Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition Plus Mastering Biology 2nd Ed By Jane B. Reece – Test Bank

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Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition Plus Mastering Biology 2nd Ed By Jane B. Reece – Test Bank

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 5   The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules

 

1) Humans and mice differ because of which of the following?

  1. A) Their cells have different small organic molecules.
  2. B) Their cells make different types of large biological molecules.
  3. C) Their cells make different types of lipids.
  4. D) Their cells have some differences in the sequence of nucleotides in their nucleic acids.
  5. E) Their cells make different types of proteins.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Molecules with which functional groups may form polymers via dehydration reactions?

  1. A) hydroxyl groups
  2. B) carbonyl groups
  3. C) carboxyl groups
  4. D) either carbonyl or carboxyl groups
  5. E) either hydroxyl or carboxyl groups

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.1, 4.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

3) Which of these molecules is not formed by dehydration reactions?

  1. A) fatty acids
  2. B) disaccharides
  3. C) DNA
  4. D) protein
  5. E) amylose

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Which of these classes of biological molecules consist of both small molecules and macromolecular polymers?

  1. A) lipids
  2. B) carbohydrates
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids
  5. E) lipids, carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids all consist of only macromolecular polymers

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Which of the following is not a polymer?

  1. A) glucose
  2. B) starch
  3. C) cellulose
  4. D) chitin
  5. E) DNA

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

  1. A) phosphodiester linkages
  2. B) hydrolysis
  3. C) dehydration reactions
  4. D) ionic bonding of monomers
  5. E) the formation of disulphide bridges between monomers

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long?

  1. A) 12
  2. B) 11
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 9
  5. E) 8

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

  1. A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
  2. B) Dehydration reactions eliminate water from lipid membranes, and hydrolysis makes lipid membranes water permeable.
  3. C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
  4. D) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers.
  5. E) Dehydration reactions ionize water molecules and add hydroxyl groups to polymers; hydrolysis reactions release hydroxyl groups from polymers.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

9) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?

  1. A) starch
  2. B) glycogen
  3. C) cellulose
  4. D) chitin
  5. E) amylopectin

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

  1. A) C18H36O18
  2. B) C18H32O16
  3. C) C6H10O5
  4. D) C18H10O15
  5. E) C3H6O3

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

11) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the α form. Which of the following molecules could amylase break down?

  1. A) glycogen
  2. B) cellulose
  3. C) chitin
  4. D) glycogen and chitin only
  5. E) glycogen, cellulose, and chitin

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

12) On food packages, to what does the term insoluble fibre refer?

  1. A) cellulose
  2. B) polypeptides
  3. C) starch
  4. D) amylopectin
  5. E) chitin

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

13) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) lipid.
  3. C) monosaccharide
  4. D) carbohydrate and lipid only.
  5. E) carbohydrate and monosaccharide only.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?

  1. A) as a pentose
  2. B) as a hexose
  3. C) as a monosaccharide
  4. D) as a disaccharide
  5. E) as a polysaccharide

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) All of the following are polysaccharides except

  1. A) lactose.
  2. B) glycogen.
  3. C) chitin.
  4. D) cellulose.
  5. E) amylopectin.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?

  1. A) They are both polymers of glucose.
  2. B) They are cis-trans isomers of each other.
  3. C) They can both be digested by humans.
  4. D) They are both used for energy storage in plants.
  5. E) They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Which of the following is true of cellulose?

  1. A) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose.
  2. B) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells.
  3. C) It is digestible by bacteria in the human gut.
  4. D) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
  5. E) It is a polymer composed of enantiomers of glucose, it is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells, it is digestible by bacteria in the human gut, and it is a major structural component of plant cell walls.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because

  1. A) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose.
  2. B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the β glycosidic linkages of starch but not the α glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
  3. C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α glycosidic linkages of starch but not the β glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
  4. D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract.
  5. E) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is glucose with a nitrogen-containing group.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) Which of the following statements concerