E) 0

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Refer to the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cacti with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cacti have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cacti have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cacti have no spines at all.

 

67) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of

  1. A) incomplete dominance.
  2. B) epistasis.
  3. C) complete dominance.
  4. D) pleiotropy.
  5. E) codominance.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

68) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce

  1. A) all sharp-spined progeny.
  2. B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
  3. C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny.
  4. D) all spineless progeny.
  5. E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

69) If doubly heterozygous SsNn cacti were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?

  1. A) 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless
  2. B) 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless
  3. C) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined:1 spineless
  4. D) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined
  5. E) 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the information given here to answer the following questions.

 

Feather colour in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.

 

70) A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is not possible?

  1. A) green offspring only
  2. B) yellow offspring only
  3. C) blue offspring only
  4. D) green and yellow offspring
  5. E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

71) Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?

  1. A) yyBB and yyBB
  2. B) yyBB and yyBb
  3. C) yyBb and yyBb
  4. D) yyBB and yybb
  5. E) yyBb and yybb

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

A woman who has blood type A positive has a daughter who is type O positive and a son who is type B negative. Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene for the MN blood group has codominant alleles M and N.

 

72) Which of the following is a possible partial genotype for the son?

  1. A) IBIB
  2. B) IBIA
  3. C) ii
  4. D) IBi
  5. E) IAIA

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

73) Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?

  1. A) IAIA
  2. B) IBIB
  3. C) ii
  4. D) IAi
  5. E) IAIB

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

74) Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?

  1. A) A negative
  2. B) O negative
  3. C) B positive
  4. D) AB negative
  5. E) impossible to determine

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

75) If both children are of blood type M, which of the following is possible?

  1. A) Each parent is either M or MN.
  2. B) Each parent must be type M.
  3. C) Both children are heterozygous for this gene.
  4. D) Neither parent can have the N
  5. E) The MN blood group is recessive to the ABO blood group.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Refer to the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Humanoids on the newly explored planet Brin (in a hypothetical galaxy in ~50 years from the present) have a gene structure similar to our own, but many very different plants and animals.

 

76) One species of a small birdlike animal has an extremely variable tail length, which is a highly polymorphic trait. Geneticists have come to realize that there are eight separate genes for tail length per haploid genome, with each gene having two alleles. One allele for each gene (a, b, and so on) increases the length by 1 cm, whereas the other allele (a2, b2, and so on) increases it by 0.5 cm. One bird was analyzed and found to have the following genotype:

a1a1b2b2c1c2d1d2e2e2f1f2g1g1h1h2

What is the length of its tail?

  1. A) 6 cm
  2. B) 8 cm
  3. C) 12 cm
  4. D) 24 cm
  5. E) 36 cm

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

77) One species of green plant, with frondlike leaves, a spine-coated stem, and purple cup-shaped flowers, is found to be self-pollinating. Which of the following is true of this species?

  1. A) The species must be haploid.
  2. B) Its reproduction is asexual.
  3. C) All members of the species have the same genotype.
  4. D) Some of the seeds would have true-breeding traits.
  5. E) All of its dominant traits are most frequent.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

78) If the environmental parameters, such as temperature, humidity, atmosphere, sunlight, and so on, are mostly Earthlike, which of the following do you expect of its types of leaves, stems, and flowers?

  1. A) The genes for them would have originated on Earth.
  2. B) Genes for these traits would have a common ancestor with those from Earth.
  3. C) Such plants could be safely eaten by humans.
  4. D) Genotypes for these traits would be identical to Earth plants with the same traits.
  5. E) Phenotypes would be selected for or against by these environmental factors.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

79) Marfan syndrome in humans is caused by an abnormality of the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Patients are usually very tall and thin, with long spindly fingers, curvature of the spine, sometimes weakened arterial walls, and sometimes ocular problems, such as lens dislocation. Which of the following would you conclude about Marfan syndrome from this information?

  1. A) It is recessive.
  2. B) It is dominant.
  3. C) It has a late age of onset (> 60).
  4. D) It is pleiotropic.
  5. E) It is epistatic.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Tay-Sachs disease is an inherited genetic disorder in which the gene sequence codes for an enzyme involved in lipid metabolism. Accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to seizures, blindness, loss of neural function, and early death. People can be carriers of this disease and only homozygotic offspring will die from this disorder.

 

80) This is an example of

  1. A) complete dominance.
  2. B) co-dominance.
  3. C) incomplete dominance.
  4. D) pleitropy.
  5. E) epistasis.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

81) When the enzyme structure of a heterozygote carrier is examined, there is an equal number of functioning and non-functioning enzymes produced. This is an example of

  1. A) complete dominance.
  2. B) co-dominance.
  3. C) incomplete dominance.
  4. D) pleitropy.
  5. E) epistasis.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

82) How can you reconcile these conclusions?

  1. A) These alleles are really displaying incomplete dominance.
  2. B) There is a polygenic effect, where another gene encodes for the same enzyme.
  3. C) This is a result of epistasis.
  4. D) The observed dominant/recessive relationship of alleles depends on the level at which the phenotype is examined.
  5. E) The observed dominant/recessive relationship of alleles only applies at the organismal level.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

83) Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds?

  1. A) dominant
  2. B) incomplete dominant
  3. C) recessive
  4. D) codominant
  5. E) hybridized

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

84) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio was expected?

  1. A) 1:2:1
  2. B) 3:1
  3. C) 1:1
  4. D) 1:1:1:1
  5. E) 1:3

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

85) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 1/4
  3. C) 1/3
  4. D) 1/2
  5. E) 1

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

86) Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. It mostly affects the lungs, and long term issues include frequent lung infections. A man and woman are healthy, and neither have cystic fibrosis, but they have one child out of four who has cystic fibrosis. What are the genotypes of the child’s parents?

  1. A) One parent must be homozygous for the recessive allele; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous.
  2. B) One parent must be heterozygous; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous.
  3. C) Both parents must be heterozygous.
  4. D) One parent must be homozygous dominant; the other parent must be heterozygous.
  5. E) Both parents must be homozygous dominant.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

87) Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white.

(a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?

(b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.)

  1. A) (a) GG × gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 1:2:1
  2. B) (a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1
  3. C) (a) GG × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 2:1
  4. D) (a) gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2, phenotypic = 3:1
  5. E) (a) gg × gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

88) A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple’s second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits?

  1. A) 1/2
  2. B) 1/16
  3. C) 1/8
  4. D) 3/4
  5. E) 1

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

89) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc × AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring?

  1. A) 1/2
  2. B) 1/16
  3. C) 1/8
  4. D) 3/4
  5. E) 1

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

90) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced twelve black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, six blacks and six albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation?

  1. A) Albino is recessive; black is dominant.
  2. B) Albino is dominant; black is incompletely dominant.
  3. C) Albino and black are codominant.
  4. D) Albino is recessive; black is codominant.
  5. E) Black shows incomplete dominance.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

91) In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc results in very short legs. The genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with deformed legs and white rabbits with deformed legs, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have deformed legs and white fur?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 33%
  4. D) 50%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

92) In humans, ABO blood types refer to glycoproteins in the membranes of red blood cells. There are three alleles for this autosomal gene: IA, IB, and i. The IA allele codes for the A glycoprotein, the IB allele codes for the B glycoprotein, and the i allele doesn’t code for any membrane glycoprotein. IA and IB are codominant, and i is recessive to both IA and IB. People with type A blood have the genotypes IAIA or IAi, people with type B blood are IBIB or IBi, people with type AB blood are IAIB, and people with type O blood are ii. If a woman with type AB blood marries a man with type O blood, which of the following blood types could their children possibly have?

  1. A) A and B
  2. B) AB and O
  3. C) A, B, and O
  4. D) A, B, AB, and O
  5. E) O

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 14.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 28   Protists

 

1) All protists are

  1. A) unicellular.
  2. B) eukaryotic.
  3. C) symbionts.
  4. D) monophyletic.
  5. E) mixotrophic.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Biologists have long been aware that the defunct kingdom Protista is polyphyletic. Which of these statements is most consistent with this conclusion?

  1. A) Many species within this kingdom were once classified as monerans.
  2. B) Animals, plants, and fungi arose from different protist ancestors.
  3. C) The eukaryotic condition has evolved more than once among the protists.
  4. D) Chloroplasts among various protists are similar to those found in prokaryotes.
  5. E) Some protists, all animals, and all fungi share a protist common ancestor, but these protists, animals, and fungi are currently assigned to three different kingdoms.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?

  1. A) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions
  2. B) from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria
  3. C) by secondary endosymbiosis
  4. D) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes
  5. E) when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) Which process could have allowed the nucleomorphs of chlorarachniophytes to be reduced, without the net loss of any genetic information?

  1. A) conjugation
  2. B) horizontal gene transfer
  3. C) binary fission
  4. D) phagocytosis
  5. E) meiosis

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) An individual mixotroph loses its plastids, yet continues to survive. Which of the following most likely accounts for its continued survival?

  1. A) It relies on photosystems that float freely in its cytosol.
  2. B) It must have gained extra mitochondria when it lost its plastids.
  3. C) It engulfs organic material by phagocytosis or by absorption.
  4. D) It has an endospore.
  5. E) It is protected by a case made of silica.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium?

  1. A) chloroplast
  2. B) mitochondrion
  3. C) hydrogenosome
  4. D) mitosome
  5. E) Two of the responses above are correct.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1, 28.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?

  1. Plasmodium
  2. Trichomonas
  3. Paramecium
  4. Trypanosoma
  5. Entamoeba
  6. A) 1 and 2
  7. B) 1 and 4
  8. C) 2 and 3
  9. D) 2 and 4
  10. E) 4 and 5

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2, 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics is mismatched?

  1. A) apicomplexans—internal parasites
  2. B) golden algae—planktonic producers
  3. C) euglenozoans—unicellular flagellates
  4. D) ciliates—red tide organisms
  5. E) entamoebas—ingestive heterotrophs

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates is true?

  1. A) They possess two flagella.
  2. B) All known varieties are autotrophic.
  3. C) Their walls are usually composed of silica plates.
  4. D) Many types lack mitochondria.
  5. E) Their dead cells accumulate on the seafloor, and are mined to serve as a filtering material.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

10) You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group?

  1. A) foraminiferans
  2. B) radiolarians
  3. C) ciliates
  4. D) kinetoplastids
  5. E) slime moulds

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) Which of the following is characteristic of ciliates?

  1. A) They use pseudopods as locomotory structures or as feeding structures.
  2. B) They are relatively specialized cells.
  3. C) They can exchange genetic material with other ciliates by the process of mitosis.
  4. D) Most live as solitary autotrophs in fresh water.
  5. E) They are often multinucleate.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) Which process results in genetic recombination, but is separate from the process by which the population size of Paramecium increases?

  1. A) budding
  2. B) meiotic division
  3. C) mitotic division
  4. D) conjugation
  5. E) binary fission

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) If we were to apply the most recent technique used to fight potato late blight to the fight against the malarial infection of humans, then we would

  1. A) increase the dosage of the least-expensive antimalarial drug administered to humans.
  2. B) increase the dosage of the most common pesticide used to kill Anopheles
  3. C) introduce a predator of the malarial parasite into infected humans.
  4. D) use a “cocktail” of at least three different pesticides against Anopheles
  5. E) insert genes from a Plasmodium-resistant strain of mosquito into Anopheles

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

14) Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9 + 2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glasslike valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms?

  1. A) How does carbon dioxide get into these protists with their glasslike valves?
  2. B) How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water’s surface layers to another location on the surface?
  3. C) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters?
  4. D) How do diatoms with their glasslike valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves?
  5. E) How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells?

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

15) A large seaweed that floats freely on the surface of deep bodies of water would be expected to lack which of the following?

  1. A) thalli
  2. B) bladders
  3. C) holdfasts
  4. D) gel-forming polysaccharides

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

16) Apicomplexans

  1. A) are mostly free-living.
  2. B) are photosynthetic.
  3. C) have life cycles with sexual and asexual stages.
  4. D) include Plasmodium, which requires two hosts.
  5. E) C and D

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

17) Ciliates do not

  1. A) reproduce sexually by conjugation.
  2. B) reproduce asexually by binary fission.
  3. C) contain two types of nuclei, micro- and macronuclei.
  4. D) contain genes in the macronucleus that control the functions of the cell.
  5. E) utilize cilia to move and feed.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Which process in Paramecium results in genetic recombination but no increase in population size?

  1. A) budding
  2. B) meiotic division
  3. C) conjugation
  4. D) binary fission

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature?

  1. A) foraminifera → silicon-rich tests
  2. B) dinoflagellata → holdfast
  3. C) diatoms → tests made of cellulose
  4. D) phaeophyta (brown algae) → blade

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) In alternation of generation in brown algae, which pair is incorrectly matched?

  1. A) sporophyte — is diploid and produces spores
  2. B) sporangia — produce zoospores by mitosis
  3. C) zoospores — develop into female and male gametophytes
  4. D) eggs — remain attached to the female gametophyte
  5. E) zygote — grows into new sporophyte

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Reinforced, threadlike pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis are generally characteristic of which group?

  1. A) radiolarians and forams
  2. B) gymnamoebas
  3. C) entamoebas
  4. D) amoeboid stage of cellular slime moulds
  5. E) oomycetes

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is characteristic of which group?

  1. A) diatoms
  2. B) foraminiferans
  3. C) radiolarians
  4. D) amoebas

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) The chloroplasts of land plants are thought to have been derived according to which evolutionary sequence?

  1. A) cyanobacteria → green algae → land plants
  2. B) cyanobacteria → green algae → fungi → land plants
  3. C) red algae → brown algae → green algae → land plants
  4. D) cyanobacteria → red algae → green algae → land plants

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) The chloroplasts of all of the following are thought to be derived from ancestral red algae, except those of

  1. A) golden algae.
  2. B) diatoms.
  3. C) dinoflagellates.
  4. D) green algae.
  5. E) brown algae.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

25) A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. This alga probably belongs to which group?

  1. A) red algae
  2. B) brown algae
  3. C) green algae
  4. D) dinoflagellates
  5. E) golden algae

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae

  1. A) are heterotrophs.
  2. B) are unicellular.
  3. C) have plastids.
  4. D) have alternation of generations.
  5. E) have cell walls containing cellulose.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) If the Archaeplastidae are eventually designated a kingdom, and if land plants are excluded from this kingdom, then what will be true of this new kingdom?

  1. A) It will be monophyletic.
  2. B) It will more accurately depict evolutionary relationships than does the current taxonomy.
  3. C) It will be paraphyletic.
  4. D) It will be a true clade.
  5. E) It will be polyphyletic.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

28) The best evidence for not classifying the slime moulds as fungi comes from slime moulds’

  1. A) DNA sequences.
  2. B) nutritional modes.
  3. C) choice of habitats.
  4. D) physical appearance.
  5. E) reproductive methods.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) Which pair of alternatives is highlighted by the life cycle of the cellular slime moulds, such as Dictyostelium?

  1. A) prokaryotic or eukaryotic
  2. B) unicellular or multicellular
  3. C) diploid or haploid
  4. D) autotroph or heterotroph

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Unikonta is a supergroup that includes all of the following except ________.

  1. A) fungi
  2. B) protists
  3. C) animals
  4. D) plants

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Previously understood similarities that seemed to connect slime molds and fungi are now considered to be ________.

  1. A) homologies
  2. B) examples of convergent evolution
  3. C) variations of common ancestral traits
  4. D) adaptations for much different functions

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

32) Which of the following statements concerning protists is true?

  1. A) All protists have mitochondria, though in some species they are much reduced and known by different names.
  2. B) The primary organism that transmits malaria to humans by its bite is the tsetse fly.
  3. C) All apicomplexans are autotrophic.
  4. D) All slime moulds have an amoeboid stage that may be followed by a stage during which spores are produced.
  5. E) Euglenozoans that are mixotrophic lack functional chloroplasts.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2-28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) Which of the following is correctly described as a primary producer?

  1. A) slime moulds
  2. B) kinetoplastid
  3. C) apicomplexan
  4. D) diatom
  5. E) radiolarian

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2-28.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) You are given the task of designing an aerobic, mixotrophic protist that can perform photosynthesis in fairly deep water (for example, 250 m deep), and can also crawl about and engulf small particles. With which two of the following structures would you provide your protist?

  1. hydrogenosome
  2. apicoplast
  3. pseudopods
  4. chloroplast from red alga
  5. chloroplast from green alga
  6. A) 1 and 2
  7. B) 2 and 3
  8. C) 2 and 4
  9. D) 3 and 4
  10. E) 4 and 5

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

35) You are given the task of designing an aquatic protist that is a primary producer. It cannot swim on its own, yet must stay in well-lit surface waters. It must be resistant to physical damage from wave action. It should be most similar to a(n)

  1. A) diatom.
  2. B) dinoflagellate.
  3. C) apicomplexan.
  4. D) red alga.
  5. E) radiolarian.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

36) Similar to most amoebozoans, the forams and the radiolarians also have pseudopods, as do some of the white blood cells of animals (monocytes). If one were to erect a taxon that included all organisms that have cells with pseudopods, what would be true of such a taxon?

  1. A) It would be polyphyletic.
  2. B) It would be paraphyletic.
  3. C) It would be monophyletic.
  4. D) It would include all eukaryotes.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

37) You are designing an artificial drug-delivery “cell” that can penetrate animal cells. Which of these protist structures should provide the most likely avenue for research along these lines?

  1. A) pseudopods
  2. B) apical complex
  3. C) excavated feeding grooves
  4. D) nucleomorphs
  5. E) mitosomes

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2-28.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

38) A gelatinous seaweed that grows in shallow, cold water and undergoes heteromorphic alternation of generations is most probably what type of alga?

  1. A) red
  2. B) green
  3. C) brown
  4. D) yellow

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

39) Which of the following are actual mutualistic partnerships that involve a protist and a host organism?

  1. A) cellulose-digesting gut protists—wood-eating termites
  2. B) dinoflagellates—reef-building coral animals
  3. C) Trichomonas—humans
  4. D) algae—certain foraminiferans
  5. E) all except that involving humans

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

40) Living diatoms contain brownish plastids. If global warming causes blooms of diatoms in the surface waters of Earth’s oceans, how might this be harmful to the animals that build coral reefs?

  1. A) The coral animals, which capture planktonic organisms, may be outcompeted by the diatoms.
  2. B) The coral animals’ endosymbiotic dinoflagellates may get “shaded out” by the diatoms.
  3. C) The coral animals may die from overeating the plentiful diatoms, with their cases of silica.
  4. D) The diatoms’ photosynthetic output may over-oxygenate the water.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

41) Why do photosynthetic protists play a critical role in aquatic ecosystems?

  1. A) Photosynthetic protists and prokaryotes are the major producers that form the critical base of food webs.
  2. B) Photosynthetic dinoflagellates are in a mutualistic symbiotic association with coral, and coral reefs are one of the most diverse and productive biomes on earth.
  3. C) They outcompete the non-photosynthetic parasitic protists.
  4. D) They form colonies that cover the water’s surface, which allows anaerobic organisms to thrive.
  5. E) A and B

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

The following questions refer to the description below.

 

You are given four test tubes, each containing an unknown protist, and your task is to read the following description and match these four protists to the correct test tube.

When light, especially red and blue light, is shone on the tubes, oxygen bubbles accumulate on the inside of test tubes 1 and 2. Chemical analysis of test tube 1 indicates the presence of a chemical that is toxic to fish and humans. Chemical analysis of test tube 2 indicates the presence of substantial amounts of silica. Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tubes 1, 3, and 4 reveals the presence of permanent, membrane-bounded sacs just under the plasma membrane. Microscopic analysis of organisms in test tube 3 reveals the presence of an apicoplast in each. Microscopic analysis of the contents in test tube 4 reveals the presence of one large nucleus and one small nucleus in each organism.

 

 

42) Test tube 3 contains ________.

  1. A)
  2. B) Karenia (dinoflagellate).
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) Test tube 4 contains ________.

  1. A)
  2. B) Karenia (dinoflagellate).
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.3, 28.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

The next few questions refer to the following description and table.

 

Diatoms are encased in Petri-platelike cases (valves) made of translucent hydrated silica whose thickness can be varied. The material used to store excess calories can also be varied. At certain times, diatoms store excess calories in the form of the liquid polysaccharide, laminarin, and at other times as oil. The following are data concerning the density (specific gravity) of various components of diatoms, and of their environment.

 

Specific Gravities of Materials Relevant to Diatoms

 

Material Specific Gravity (kg/m3)
Pure water 1,000
Sea water 1,026
Hydrated silica 2,250
Liquid laminarin 1,500
Diatom oil 910

 

44) Water’s density and, consequently, its buoyancy decrease at warmer temperatures. Based on this consideration and using data from the table, at which time of year should one expect diatoms to be storing excess calories mostly as oil?

  1. A) mid-winter
  2. B) early spring
  3. C) late summer
  4. D) late fall

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

45) Judging from the table and given that water’s density and, consequently, its buoyancy decrease at warmer temperatures, in which environment should diatoms (and other suspended particles) sink most slowly?

  1. A) cold fresh water
  2. B) warm fresh water
  3. C) cold sea water
  4. D) warm sea water
  5. E) warm brackish water

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

46) Using dead diatoms to “pump” CO2 to the seafloor is feasible only if dead diatoms sink quickly. Consequently, application of mineral fertilizers, such as iron, should be most effective at times when diatom valves

  1. A) are thickest, and laminarin is being produced rather than oil.
  2. B) are thickest, and oil is being produced rather than laminarin.
  3. C) are thinnest, and laminarin is being produced rather than oil.
  4. D) are thinnest, and oil is being produced rather than laminarin.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Giardia lamblia is an intestinal parasite of humans and other mammals that causes intestinal ailments in most people who ingest the cysts. Upon ingestion, each cyst releases two motile cells, called trophozoites. These attach to the small intestine’s lining via a ventral adhesive disk. The trophozoites anaerobically metabolize glucose from the host’s intestinal contents to produce ATP. Reproduction is completely asexual, occurring by longitudinal binary fission of trophozoites, with each daughter cell receiving two haploid nuclei (n = 5). A trophozoite will often encyst as it passes into the large intestine by secreting around itself a case that is resistant to cold, heat, and dehydration. Infection usually occurs by drinking untreated water that contains cysts.

 

47) The trophozoites of Giardia were first observed in 1681 in the diarrhea stools of the first known person to view protists with a microscope, a person named

  1. A) Robert Koch.
  2. B) Robert Hooke.
  3. C) Isaac Newton.
  4. D) van Leeuwenhoek.
  5. E) Louis Pasteur.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

48) Giardia’s mitosome can be said to be “doubly degenerate,” because it is a degenerate form of a ________, an organelle that is itself a degenerate form of a(n) ________.

  1. A) nucleus; archaean
  2. B) nucleus; bacterium
  3. C) mitochondrion; proteobacterium
  4. D) mitochondrion; spirochete
  5. E) chloroplast; cyanobacterium

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 25.3, 28.1, 28.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

49) The mitosome of Giardia has no DNA within it. If it did contain DNA, then what predictions should we be able to make about its DNA?

  1. It is linear.
  2. It is circular.
  3. It has many introns.
  4. It has few introns.
  5. It is not associated with histone proteins.
  6. It is complexed with histone proteins.
  7. A) 1, 3, and 5
  8. B) 1, 4, and 5
  9. C) 2, 3, and 6
  10. D) 2, 4, and 5
  11. E) 2, 4, and 6

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 27.1, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

50) Given the putative ancestry of Giardia’s mitosome, what should we predict is true of the mitosome?

  1. A) It has electron transport systems that use oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
  2. B) It has a double membrane.
  3. C) It has thylakoids.
  4. D) It contains microtubules, arranged in the “9 + 2 pattern.”
  5. E) It contains 80S (eukaryotic) ribosomes.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 9.4, 10.1, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

51) Given its mode of reproduction and internal structures, which of the following should be expected to occur in Giardia at some stage of its life cycle?

  1. separation (segregation) of daughter chromosomes
  2. crossing over
  3. meiosis
  4. A) 1 only
  5. B) 3 only
  6. C) 1 and 2
  7. D) 1 and 3
  8. E) 2 and 3

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 12.2, 13.3, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

52) Unlike most excavates, Giardia trophozoites have no oral groove and are unable to form food vacuoles. Thus, we should expect its nutrition (mostly glucose) to come from

  1. A) its mitosomes.
  2. B) endosymbiotic cyanobacteria.
  3. C) the ventral disk by which it adheres to the intestinal lining.
  4. D) osmosis involving aquaporins.
  5. E) plasma membrane proteins that are transporters or pumps.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 7.3, 7.4, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

53) Diplomonads, such as Giardia, contain two haploid nuclei per trophozoite. Thus, during the G1 phase of the cell cycle, there should be a total of how many unreplicated chromosomes per trophozoite, and during the G2 phase, how many replicated chromosomes per trophozoite?

  1. A) 5; 5
  2. B) 5; 10
  3. C) 10; 10
  4. D) 10; 20
  5. E) 20; 20

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 12.2, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

54) During passage through the large intestine, a trophozoite will often secrete a case around itself, forming a cyst. Cysts contain four haploid nuclei. When cysts “hatch” within a new host, two trophozoites are released. Thus, which of the following must happen within the cyst, prior to hatching?

  1. meiosis
  2. nuclear division
  3. S phase
  4. binary fission
  5. A) 1 only
  6. B) 1 and 2
  7. C) 2 and 3
  8. D) 2 and 4
  9. E) 2, 3, and 4

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 12.2, 13.3, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

55) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the

  1. A) mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads.
  2. B) nuclei of archaeans.
  3. C) endospores of bacteria.
  4. D) capsids of viruses.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 19.1, 27.1, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

56) If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA, yet are descendants of what were once free-living organisms, then where are we likely to find the genes that encode their structures, and what accounts for their current location there?

  1. A) plasmids; conjugation
  2. B) plasmids; transformation
  3. C) nucleus; horizontal gene transfer
  4. D) nucleus; S phase

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 27.6, 28.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

57) The primary treatment for giardiasis (infection with Giardia), as well as for trichomoniasis (infection with Trichomonas vaginalis) and for amoebic dysentery (infection with Entamoeba histolytica), is a drug marketed as Flagyl (generic name is metronidazole). The drug also kills anaerobic gut bacteria. Consequently, which of these are cues that Flagyl’s mode of action has nothing to do with attacking or disabling the parasites’ flagella, as the drug’s name might imply?

  1. It would also harm the flagellated lining of the human intestine.
  2. Entamoeba possesses pseudopods, not flagella, yet it is killed by Flagyl.
  3. Prokaryotic flagella and eukaryotic flagella are radically different from each other and unlikely to be harmed by the same chemical.
  4. Not all anaerobic gut bacteria possess flagella, yet it kills these bacteria.
  5. A) 1 and 2
  6. B) 1 and 3
  7. C) 2 and 3
  8. D) 1, 2, and 4
  9. E) 2, 3, and 4

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2, 28.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

58) Given that Flagyl produces only minor side effects (if any) in humans, and given the set of parasites that it kills, Flagyl’s mode of action probably involves

  1. A) peptidoglycan.
  2. B) mitochondria or mitosomes.
  3. C) anaerobic metabolic pathways.
  4. D) nuclear envelopes.
  5. E) microtubules.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.2, 28.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

The following questions refer to the description below.

 

Malaria is a global health problem in over 100 countries, killing about one million people every year. The protist, Plasmodium, that causes malaria lives in 2 hosts, mosquitoes and humans. Malaria is transmitted to humans by the Anopholes mosquito.

 

59) A friend of yours has just returned from central Africa and has told you that she is sick with malaria. You know your friend took an anti-malaria medication before she left on her trip. How can you explain why your friend contracted malaria?

  1. A) Your friend has likely picked up a new pathogen which is making her sick.
  2. B) Your friend had taken anti-malaria medication, but the Plasmodium parasite was resistant to this drug.
  3. C) The medication suppressed your friend’s immune system.
  4. D) Your friend is immune to the medication she took.
  5. E) Your friend should have chosen a vaccine instead of drugs because vaccines work for a longer period of time.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) The use of DDT greatly decreased numbers of Anopholes mosquitoes in the 1960s, and drugs killed the Plasmodium. Now doctors tend to prescribe a combination of drugs against malaria. Why don’t doctors prescribe a vaccine to combat malaria?

  1. A) In the presence of multiple drugs, the mutation rate of pathogens decreases.
  2. B) Multiple drugs enhance the immune system better than vaccines.
  3. C) Making an effective vaccine has proved to be difficult because Plasmodium lives inside the host’s cells and continually changes its surface proteins.
  4. D) There are fewer side effects associated with using a combination of drugs compared with using a vaccine.
  5. E) Vaccines are more expensive than many drugs.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Paulinella chromatophora is one of the few cercozoans that is autotrophic, carrying out aerobic photosynthesis with its two elongated “cyanelles.” The cyanelles are contained within vesicles of the host cell, and each is derived from a cyanobacterium, though not the same type of cyanobacterium that gave rise to the chloroplasts of algae and plants.

 

61) The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph, P. ovalis. What type of evidence permits biologists to make this claim about relatedness?

  1. A) morphological
  2. B) ecological
  3. C) biochemical
  4. D) genetic
  5. E) fossil

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 26.2, 28.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

62) The closest living relative of P. chromatophora is the heterotroph, P. ovalis. P. ovalis uses threadlike pseudopods to capture its prey, which it digests internally. Which of the following, if observed, would be the best reason for relabelling P. chromatophora as a mixotroph?

  1. A) a threadlike pseudopod
  2. B) a pigmented central vacuole, surrounded by a tonoplast
  3. C) a vacuole with food inside
  4. D) a secretory vesicle
  5. E) a contractile vacuole

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 6.4, 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

63) P. chromatophora secretes around itself a test, or case, of plates made of silica. Which of the following is another rhizarian that would be in competition with P. chromatophora for the silica needed to make these plates, assuming limited quantities of silica in the environment?

  1. A) radiolarians
  2. B) foraminiferans
  3. C) all other amoeboid cells
  4. D) all other rhizaria
  5. E) diatoms

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 28.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

64) Which of the following represents the true significance of the finding that the cyanelles of P. chromatophora stem from a different type of cyanobacterium than gave rise to chloroplasts?

  1. A) This finding indicates that there is a second evolutionary lineage of photosynthetic eukaryotes.
  2. B) This finding represents the first time that primary endosymbiosis has been directly observed.
  3. C) This finding is the strongest evidence yet for the theory of endosymbiosis.
  4. D) This finding is an example of the phenomenon known as “serial endosymbiosis.”
  5. E) This finding is the first evidence that eukaryotic cells do not necessarily digest prokaryotic cells that manage to gain access to their cytoplasm.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1, 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

65) The genome of modern chloroplasts is roughly 50% the size of the genome of the cyanobacterium from which it is thought to have been derived. In comparison, the genome of P. chromatophora‘s cyanelle is only slightly reduced relative to the size of the genome of the cyanobacterium from which it is thought to have been derived. What is a valid conclusion that can be drawn from this comparison?

  1. A) Lytic phage infections have targeted the chloroplast genome more often than the chromatophora genome.
  2. B) chromatophora‘s cyanelle is the result of an evolutionarily recent endosymbiosis.
  3. C) The genome of the chloroplast ancestor contained many more introns that could be lost without harm, compared to the cyanelle’s genome.
  4. D) All three of the conclusions above are valid.
  5. E) Two of the conclusions above are valid.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1, 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

66) If true, which of the following would be most important in determining whether P. chromatophora‘s cyanelle is still an endosymbiont, or is an organelle, as the term cyanelle implies?

  1. A) if chromatophora is less fit without its cyanelle than with it
  2. B) if the cyanelle is less fit without the host cercozoan than with it
  3. C) if there is ongoing metabolic cooperation between the cyanelle and the host cercozoan
  4. D) if the magnesium-containing porphyrin ring in the cyanelle’s chlorophyll molecules is built by the cyanelle, whereas the organic portion of the chlorophyll molecules is built by the host cercozoan
  5. E) if there has been movement of genes from the cyanelle genome to the nuclear genome, such that these genes are no longer present in the cyanelle genome

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1, 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

67) If true, which of the following is the best evidence that the cyanelles are providing nutrition (in other words, calories) to the surrounding cercozoan?

  1. A) if the cyanelle performs aerobic photosynthesis
  2. B) if the vesicle membrane that surrounds each cyanelle possesses glucose-transport proteins
  3. C) if the cyanelle performs aerobic respiration
  4. D) if radiolabelled 14CO2enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabelled glucose is present in cercozoan cytosol
  5. E) if radiolabelled “heavy” water, 2H2O, enters the cyanelle and if, subsequently, radiolabelled oxygen appears in cercozoan cytosol

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 10.2, 28.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

68) A crucial photosynthetic gene of the cyanobacterium that gave rise to the cyanelle is called psaE. This gene is present in the nuclear genome of the cercozoan, but is not in the genome of the cyanelle. This is evidence of

  1. A) reciprocal mutations in the cyanelle and nuclear genomes.
  2. B) horizontal gene transfer from bacterium to eukaryotes.
  3. C) genetic recombination involving a protist and an archaean.
  4. D) the origin of photosynthesis in protists.
  5. E) transduction by a phage that infects both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 26.6, 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

69) What must occur for asexual reproduction to be successful in P. chromatophora?

  1. mitosis
  2. S phase
  3. meiosis
  4. equal distribution of cyanelles during cytokinesis
  5. A) 1 only
  6. B) 1 and 2
  7. C) 1, 2, and 3
  8. D) 1, 2, and 4
  9. E) 2, 3, and 4

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 12.2, 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

70) Including the membrane of the surrounding vesicle, how many phospholipid (NOT lipopolysaccharide) bilayers should be found around each cyanelle, and which one of these bilayers should have photosystems embedded in it?

  1. A) two; innermost
  2. B) two; outermost
  3. C) three; innermost
  4. D) three; middle
  5. E) three; outermost

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1, 28.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

The next few questions refer to the following description.

 

Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one side, P. bursaria gathers at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria) are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae.

 

71) Which term most accurately describes the nutritional mode of healthy P. bursaria?

  1. A) photoautotroph
  2. B) photoheterotroph
  3. C) chemoheterotroph
  4. D) chemoautotroph
  5. E) mixotroph

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

72) Which term accurately describes the behaviour of Paramecium species that lack zoochlorellae in an aquarium with light coming from one side only?

  1. A) positive chemotaxis
  2. B) negative chemotaxis
  3. C) positive phototaxis
  4. D) negative phototaxis

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

73) Which term best describes the symbiotic relationship of well-fed P. bursaria to their zoochlorellae?

  1. A) mutualistic
  2. B) commensal
  3. C) parasitic
  4. D) predatory
  5. E) pathogenic

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

74) The motility that permits P. bursaria to move toward a light source is provided by

  1. A) pseudopods.
  2. B) a single flagellum composed of the protein, flagellin.
  3. C) a single flagellum featuring the 9 + 2 pattern.
  4. D) many cilia.
  5. E) contractile vacuoles.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

75) A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is said to be aposymbiotic. It might be able to replenish its contingent of zoochlorellae by ingesting them without subsequently digesting them. Which of the following situations would be most favourable to the reestablishment of resident zoochlorellae, assuming compatible Chlorella are present in P. bursaria’s habitat?

  1. A) abundant light, no bacterial prey
  2. B) abundant light, abundant bacterial prey
  3. C) no light, no bacterial prey
  4. D) no light, abundant bacterial prey

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

76) A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is aposymbiotic. If aposymbiotic cells have population growth rates the same as those of healthy, zoochlorella-containing P. bursaria in well-lit environments with plenty of prey items, then such an observation would be consistent with which type of relationship?

  1. A) parasitic
  2. B) commensalistic
  3. C) toxic
  4. D) predator-prey
  5. E) mutualistic

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

77) Theoretically, P.bursaria can obtain zoochlorella either vertically (via the asexual reproduction of its mother cell) or horizontally (by ingesting free-living Chlorella from its habitat). Consider a P. bursaria cell containing zoochlorellae, but whose habitat lacks free-living Chlorella. If this cell subsequently undergoes many generations of asexual reproduction, if all of its daughter cells contain roughly the same number of zoochlorellae as it had originally contained, and if the zoochlorellae are all haploid and identical in appearance, then what is true?

  1. A) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at an increasing rate over time.
  2. B) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at a decreasing rate over time.
  3. C) The zoochlorellae also reproduced asexually, at a fairly constant rate over time.
  4. D) The zoochlorellae reproduced sexually, undergoing heteromorphic alternation of generations.
  5. E) The zoochlorellae reproduced sexually, undergoing isomorphic alternation of generations.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 28.1-28.6

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

78) Plastids that are surrounded by more than two membranes are evidence of

  1. A) evolution from mitochondria.
  2. B) fusion of plastids.
  3. C) origin of the plastids from archaea.
  4. D) secondary endosymbiosis.
  5. E) budding of the plastids from the nuclear envelope.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

79) Biologists suspect that endosymbiosis gave rise to mitochondria before plastids partly because

  1. A) the products of photosynthesis could not be metabolized without mitochondrial enzymes.
  2. B) all eukaryotes have mitochondria (or their remnants), whereas many eukaryotes do not have plastids.
  3. C) mitochondrial DNA is less similar to prokaryotic DNA than is plastid DNA.
  4. D) without mitochondrial CO2production, photosynthesis could not occur.
  5. E) mitochondrial proteins are synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes, whereas plastids utilize their own ribosomes.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

80) Which group is incorrectly paired with its description?

  1. A) rhizarians—morphologically diverse group defined by DNA similarities
  2. B) diatoms—important producers in aquatic communities
  3. C) red algae—acquired plastids by secondary endosymbiosis
  4. D) apicomplexans—parasites with intricate life cycles
  5. E) diplomonads—protists with modified mitochondria

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

81) Which protists are in the same eukaryotic supergroup as land plants?

  1. A) green algae
  2. B) dinoflagellates
  3. C) red algae
  4. D) brown algae
  5. E) both green algae and red algae

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

82) In life cycles with an alternation of generations, multicellular haploid forms alternate with

  1. A) unicellular haploid forms.
  2. B) unicellular diploid forms.
  3. C) multicellular haploid forms.
  4. D) multicellular diploid forms.
  5. E) multicellular polyploid forms.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 42   Circulation and Gas Exchange

 

1) Gas exchange in the aquatic salamander known as the mudpuppy is correctly described as

  1. A) active transport to move oxygen into the salamander from the water.
  2. B) carrier-mediated transport to move oxygen into the salamander from the water.
  3. C) facilitated diffusion of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water.
  4. D) simple diffusion of oxygen into the salamander from the water.
  5. E) active transport of carbon dioxide from the salamander into the water.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Circulatory systems have the primary benefit of overcoming the shortcomings of

  1. A) temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue.
  2. B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs across cells.
  3. C) communication systems involving only the nervous system.
  4. D) having to cushion animals from trauma.
  5. E) fetal organisms maintaining an optimal body temperature.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross

  1. A) zero membranes—oxygen binds directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
  2. B) one membrane—that of the lining in the lungs—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
  3. C) two membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
  4. D) four membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining the pulmonary capillary—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood.
  5. E) five membranes—in and out of the cell lining the lung, in and out of the endothelial cell lining the pulmonary capillary, and into the red blood cell—to bind with hemoglobin.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) The fluid that moves around in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is

  1. A) the digestive juices.
  2. B) the intracellular fluid.
  3. C) the blood plasma.
  4. D) the cytosol.
  5. E) the interstitial fluid.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) Circulatory systems in molluscs

  1. A) are open in all species of molluscs.
  2. B) are closed in all species of molluscs.
  3. C) are open in species of large-sized molluscs and are closed in species of small-sized molluscs.
  4. D) are open in species of small-sized molluscs and are closed in species of large-sized molluscs.
  5. E) are open or closed without regard to body size.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) The circulatory system of bony fishes, rays, and sharks is similar to

  1. A) that of birds, with a four-chambered heart.
  2. B) the portal systems of mammals, where two capillary beds occur sequentially, without passage of blood through a pumping chamber.
  3. C) that of reptiles, with one pumping chamber driving blood flow to a gas-exchange organ, and a different pumping chamber driving blood to the rest of the circulation.
  4. D) that of sponges, in which gas exchange in all cells occurs directly with the external environment.
  5. E) that of humans, in which there are four pumping chambers to drive blood flow.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

7) A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human’s lungs will cause

  1. A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs.
  2. B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.
  3. C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.
  4. D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst.
  5. E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

8) Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body’s cells are likely to have

  1. A) an open circulatory system.
  2. B) a closed circulatory system.
  3. C) a gastrovascular cavity.
  4. D) branched tracheae.
  5. E) hemolymph.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the pulmocutaneous circulation to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body?

  1. A) annelids
  2. B) molluscs
  3. C) fishes
  4. D) frogs
  5. E) insects

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The only vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the

  1. A) amphibians.
  2. B) birds.
  3. C) fishes.
  4. D) mammals.
  5. E) reptiles.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) To adjust blood pressure independently in the capillaries of the gas-exchange surface and in the capillaries of the general body circulation, an organism would need a(n)

  1. A) open circulatory system.
  2. B) hemocoel.
  3. C) lymphatic system.
  4. D) two-chambered heart.
  5. E) four-chambered heart.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

12) A portal system is

  1. A) an area connecting arterioles to venules.
  2. B) a series of vessels that returns blood to the heart in an animal with an open circulatory system.
  3. C) a space within or between organs where blood is allowed to pool.
  4. D) a slightly muscular vessel that has minimal pumping action in an organism with no heart.
  5. E) a vessel or vessels connecting two capillary beds.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?

  1. A) systole of the left atrium
  2. B) diastole of the right ventricle
  3. C) systole of the left ventricle
  4. D) diastole of the right atrium
  5. E) diastole of the left atrium

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels has blood that is the least similar in its gas content?

  1. A) the pulmonary vein and the jugular vein
  2. B) the veins from the right and left legs
  3. C) the pulmonary artery and the vena cava
  4. D) the pulmonary vein and the aorta
  5. E) the inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) After several weeks of exercise, a human athlete’s resting heart rate is typically lower than before because

  1. A) the body needs less oxygen than before.
  2. B) the body temperature has increased.
  3. C) the stroke volume has increased.
  4. D) the cardiac output has decreased.
  5. E) the body produces less carbon dioxide than before.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

16) A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the thumb. To travel from the artery in the arm to the left ventricle, this red blood cell must pass through

  1. A) one capillary bed.
  2. B) two capillary beds.
  3. C) three capillary beds.
  4. D) four capillary beds.
  5. E) five capillary beds.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

17) Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in reptiles and mammals?

  1. A) left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
  2. B) right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation
  3. C) pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit
  4. D) vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary circuit
  5. E) right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 40 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat, and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of

  1. A) 500 mL/minute.
  2. B) 1000 mL/minute.
  3. C) 1750 mL/minute.
  4. D) 2800 mL/minute.
  5. E) 4800 mL/minute.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

19) Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans

  1. A) is a major contributor to heart attacks.
  2. B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers.
  3. C) would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance.
  4. D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
  5. E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

20) If the delay in impulse from the atrioventricular node to the ventricles is reduced, this would result in

  1. A) an increase in diastolic pressure.
  2. B) the incomplete emptying of atrial blood into the ventricles.
  3. C) the backflow of blood through the sinoatrial valve.
  4. D) an increase in cardiac output.
  5. E) a heart murmur.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

21) A stroke volume in the heart of 85mL/beat and a pulse of 71 beats per minute results in a cardiac output of

  1. A) 6 L/minute
  2. B) 600 mL/minute.
  3. C) 0.6 L/minute.
  4. D) 60 L/minute.
  5. E) 600 L/minute.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

22) After completing a race, a runner’s heart rate begins to decelerate. Which of the following is responsible for this?

  1. A) adrenaline
  2. B) sympathetic nervous system
  3. C) parasympathetic nervous system
  4. D) epinephrine
  5. E) norepinephrine

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

23) The semilunar valves of the mammalian heart

  1. A) are the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles.
  2. B) are found only on the right side of the heart.
  3. C) are the attachment site where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart.
  4. D) prevent backflow of blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries.
  5. E) are at the places where the anterior and posterior venae cavae empty into the heart.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

24) The material present in arterioles that is not present in capillaries is

  1. A) fully oxygenated blood.
  2. B) plasma in which carbon dioxide has been added.
  3. C) a lining of endothelial cells.
  4. D) circular smooth muscle cells that can alter the size of the arterioles.
  5. E) white blood cells and platelets.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) The set of blood vessels with the slowest velocity of blood flow is

  1. A) the arteries.
  2. B) the arterioles.
  3. C) the metarterioles.
  4. D) the capillaries.
  5. E) the veins.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) The set of blood vessels with the lowest blood pressure driving flow is

  1. A) the arteries.
  2. B) the arterioles.
  3. C) the metarterioles.
  4. D) the capillaries.
  5. E) the veins.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) An elderly patient has reduced mobility in his lower extremities. It has been observed that there are dark areas under the skin where blood has pooled. This pooling is most likely caused by

  1. A) a decrease in muscle contraction in the arterioles.
  2. B) a decrease in the surface area of the capillaries.
  3. C) an increase in peripheral resistance.
  4. D) a reduction in blood flow through the veins.
  5. E) an increase in production of endothelin in blood vessels.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

28) An increased concentration of nitric oxide within a vascular bed is associated with

  1. A) vasoconstriction.
  2. B) vasodilation.
  3. C) narrowing of the arteries.
  4. D) a reduction in blood flow in that region.
  5. E) a decreased amount of blood in the capillaries of that vascular bed.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

29) Among the following choices, which organism likely has the highest systolic pressure?

  1. A) mouse
  2. B) rabbit
  3. C) human
  4. D) hippopotamus
  5. E) giraffe

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Small swollen areas in the neck, groin, and axillary region are associated with

  1. A) increased activity of the immune system.
  2. B) a broken limb.
  3. C) blood sugar that is abnormally high.
  4. D) dehydration.
  5. E) sodium depletion.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because

  1. A) the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells.
  2. B) the capillaries are far from the heart, and blood flow slows as distance from the heart increases.
  3. C) the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate.
  4. D) the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle.
  5. E) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

32) The blood pressure is lowest in the

  1. A) aorta.
  2. B) arteries.
  3. C) arterioles.
  4. D) capillaries.
  5. E) venae cavae.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

33) Fluid is filtered out of the bloodstream into the surrounding interstitial fluid at the arteriole end of systemic capillaries because

  1. A) the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than that of the blood.
  2. B) the hydrostatic pressure of the blood is less than that of the interstitial fluid.
  3. C) the hydrostatic pressure of the blood is greater than the osmotic pressure of the blood.
  4. D) the osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the blood.
  5. E) the osmotic pressure of the blood is greater than the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

34) If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then

  1. A) hemoglobin will not release oxygen.
  2. B) fluids will tend to accumulate in tissues.
  3. C) the pH of the interstitial fluids will increase.
  4. D) most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues.
  5. E) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

35) What will be the long-term effect of blocking the lymphatic vessels associated with a capillary bed?

  1. A) more fluid entering the venous capillaries
  2. B) an increase in the blood pressure in the capillary bed
  3. C) the accumulation of more fluid in the interstitial areas
  4. D) fewer proteins leaking out of the blood to enter the interstitial fluid
  5. E) the area of the blockage becoming abnormally small

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

36) A species that has a normal resting systolic blood pressure of >260 mm Hg is likely to be

  1. A) an animal that is small and compact, without the need to pump blood very far from the heart.
  2. B) an animal with abundant lipid storage.
  3. C) a species that has very wide diameter veins.
  4. D) an animal that has a very long distance between its heart and its brain.
  5. E) an animal that makes frequent, quick motions.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

37) Dialysis patients, who will have blood withdrawn, dialyzed, then replaced, are always weighed when they enter the facility and then weighed carefully again before they leave, because

  1. A) even small changes in body weight may signify changes in blood volume and therefore blood pressure.
  2. B) many people who have dialysis are diabetic and must control their weight carefully.
  3. C) dialysis removes blood proteins and these weigh more than other blood components.
  4. D) dialysis is likely to cause edema and such swelling must be controlled.
  5. E) reclining posture during dialysis can cause a tendency for weight gain.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

38) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the

  1. A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries.
  2. B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls.
  3. C) loss of fluid from capillaries.
  4. D) increased diffusion of CO2.
  5. E) increased diffusion of Hb.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) Vasoconstriction in the gut is a likely response when an individual is

  1. A) lying down after standing up.
  2. B) standing up after lying down.
  3. C) stressed and secreting stress hormones.
  4. D) responding to increased blood pressure.
  5. E) having an allergy attack with lots of histamine secretion.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

40) The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the

  1. A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries.
  2. B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood.
  3. C) percent of blood volume made up of platelets.
  4. D) blood pressure being greater than 140 mm Hg systolic and/or >90 diastolic.
  5. E) number of leukocytes per mm3of blood.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

41) Among these choices, the biggest set that includes only those “cells” that lack nuclei is

  1. A) platelets.
  2. B) platelets and erythrocytes.
  3. C) platelets, erythrocytes, and basophils.
  4. D) platelets, erythrocytes, basophils, and neutrophils.
  5. E) platelets, erythrocytes, basophils, neutrophils, and monocytes.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) In a healthy human, the typical life span of a red blood cell is

  1. A) 24 hours.
  2. B) one week.
  3. C) one month.
  4. D) four months.
  5. E) 80 years or more.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

43) The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells, and the organ where this hormone is synthesized, are

  1. A) growth hormone and pancreas, respectively.
  2. B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively.
  3. C) cortisol and adrenal gland, respectively.
  4. D) epinephrine and adrenal gland, respectively.
  5. E) acetylcholine and bone marrow, respectively.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

44) Dissolved proteins in human plasma include which of the following?

  1. fibrinogen
  2. hemoglobin

III. immunoglobulin

  1. A) I only
  2. B) II only
  3. C) I and III only
  4. D) II and III only
  5. E) I, II, and III

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

45) The plasma proteins in humans

  1. A) maintain the blood’s osmotic pressure.
  2. B) transport water-soluble lipids.
  3. C) carry out gas exchange.
  4. D) undergo aerobic metabolism.
  5. E) transport oxygen.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

46) Cyanide poisons mitochondria by blocking the final step in the electron transport chain. Human red blood cells placed in an isotonic solution containing cyanide are likely to

  1. A) retain the normal cell shape, but the mitochondria will be poisoned.
  2. B) lyse as the cyanide concentration increases inside the cell.
  3. C) switch to anaerobic metabolism.
  4. D) become unable to carry oxygen.
  5. E) be unaffected.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) Heart rate will increase in the presence of increased

  1. A) low-density lipoproteins.
  2. B) immunoglobulins.
  3. C) erythropoietin.
  4. D) epinephrine.
  5. E) platelets.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

48) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by

  1. A) low-density lipoproteins.
  2. B) immunoglobulins.
  3. C) erythropoietin.
  4. D) epinephrine.
  5. E) platelets.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

49) The meshwork that forms the fabric of a blood clot is

  1. A) chymotrypsin.
  2. B) fibrin.
  3. C) thrombin.
  4. D) prothrombin.
  5. E) collagen.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

50) A normal event in the process of blood clotting is the

  1. A) production of erythropoietin.
  2. B) conversion of fibrin to fibrinogen.
  3. C) activation of prothrombin to thrombin.
  4. D) increase in platelets.
  5. E) synthesis of hemoglobin.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) When the air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its oxygen content is 10% and its overall air pressure is 400 mm Hg, then PO2 is

  1. A) 400 mm Hg.
  2. B) 82 mm Hg.
  3. C) 40 mm Hg.
  4. D) 21 mm Hg.
  5. E) 4 mm Hg.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

52) An atmospheric scientist has created a mixture of air consisting of 15% oxygen and PO2 of 75 mm Hg. The overall air pressure is

  1. A) 500 mm Hg.
  2. B) 5 mm Hg.
  3. C) 50 mm Hg.
  4. D) 0.5 mm Hg.
  5. E) 5000 mm Hg.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

53) The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing

  1. A) a decrease in its carbon dioxide content.
  2. B) a decrease in its oxygen content.
  3. C) an increase in its ability to sustain aerobic organisms.
  4. D) a decrease in the water’s density.
  5. E) a decrease in the movement of the water molecules.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

54) Sponges, cnidarians, and flatworms lack a specialized gas exchange surface because

  1. A) they are too large for a circulatory system to operate well.
  2. B) they live without need for oxygen.
  3. C) they do not produce carbon dioxide.
  4. D) countercurrent exchange mechanisms cannot function well in their living conditions.
  5. E) nearly all of their cells are in direct contact with the external environment.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) Flying insects do all of the following except

  1. A) increase metabolism as much as 200-fold during flight.
  2. B) switch from diffusion of tracheal gases to active transport during flight.
  3. C) utilize high numbers of mitochondria in flight muscles.
  4. D) produce water molecules from oxygen in mitochondria.
  5. E) generate carbon dioxide from catabolism of fuel molecules.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

56) The epiglottis of a human covers the glottis when he or she is

  1. A) talking.
  2. B) breathing.
  3. C) swallowing.
  4. D) yawning.
  5. E) sleeping.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

57) In mammals, most gas exchange between the atmosphere and the pulmonary blood occurs in the

  1. A) trachea.
  2. B) larynx.
  3. C) bronchi.
  4. D) bronchioles.
  5. E) alveoli.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

58) Gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs because

  1. A) water is less dense than air.
  2. B) water contains much less O2than air per unit volume.
  3. C) gills have less surface area than lungs.
  4. D) gills allow only unidirectional transport.
  5. E) gills allow water to flow in one direction.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

59) Countercurrent exchange is evident in

  1. A) the flow of water across the gills of a fish and that of blood within those gills.
  2. B) the flow of blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae.
  3. C) the flow of air within the primary bronchi of a human and that of blood within the pulmonary veins.
  4. D) the flow of water across the skin of a frog and that of blood within the ventricle of its heart.
  5. E) the flow of fluid out of the arterial end of a capillary and that of fluid back into the venous end of the same capillary.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

60) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize

  1. A) endocytosis.
  2. B) blood pressure.
  3. C) diffusion.
  4. D) active transport.
  5. E) osmosis.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

61) Air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange

  1. A) in their specialized external gills.
  2. B) in their specialized internal gills.
  3. C) in the alveoli of their lungs.
  4. D) across the membranes of their cells.
  5. E) across all parts of their thin cuticular exoskeleton.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

62) An oil-water mixture works as an insecticidal spray against mosquitoes and other insects because it

  1. A) coats their lungs.
  2. B) blocks the openings into the tracheal system.
  3. C) interferes with gas exchange across the capillaries.
  4. D) clogs their bronchi.
  5. E) prevents gases from leaving the atmosphere.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

63) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen makes up 21% of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in such conditions is

  1. A) 160 mm Hg.
  2. B) 16 mm Hg.
  3. C) 120/75.
  4. D) 21/760.
  5. E) 760/21.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

64) Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious respiratory failure because of

  1. A) the sudden change from the uterine environment to the air.
  2. B) the overproduction of surfactants.
  3. C) the incomplete development of the lung surface.
  4. D) lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant.
  5. E) mutations in the genes involved in lung formation.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

65) Of the following choices, impairment of a mammal’s breathing cycle is most likely following neural damage in

  1. A) the cerebrum and cerebellum.
  2. B) the medulla oblongata and the pons.
  3. C) the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex.
  4. D) the thalamus and the hypothalamus.
  5. E) the frontal lobe and the temporal lobe.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

66) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because

  1. A) the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume.
  2. B) the volume of the alveoli increases as smooth muscles contract.
  3. C) gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure.
  4. D) pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs.
  5. E) a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) The exhalation of air from human lungs is driven by

  1. A) a decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity.
  2. B) a decrease in the residual volume of the lungs.
  3. C) the contraction of the diaphragm.
  4. D) the closure of the epiglottis.
  5. E) the expansion of the rib cage.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

68) As a person goes from rest to full-effort exercise, there is an increase in the

  1. A) tidal volume.
  2. B) vital capacity.
  3. C) residual volume.
  4. D) total lung capacity.
  5. E) All of the above would be different.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

69) A person with a tidal volume of 450 mL, a vital capacity of 4000 mL, and a residual volume of 1000 mL would have a potential total lung capacity of

  1. A) 1450 mL.
  2. B) 4000 mL.
  3. C) 4450 mL.
  4. D) 5000 mL.
  5. E) 5450 mL.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

70) During most daily activities, the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of

  1. A) nitric acid.
  2. B) nitrogen.
  3. C) oxygen.
  4. D) carbon dioxide.
  5. E) carbon monoxide.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

71) Breathing is usually regulated by

  1. A) erythropoietin levels in the blood.
  2. B) the concentration of red blood cells.
  3. C) hemoglobin levels in the blood.
  4. D) CO2 and O2 concentration and pH-level sensors.
  5. E) the lungs and the larynx.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

72) A person with a residual respiratory volume of 750 mL, a tidal volume of 500 mL, and a total lung capacity of 4500 mL would have a vital capacity of

  1. A) 1250 mL.
  2. B) 3750 mL.
  3. C) 5000 mL.
  4. D) 4000 mL.
  5. E) 3250 mL.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

73) At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg of 21% oxygen, the partial pressure of oxygen is

  1. A) 100 mm Hg.
  2. B) 127 mm Hg.
  3. C) 151 mm Hg.
  4. D) 182 mm Hg.
  5. E) 219 mm Hg.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

74) At sea level, atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg. Oxygen gas is approximately 21% of the total gases in the atmosphere, so the approximate partial pressure of oxygen is

  1. A) 0.2 mm Hg.
  2. B) 20.0 mm Hg.
  3. C) 76.0 mm Hg.
  4. D) 160.0 mm Hg.
  5. E) 508.0 mm Hg.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

75) At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the atmosphere is still composed of 21% oxygen, then the partial pressure of oxygen at this altitude is

  1. A) 0 mm Hg.
  2. B) 80 mm Hg.
  3. C) 160 mm Hg.
  4. D) 380 mm Hg.
  5. E) 760 mm Hg.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

76) Carbon dioxide levels in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid affect its pH. This enables the organism to sense a disturbance in gas levels as

  1. A) the brain directly measures and monitors carbon dioxide and causes breathing changes accordingly.
  2. B) the medulla oblongata, which is in contact with cerebrospinal fluid, monitors pH and uses this measure to control breathing.
  3. C) the brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide.
  4. D) stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow breathing.
  5. E) the medulla oblongata is able to control the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the blood.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.6

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

77) An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes

  1. A) hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules.
  2. B) an increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules.
  3. C) hemoglobin to denature.
  4. D) an increase in the binding of H+by hemoglobin.
  5. E) hemoglobin to more readily give up its oxygen molecules.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

78) An “internal reservoir” of oxygen in rested muscle is found in oxygen molecules bound to

  1. A) hemoglobin.
  2. B) bicarbonate ions.
  3. C) carbonic acid.
  4. D) actin and myosin.
  5. E) myoglobin.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

79) Hemoglobin and hemocyanin

  1. A) are both found within blood cells.
  2. B) are both red in colour.
  3. C) are both freely dissolved in the plasma.
  4. D) both transport oxygen.
  5. E) are both found in mammals.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

80) The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in

  1. A) the partial pressure of oxygen.
  2. B) the partial pressure of carbon monoxide.
  3. C) hemoglobin concentration.
  4. D) temperature.
  5. E) pH.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

81) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is

  1. A) converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells.
  2. B) bound to hemoglobin.
  3. C) transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid.
  4. D) simply dissolved in the plasma.
  5. E) bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

82) Hydrogen ions produced within human red blood cells are prevented from significantly lowering plasma pH because they bind to

  1. A) hemoglobin.
  2. B) plasma proteins.
  3. C) carbon dioxide.
  4. D) carbonic acid.
  5. E) plasma buffers.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

83) The hemocyanin of arthropods and molluscs differ from the hemoglobin of mammals in that

  1. A) the oxygen dissociation curve for hemocyanin is linear.
  2. B) hemocyanin carries appreciably more carbon dioxide.
  3. C) hemocyanin has protein coupled to copper rather than iron.
  4. D) the protein of hemocyanin is not bound to metal.
  5. E) hemocyanin includes cyanic acid.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

84) During a prolonged dive, mammals such as the Weddell seal do all of the following except

  1. A) derive ATP from fermentation.
  2. B) route blood to major organs.
  3. C) decrease O2consumption rate.
  4. D) increase blood supply to muscles.
  5. E) decrease heart rate.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

85) In an animal species known for endurance running rather than fast sprinting, you would expect to find

  1. A) a slower rate of oxygen consumption so that its breathing will not have to be accelerated.
  2. B) an increase of storage of oxygen in myoglobin of its muscles.
  3. C) a relatively slow heart rate in order to lower oxygen consumption.
  4. D) a lower pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
  5. E) a much higher rate of oxygen consumption for its size.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Blood entering a capillary bed of an unusual vertebrate was measured for the pressures exerted by various factors, as shown below.

 

 

86) For this unusual capillary bed

  1. A) the pH is lower on the arterial side than on the venous side.
  2. B) oxygen is taken up by the erythrocytes within the capillaries.
  3. C) the osmotic pressure remains constant due to carbon dioxide compensation.
  4. D) the hydrostatic pressure declines from the arterial side to the venous side because oxygen is lost.
  5. E) fluids will leave the capillaries on the arterial side of the bed and re-enter on the venous side.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 42.3, 42.5, 42.6

Skill:  Application/Analysis

87) An anthropologist discovers the fossilized heart of an extinct animal. The evidence indicates that the organism’s heart was large, well-formed, and had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the

  1. A) animal had evolved from birds.
  2. B) animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate.
  3. C) animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles.
  4. D) animal was likely an invertebrate animal.
  5. E) species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

88) A group of students was designing an experiment to test the effect of smoking on grass frogs. They hypothesized that keeping the frogs in a smoke-filled environment for defined periods would result in the animals developing lung cancer. However, when they searched for previously published information to shore up their hypothesis, they discovered they were quite wrong in their original assessment. Even though they were never going to go ahead with their experiment (so as not to harm frogs needlessly), they knew that a more likely outcome of putting carcinogens in the air would be the development of

  1. A) the amphibian equivalent of hypertension.
  2. B) skin cancer.
  3. C) gill abnormalities in the next generation of tadpoles.
  4. D) tracheal tube abnormalities.
  5. E) diminished absorption of oxygen.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Use the following information to answer the next few questions.

 

A paramedic arrives at a middle-aged man’s home. The man is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon examination of his medicine cabinet, the paramedic finds prescription bottles of statins and aspirin.

 

89) Which ailment is the man most likely suffering from?

  1. A) Sickle cell disease.
  2. B) Altitude sickness.
  3. C) Thrombocytopenia.
  4. D) Cardiovascular disease.
  5. E) Hemophilia.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

90) The man can reduce the chance of recurrence of symptoms by

  1. reducing his LDL:HDL ratio.
  2. exercising on a regular basis.

III. quitting smoking cigarettes.

  1. reducing consumption of trans fats.
  2. A) I only
  3. B) I and II
  4. C) II and III
  5. D) I, II, and III
  6. E) I, II, III, and IV

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

At a crime scene, an analyst finds a large pool of blood. After centrifugation, it was determined that the blood belonged to a hemophiliac suffering from an acute infection.

 

91) Which of the following statements are true?

  1. A) The culprit had a very low platelet and high leukocyte counts.
  2. B) The culprit had misshapen erythrocytes and low monocyte counts.
  3. C) The culprit had low platelet and leukocyte counts.
  4. D) The culprit had high platelet and leukocyte counts.
  5. E) The culprit had high platelet and low leukocyte counts.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

92) Which of the following are not involved in the clotting process?

  1. A) fibrinogen
  2. B) thrombin
  3. C) platelets
  4. D) albumin
  5. E) fibrin

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

93) Which of the following respiratory systems is not closely associated with a blood supply?

  1. A) the lungs of a vertebrate
  2. B) the gills of a fish
  3. C) the tracheal system of an insect
  4. D) the skin of an earthworm
  5. E) the parapodia of a polychaete worm

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

94) Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the

  1. A) vena cava.
  2. B) left atrium.
  3. C) right atrium.
  4. D) left ventricle.
  5. E) right ventricle.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

95) Pulse is a direct measure of

  1. A) blood pressure.
  2. B) stroke volume.
  3. C) cardiac output.
  4. D) heart rate.
  5. E) breathing rate.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

96) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe?

  1. A) rising O2.
  2. B) falling O2.
  3. C) rising CO2.
  4. D) falling CO2.
  5. E) rising CO2and falling O2.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

97) One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is

  1. A) the number of heart chambers.
  2. B) the type of gas exchange tissues.
  3. C) a complete separation of circuits for circulation.
  4. D) the number of circuits for circulation.
  5. E) a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

98) If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following except

  1. A) the pulmonary vein.
  2. B) an alveolus.
  3. C) the trachea.
  4. D) the right atrium.
  5. E) the right ventricle.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

99) Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these cells in arteries has a

  1. A) higher PO2.
  2. B) higher PCO2.
  3. C) greater bicarbonate concentration.
  4. D) lower pH.
  5. E) lower osmotic pressure.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

100) Which of the following reactions prevails in red blood cells traveling through alveolar capillaries? (Hb = hemoglobin)

  1. A) Hb + 4 O2→ Hb(O2)4
  2. B) Hb(O2)4→ Hb + 4 O2
  3. C) CO2+ H2O → H2CO3
  4. D) H2CO3→ H++ HCO3—
  5. E) Hb + 4 CO2→ Hb(CO2)4

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

101) In an open circulatory system, where is blood found?

  1. A) always inside of vessels and under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems
  2. B) not always confined to blood vessels and under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems
  3. C) always inside of vessels and under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems
  4. D) not always confined to blood vessels and under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems
  5. E) not always confined to blood vessels and under the same pressure as in closed circulatory systems

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

102) When do atria contract?

  1. A) just prior to the beginning of diastole
  2. B) during diastole
  3. C) immediately after systole
  4. D) during systole
  5. E) just prior to the beginning of systole

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

103) Which of the following conditions would most likely be due to high blood pressure in a mammal?

  1. A) bursting of blood vessels in capillary beds
  2. B) inability of the right ventricle to contract
  3. C) reversal of normal blood flow direction in arteries
  4. D) destruction of red blood cells
  5. E) forceful contraction of the atria

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

104) Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the closed circulatory system of vertebrates?

  1. I) changing the force of heart contraction
  2. II) constricting and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles

III)      adjusting the volume of blood contained in the veins

  1. IV) synthesizing new capillaries
  2. A) only I and II
  3. B) only I and III
  4. C) only II and III
  5. D) I, II, and III
  6. E) I, II, and IV

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

105) How does the design of the circulatory network contribute to reducing blood pressure in the capillary beds avoid hemorrhage?

  1. A) Blood flow through the capillaries is essentially frictionless, and this reduces the amount of pressure on their walls.
  2. B) The total cross-sectional diameter of the arterial circulation increases with progression from artery to arteriole to capillary, leading to a reduced blood pressure.
  3. C) Fluid loss from the arteries is high enough that pressure drops off significantly by the time blood reaches the capillaries.
  4. D) Capillary beds have the thickest walls of any blood vessel to resist these high pressures.
  5. E) Capillaries are always open to ensure adequate space for blood to flow into.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

106) Lymph hearts are pumping structures that drive lymph through the lymphatic system, returning it to the circulatory system at the large veins entering the heart. Researchers examined rate and strength of pumping of lymph hearts in two species of amphibians, a toad (Bufo marinus) and a frog (Rana catesbiana). During hemorrhage or dehydration, the volume of blood in the circulatory system falls. (E. A. DeGrauw and S. S. Hillman. 2004. General function and endocrine control of the posterior lymph hearts in Bufo marinus and Rana catesbiana. Physiological and Biochemical Zoology 77(4):594-600.) What effect would increasing lymph heart pressure have first?

  1. A) Blood volume would increase.
  2. B) Blood volume would decrease.
  3. C) Hemorrhage would increase.
  4. D) Hemorrhage would decrease.
  5. E) There would be no impact on blood volume or hemorrhage

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

107) You cut your finger, and after putting pressure on the wound for several minutes, you notice that it is still bleeding profusely. What may be the problem?

  1. A) Platelets are not functioning properly, or there are too few to be effective.
  2. B) Mast cells are not releasing their chemical messengers.
  3. C) There are too many antigens to allow clotting.
  4. D) Hemoglobin levels are too high to allow clotting.
  5. E) Macrophages have not yet arrived at the wound site.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

108) Which of the following statements comparing respiration in fish and in mammals is correct?

  1. A) The respiratory medium for fish carries more oxygen than the respiratory medium of mammals.
  2. B) A countercurrent exchange mechanism between the respiratory medium and blood flow is seen in mammals but not in fish.
  3. C) The movement of the respiratory medium in mammals is bidirectional, but in fish it is unidirectional.
  4. D) In blood, oxygen is primarily transported by plasma in fish, but by red blood cells in mammals.
  5. E) The cells that carry out gas exchange in fish are exposed to an aqueous environment, but this is not true for mammals.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

109) Under identical atmospheric conditions, which of the following is true?

  1. A) Freshwater has more oxygen than seawater
  2. B) Freshwater has less oxygen than seawater
  3. C) Freshwater can hold 10-40 times more carbon dioxide than air
  4. D) Freshwater can hold 10-40 times more oxygen than air
  5. E) Freshwater has higher density but lower viscosity than air.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

110) What would be the consequences if we were to reverse the direction of water flow over the gills of a fish, moving water inward past the operculum, past the gills, the out the mouth?

  1. A) Reversal of water flow would reduce efficiency of gas exchange.
  2. B) Reversal of water flow would change the exchange of gases in the body from carbon dioxide out and oxygen in to carbon dioxide in and oxygen out.
  3. C) Reversal of water flow would increase the efficiency of gas exchange.
  4. D) Reversal of water flow would eliminate diffusion of gases.
  5. E) Reversal of water flow would increase the pressure on the capillaries in the gills.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

111) Which of the following events would be predicted by the Bohr shift effect as the amount of carbon dioxide released from your tissues into the blood capillaries increases?

  1. A) The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would increase.
  2. B) The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would decrease.
  3. C) The amount of oxygen in venous blood would increase.
  4. D) The amount of oxygen in venous blood would decrease.
  5. E) There would be no change in the amount of oxygen in either the arterial or venous blood.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

112) You are a physician, and you are seeing a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during exercise. You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues. What is the most likely cause?

  1. A) abnormally shaped platelets
  2. B) abnormal carbonic anhydrase
  3. C) abnormal hemoglobin
  4. D) not enough hemoglobin
  5. E) not enough myoglobin

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 42.7

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 56   Conservation Biology and Global Change

 

1) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?

  1. A) tundra
  2. B) deciduous forests
  3. C) tropics
  4. D) grasslands
  5. E) islands

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) What is the estimated number of extant species on Earth?

  1. A) 1000 to 50 000
  2. B) 50 000 to 150 000
  3. C) 500 000 to 1 000 000
  4. D) 10 000 000 to 100 000 000
  5. E) 5 billion to 10 billion

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Estimates of current rates of extinction

  1. A) indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation rates equal extinction rates.
  2. B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100.
  3. C) indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period.
  4. D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive.
  5. E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now experiencing an extinction (loss of biodiversity) crisis?

  1. A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species.
  2. B) Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to quantify the number of species becoming extinct.
  3. C) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels.
  4. D) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct.
  5. E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

5) Which of the following provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis?

  1. A) the incursion of a non-native species
  2. B) increasing pollution levels
  3. C) decrease in regional productivity
  4. D) high rate of extinction
  5. E) climate change

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because

  1. A) more animals than ever before are going extinct.
  2. B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species.
  3. C) the rate of extinction is unusually high.
  4. D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity.
  5. E) None of the options are correct.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

7) Which of the following terms includes all of the others?

  1. A) species diversity
  2. B) biodiversity
  3. C) genetic diversity
  4. D) ecosystem diversity
  5. E) species richness

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

8) Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine molluscs on the west coast of New Caledonia. Twenty percent of the species found were represented by a single specimen. What does that suggest about the diversity of molluscs in this area?

  1. A) The west coast of New Caledonia is not an appropriate habitat for molluscs.
  2. B) Many of the species from this 20 percent are probably rare.
  3. C) They were not sampling uniformly throughout the area.
  4. D) Many of the species from this 20 percent are most likely just dispersing through the area.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?

  1. I) genetic diversity
  2. II) species diversity

III) ecosystem diversity

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) only II and III

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

10) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that

  1. A) an endangered species is closer to extinction.
  2. B) a threatened species is closer to extinction.
  3. C) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders.
  4. D) endangered species are mainly tropical.
  5. E) only endangered species are vertebrates.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

11) Which of the following groups is most threatened by global extinctions?

  1. A) mammals
  2. B) birds
  3. C) fish
  4. D) amphibians
  5. E) plants

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

12) To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary to

  1. A) monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide levels more closely.
  2. B) differentiate between plant extinction and animal extinction numbers.
  3. C) focus on identifying more species of mammals and birds.
  4. D) identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth.
  5. E) use the average extinction rates of vertebrates as a baseline.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

13) What term did E. O. Wilson coin for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms?

  1. A) bioremediation
  2. B) bioethics
  3. C) biophilia
  4. D) biophobia
  5. E) landscape ecology

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

14) We should care about loss in biodiversity in the populations of other species because of

  1. A)
  2. B) potential loss of medicines and other products yet undiscovered from threatened species.
  3. C) potential loss of genes, some of which may code for proteins useful to humans.
  4. D) the risk to global ecological stability.
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

15) The most serious consequence of a decrease in global biodiversity would be the

  1. A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer.
  2. B) potential loss of ecosystem services on which people depend.
  3. C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species.
  4. D) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species.
  5. E) loss of species for “bioprospecting.”

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

16) With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on biodiversity and the impact to these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved?

  1. A) This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.
  2. B) Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats.
  3. C) The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.
  4. D) The plant diversity provides shade, which lowers global warming.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

17) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?

  1. A) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
  2. B) the depletion of the ozone layer
  3. C) overexploitation of selected species
  4. D) habitat destruction
  5. E) zoned reserves

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

18) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is (are) correct?

  1. I) Only a small percentage of species is immune from extinction.
  2. II) Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.

III) Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) only II and III

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?

  1. A) deciduous forests
  2. B) tropical rain forest
  3. C) grasslands
  4. D) islands

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

20) We should care about loss in biodiversity in other species because of

  1. I) potential loss of medicines and other products yet undiscovered from threatened species.
  2. II) potential loss of genes, some of which may code for proteins useful to humans.

III) the risk to global ecological stability.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only II and III
  4. D) I, II, and III

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) According to most conservation biologists, the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is

  1. A) chemical pollution of water and air.
  2. B) stratospheric ozone depletion.
  3. C) overexploitation of certain species.
  4. D) alteration or destruction of the physical habitat.
  5. E) global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

22) What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations?

  1. A) Genes for adaptive traits to local conditions make microevolution possible.
  2. B) The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion.
  3. C) Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation.
  4. D) Isolated populations become more fit.
  5. E) Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

23) Researchers have been studying a rare population of eighty-seven voles in an isolated area. Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population. Besides having ten additional animals, what benefits are there to importing individuals?

  1. A) Additional animals from a distant population will likely bring genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding depression.
  2. B) Additional animals will bring additional competition and could hurt the population.
  3. C) Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.
  4. D) There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

24) Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by

  1. A) preying on native species.
  2. B) competing with native species for food or light.
  3. C) displacing native species.
  4. D) competing with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat.
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

25) Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to affect

  1. A) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche.
  2. B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates.
  3. C) most organisms that live in the oceans.
  4. D) terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms.
  5. E) edge-adapted species.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

26) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called “flying foxes” threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands?

  1. A) The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants.
  2. B) The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would disrupt the trees’ reproductive cycle.
  3. C) The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings.
  4. D) The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds.
  5. E) The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

27) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis, the one which includes all of the others, is

  1. A) pollution.
  2. B) global warming.
  3. C) habitat destruction.
  4. D) introduced species.
  5. E) human overpopulation.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

28) Of the following ecosystem types, which have been impacted the most by humans?

  1. A) wetland and riparian
  2. B) open and benthic ocean
  3. C) desert and high alpine
  4. D) taiga and second-growth forests
  5. E) tundra and arctic

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

29) The introduction of the brown tree snake in the 1940s to the island of Guam has resulted in

  1. A) eradication of non-native rats and other undesirable/pest species.
  2. B) the extirpation of many of the island’s bird and reptile species.
  3. C) a good lesson in biological control.
  4. D) a new species of hybrids from crossbreeding with a native snake species.
  5. E) its failure to compete with native species and its quick elimination from the island.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

30) Which of the following examples poses the greatest potential threat to biodiversity?

  1. A) replanting, after a clear cut, a monoculture of Douglas fir trees on land that consisted of old-growth Douglas fir, western cedar, and western hemlock
  2. B) allowing previously used farmland to go fallow and begin to fill in with weeds and then shrubs and saplings
  3. C) trapping and relocating large predators, such as mountain lions, that pose a threat as they move into areas of relatively dense human populations
  4. D) importing an Asian insect into the United States to control a weed that competes with staple crops
  5. E) releasing sterilized rainbow trout to boost the sport fishing of a river system that contains native brook trout

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

31) Which of the following is a type of research in which a conservation biologist would be involved?

  1. A) reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
  2. B) studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
  3. C) studying population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
  4. D) determining the effects of hunting white-tailed deer in Vermont
  5. E) determining the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

32) The following statements are correct, with the exception of:

  1. A) Cloning techniques, such as the one used to create “Dolly” are being used to try and resurrect extinct species.
  2. B) Although the cloning process resulted in the birth of a Pyrenean ibex, the ibex died shortly after birth.
  3. C) Preservation of species will no longer be necessary once scientists can resurrect species.
  4. D) Resurrecting species does not get around the issue of genetic diversity.
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. A) rosy periwinkle — medicinal plant that inhibits cancer cell growth
  2. B) extirpation — local extinction
  3. C) acid rain/precipitation — rain, snow, sleet with a pH < 6
  4. D) extinction vortex — processes that result in smaller and smaller population size until all individuals die
  5. E) effective population size — based on the breeding potential of a population

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 56.1, 56.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Small populations are most vulnerable to ________ and ________.

  1. A) inbreeding, genetic drift
  2. B) inbreeding, disease
  3. C) genetic drift, heterozygosity
  4. D) loss of variation, small mate choice
  5. E) loss of adaptability, heterozygosity

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex?

  1. A) The population is geographically divided into smaller populations.
  2. B) The species in question is found only in small pockets of its former range.
  3. C) The effective population size of the species falls below 500.
  4. D) Genetic measurements indicate a loss of genetic variation over time.
  5. E) The population is no longer connected by corridors.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

36) According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving a population that is in an extinction vortex?

  1. A) determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective population size
  2. B) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat
  3. C) introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation
  4. D) determining and remedying the cause of its decline
  5. E) reducing the population size of its predators and competitors

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

37) Review the formula for effective population size. Imagine a population of 1000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size?

  1. A) 1000
  2. B) 1200
  3. C) 600
  4. D) 400
  5. E) 300

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

38) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true?

  1. A) The population will enter the extinction vortex.
  2. B) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time.
  3. C) The genetic variation in the population will decrease over time.
  4. D) The effective population size will be greater than the actual population size.
  5. E) The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

39) Which of the following life history traits can potentially influence effective population size (Ne)?

  1. A) maturation age
  2. B) genetic relatedness among individuals in a population
  3. C) family and population size
  4. D) gene flow between geographically separated populations
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

40) Modern conservation biology increasingly aims at

  1. A) protecting federally listed endangered species.
  2. B) lobbying for strict enforcement of the U.S. Endangered Species Act.
  3. C) sustaining biodiversity of entire ecosystems and communities.
  4. D) maintaining genetic diversity in all species.
  5. E) saving as much habitat as possible from development and exploitation.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

41) The word triage originated during World War I and was first used by French doctors in prioritizing patients based on the severity of their wounds, because there were more wounded soldiers in need of urgent care than there were resources to treat them. Conservation biologists have to make similar determinations with degraded ecosystems. Which of the following is the most important consideration when it comes to managing for maintenance of biodiversity?

  1. A) identifying large, high-profile vertebrates first, because steps to saving them would be most recognized by the public
  2. B) determining which species is most important for conserving biodiversity as a whole
  3. C) replanting suitable habitat for fauna
  4. D) assessing the economic costs and the gains for society
  5. E) maintaining optimum size of all populations in the ecosystem

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

42) Which of the following species was driven to extinction by overexploitation by hunters/fishermen?

  1. A) African elephant
  2. B) the great auk
  3. C) North American bluefin tuna
  4. D) flying foxes
  5. E) American bison

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

43) The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the declining-population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is

  1. A) S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population’s decline.
  2. B) S-PA kicks in for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500.
  3. C) D-PA would likely involve bringing together individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed in order to promote genetic diversity.
  4. D) S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery.
  5. E) D-PA would use recently collected population data to calculate an extinction vortex.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

44) The long-term problem with red-cockaded woodpecker habitat intervention in the southwest United States is

  1. A) the only habitat that can support their recovery is large tracts of mature southern pine forest.
  2. B) the mature pine forests in which they live cannot ever be subjected to forest fire.
  3. C) all of the appropriate red-cockaded woodpecker habitat has already been logged or converted to agricultural land.
  4. D) the social organization of the red-cockaded woodpecker precludes the dispersal of reproductive individuals.
  5. E) what habitat remains for the red-cockaded woodpecker does not contain trees suitable for nest-cavity construction.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

45) Managing southwestern forests specifically for the red-cockaded woodpecker

  1. A) was wholeheartedly supported by the timber extraction industry.
  2. B) contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest bird species.
  3. C) caused other species of songbird to decline.
  4. D) involved strict fire suppression measures.
  5. E) involved the creation of fragmented forest habitat.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

46) Which of the following is true about the current research regarding forest fragmentation?

  1. A) Fragmented forests support a greater biodiversity because they result in the combination of forest-edge species and forest-interior species.
  2. B) Fragmented forests support a lesser biodiversity because the forested-adapted species leave, and only the edge and open-field species can occupy fragmented forests.
  3. C) Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife preserves.
  4. D) Harvesting timber that results in forest fragmentation results in less soil erosion.
  5. E) The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase because of the new habitats created.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) On Easter Island, data show that it was once covered by massive palm trees. How can an ecosystem collapse from removal of just one species of large tree?

  1. I) Without large trees, soil erosion increases and reduces productivity.
  2. II) Species of plants needing shade no longer have it.

III)      Large trees are habitats for many species.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) I, II, and III

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

48) Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as invasive?

  1. A) endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species
  2. B) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species
  3. C) introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species
  4. D) endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

49) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as

  1. A) endemic sinks.
  2. B) critical communities.
  3. C) biodiversity hot spots.
  4. D) endemic metapopulations.
  5. E) bottlenecks.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

50) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss?

  1. A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats.
  2. B) In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place.
  3. C) Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction.
  4. D) Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments.
  5. E) Fragments generate silt that negatively affects sensitive river and stream organisms.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

51) Cowbirds utilize fragmented forests effectively by

  1. A) feeding on the fruits of shrubs that tend to grow at the forest/open-field interface.
  2. B) parasitizing the nests of forest birds, and feeding on open-field insects.
  3. C) roosting in forest trees, and nesting in grassy fields.
  4. D) outcompeting other songbird species in fragmented communities.
  5. E) using forest cover to escape from predators in their normal grassland habitat.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

52) Which of the following is consistent with forest fragmentation research?

  1. A) Productivity is the same in both fragmented forests and forest interiors.
  2. B) Edge communities consistently have low species diversity.
  3. C) Forest-interior species show declines in small patch communities.
  4. D) New-edge species that migrate in do not seem to compete with forest species and often increase biodiversity in fragmented forests.
  5. E) Species diversity is always lower in fragmented forests when compared to forest interiors in the same region.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

53) How are movement corridors potentially harmful to certain species?

  1. A) They increase inbreeding.
  2. B) They promote dispersion.
  3. C) They spread disease and parasites.
  4. D) They increase genetic diversity.
  5. E) They allow seasonal migration.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

54) Biodiversity hot spots are not necessarily the best choice for nature preserves because

  1. A) hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to wildlife viewers.
  2. B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive.
  3. C) a hot spot for one group of organisms may not be a hot spot for another group.
  4. D) hot spots are designated by abiotic factors present, not biotic factors.
  5. E) designated hot spots change on a daily basis.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

55) Which of the following is a (are) potential disadvantage(s) of movement corridors for wildlife?

  1. A) reduce wildlife-vehicle collisions
  2. B) route for spread of parasites/disease
  3. C) promote dispersal and reduce inbreeding
  4. D) potential increase in predation along corridor
  5. E) B and D

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) Key goals of zoned reserves include all of the following, except

  1. A) provide a stable economy for people living in the area
  2. B) protect wildlife
  3. C) practice sustainable agriculture
  4. D) promote ecotourism
  5. E) remove all human presence and activity

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

57) A land developer and several ecologists are discussing how a parcel of private land should be developed while saving twenty hectares as natural habitat. The land developer suggests that the twenty hectares be divided into twenty separate one-hectare areas. The ecologists suggest that it would be better to have one intact parcel of twenty hectares. What is the significance of these different arrangements of the twenty hectares?

  1. A) There really is no difference; they should both work equally well.
  2. B) The isolated hectare plots increase the ability of individuals to disperse from one habitat to another.
  3. C) The isolated plots are more vulnerable to edge effects.
  4. D) The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

58) What is the biggest problem with selecting a site for a preserve?

  1. A) There is always a conflict about use of land set aside for preservation.
  2. B) Making a proper selection is difficult because currently the environmental conditions of almost any site change so quickly.
  3. C) Keystone species are difficult to identify in potential preserve sites.
  4. D) Only lands that are not useful to human activities are available for preserves.
  5. E) Most of the best sites are inaccessible by land transportation, so making roads to them is often prohibitively expensive.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

59) Which of the following is true about “hot spots”?

  1. A) One-third of all species on Earth occupy less than 1.5% of Earth’s land area (hot spots).
  2. B) All of the plants and animals containing genes that may be useful to humankind are located in Earth’s hot spots.
  3. C) Around 75% of all of the undiscovered species of organisms live in ecological hot spots.
  4. D) As conservation measures improve over the next ten years, hot spots will likely disappear.
  5. E) The hot spots that are in most dire need of remediation are located in the tundra.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

60) What is a critical load?

  1. A) the amount of nutrient augmentation necessary to bring a depleted habitat back to its former level
  2. B) the level of a given toxin in an ecosystem that is lethal to 50% of the species present
  3. C) the maximum abundance level of a particular species, beyond which additional numbers will degrade a habitat
  4. D) the amount of added nutrient that can be absorbed by plants without damaging ecosystem integrity
  5. E) the number of predators an ecosystem can support that effectively culls prey populations to healthy levels

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

61) The use of DDT as an insecticide in the United States has been outlawed since 1971, yet is still a problem for certain top-level carnivores in the United States. Which of the following choices best explains this apparent incongruity?

  1. A) DDT is still used for mosquito control in tropical countries, and certain migratory predators can be affected by a seasonal biomagnification.
  2. B) DDT is persistent in the environment and all of the pre-1971 DDT is still available in toxic form to poison top-level carnivores.
  3. C) Pre-1971 DDT has been deposited in certain habitats, particularly wetlands and estuaries, so predators in these ecosystems are vulnerable to biomagnifications of DDT.
  4. D) Whereas most DDT-susceptible species have become resistant to persistent DDT, others are still vulnerable.
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

62) Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because

  1. A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides.
  2. B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested.
  3. C) land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor.
  4. D) grains raised for feeding livestock must be fortified, and thus require additional nutrients.
  5. E) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

63) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulphur and nitrogen. These air pollutants can be responsible for

  1. A) the death of fish in lakes.
  2. B) precipitation with a pH as low as 3.0.
  3. C) calcium deficiency in soils.
  4. D) direct damage to plants by leaching nutrients from the leaves.
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

64) Atmospheric carbon dioxide has risen dramatically during the past century. Some global implications of climate change include all the following, with the exception of

  1. A) shifting of ecosystems towards the poles.
  2. B) insect pest outbreaks.
  3. C) faster rate of ice melt in the north and slower rate of ice melt in the south.
  4. D) some species are unable to disperse or adapt fast enough to changing conditions.
  5. E) current agricultural land may become unsuitable for agriculture.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

For the following questions, match the statement with the appropriate term/phrase.

 

65) This causes an increase in the intensity of UV radiation reaching Earth.

  1. A) depletion of ozone layer
  2. B) acid precipitation
  3. C) biological magnification
  4. D) greenhouse effect
  5. E) eutrophication

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

66) This term refers to the reflecting and absorption of infrared radiation by atmospheric methane, carbon dioxide, and water.

  1. A) depletion of ozone layer
  2. B) acid precipitation
  3. C) biological magnification
  4. D) greenhouse effect
  5. E) eutrophication

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) This is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into aquatic ecosystems.

  1. A) depletion of ozone layer
  2. B) acid precipitation
  3. C) biological magnification
  4. D) greenhouse effect
  5. E) eutrophication

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

68) This causes extremely high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds.

  1. A) depletion of ozone layer
  2. B) acid precipitation
  3. C) biological magnification
  4. D) greenhouse effect
  5. E) eutrophication

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

69) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?

  1. I) Burning reduces available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers.
  2. II) Deforestation and suburbanization reduce an area’s net primary productivity.

III) Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth’s climate.

  1. IV) By using fossil fuels we are destroying a nonrenewable resource.
  2. A) only I and III
  3. B) only II and IV
  4. C) only II, III, and IV
  5. D) only I, II, III, and IV

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

70) Eutrophication is often caused by excess limiting nutrient runoff from agricultural fields into aquatic ecosystems. This results in massive algal blooms, which eventually die and decompose, ultimately depleting the dissolved oxygen and killing large numbers of fish and other aquatic organism. Predict which of the following human actions would best address the problem of eutrophication near agricultural areas?

  1. A) After each eutrophication event, remove the dead fish and invertebrates to place on agricultural fields instead of fertilizer.
  2. B) Determine which limiting nutrient is responsible for the algal bloom and use other fertilizers to apply to crops.
  3. C) Remove the algae before it dies and decomposes to prevent eutrophication from occurring.
  4. D) Determine critical nutrient loads required for certain crops and do not exceed this amount during fertilizer application.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

71) Elevated carbon dioxide levels have been shown to contribute to the greenhouse effect, resulting in an increase in mean global temperature. Ecosystems where the largest warming has already occurred include snow-covered northern coniferous forests, tundra, and arctic sea ice habitats. Which statement best explains how the elimination of ice-covered ecosystems affects the rise or fall in global temperature?

  1. A) Melting ice releases dissolved ozone gas, which adds to the greenhouse effect.
  2. B) More reflective surfaces of ice are replaced with darker, more absorptive surfaces, thereby contributing to the warming trend.
  3. C) Large-scale ice melts actually contribute toward lowering global temperatures by decreasing salinity of the oceans.
  4. D) Carbon dioxide levels are lowered as a result of greater volume of water to accommodate greater dissolved gas.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

72) The main goal of sustainable development is to

  1. A) involve more countries in conservation efforts.
  2. B) use only natural resources in the construction of new buildings.
  3. C) use natural resources such that they do not decline over time.
  4. D) reevaluate and re-implement management plans over time.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

73) The biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future is

  1. A) the pressures of its growing population.
  2. B) its small size (as a country), which may not be able to maintain large enough reserves.
  3. C) the potential for disturbance of sensitive species in reserves by ecotourists.
  4. D) spread of disease and parasites via corridors from neighboring countries.
  5. E) the large number of Costa Rican species already in the extinction vortex.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

74) Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves?

  1. A) Costa Rica
  2. B) Canada
  3. C) China
  4. D) United States
  5. E) Mexico

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 56.3, 56.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

75) Based on what you know about ecosystem stability and the information provided in the graph, which community (A-E) would likely support the most biodiversity?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

76) Study the information above about quail habitats. Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

77) Study the information above about quail habitats. Assuming that only one quail can occupy a habitat where all cover requirements are met, what is the maximum number of quail that could inhabit any of the hypothetical plots shown?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 6
  5. E) 9

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

Use the graph and information provided in the paragraph below to answer the following questions.

 

Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph below shows the mean dates of arrival, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000.

 

 

78) The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to

  1. A) pesticide use.
  2. B) earlier migration returns of flycatchers.
  3. C) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars.
  4. D) global warming.
  5. E) acid precipitation in Europe.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

79) Why were ecologists concerned about the shift in the peak caterpillar season from June 3, 1980, to May 15, 2000?

  1. A) The caterpillars would have eaten much of the foliage of the trees where flycatchers would have nested, rendering their nests more open to predation.
  2. B) The earlier hatching of caterpillars would compete with other insect larval forms which the flycatchers would also use to feed their young.
  3. C) The 2000 flycatcher nestlings would miss the peak caterpillar season and might not be as well fed.
  4. D) The flycatchers would have to migrate sooner to match their brood-rearing to the time of peak caterpillar season.
  5. E) Pesticides, which have a negative effect on the ecosystem, would have to be used to control the earlier outbreak of caterpillar hatching.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

80) If the nestlings of flycatchers are to benefit from the shift in peak caterpillar season from June 3, 1980 to May 15, 2000, in which direction should the May 25, 2000 peak bird hatching date move?

  1. A) to the left so it corresponds to the mean date of arrival in 2000
  2. B) to the left so it corresponds with the new peak caterpillar season in 2000
  3. C) to the right so there is no overlap in the May 15 and May 25 (year 2000) curves
  4. D) no movement is necessary because the caterpillars grow slowly so the nestlings will have enough food to eat
  5. E) no movement is necessary because herbicides can be used to kill the vegetation the caterpillars feed on and therefore the peak hatching time of caterpillars will move to the right from May 15 to May 25, 2000

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

81) Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the analysis the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses?

  1. A) Their cost is difficult to estimate and people take them for granted.
  2. B) They are not worth much and are usually not considered.
  3. C) There are no laws that require investigation of ecosystem services in environmental planning.
  4. D) There are too many variables to ecosystem services, making their calculation impossible.
  5. E) Ecosystem services only take into account abiotic factors that affect local environments.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

82) You are trying to determine if a particular species will become invasive in your province. You know there are common attributes of invasive species; which attribute would be least applicable to invasive species?

  1. A) well-developed dispersal mechanisms
  2. B) low ecological tolerance
  3. C) fast maturation
  4. D) high reproductive output
  5. E) known to be invasive in many countries

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

83) Some populations of sea turtles and Galápagos tortoises are maintained by people who collect their eggs and hatch/rear the young in captivity. Why is this practice supported by conservationists?

  1. A) The eggs are given only to people who need high protein.
  2. B) It is an inexpensive way to raise young turtles and tortoises for food.
  3. C) Introduced species can be effective predators and consume all or most of the eggs that are laid.
  4. D) This is a good way to census the wild populations.
  5. E) You want to prevent both species from over-reproducing.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

84) Your friend is wary of environmentalists’ claims that global warming could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you use in response to your friend’s suspicions?

  1. A) We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased over the past 150 years.
  2. B) Through measurements and observations, we know that CO2levels and temperature fluctuations are directly correlated, even in prehistoric times.
  3. C) Global warming could have significant effects on agriculture in North America.
  4. D) Sea levels will likely rise, displacing as much as 50% of the world’s human population.
  5. E) All statements listed could be used.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 56.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

85) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that

  1. A) its habitat is fragmented.
  2. B) it is a rare, top-level predator.
  3. C) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.
  4. D) its genetic diversity is very low.
  5. E) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

86) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth’s atmosphere over the past 150 years is

  1. A) increased worldwide primary production.
  2. B) increased worldwide standing crop.
  3. C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
  4. D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
  5. E) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

87) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity?

  1. A) overharvesting of commercially important species
  2. B) introduced species that compete with native species
  3. C) pollution of Earth’s air, water, and soil
  4. D) disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinct
  5. E) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

88) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?

  1. A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.
  2. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.
  3. C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers.
  4. D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.
  5. E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

89) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?

  1. A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.
  2. B) Establish a reserve that protects the population’s habitat.
  3. C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
  4. D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
  5. E) Control populations of the endangered population’s predators and competitors.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

90) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is not correct?

  1. A) About 25% of Earth’s land area is now protected.
  2. B) National parks are one of many types of protected areas.
  3. C) Most protected areas are too small to protect species.
  4. D) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area.
  5. E) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

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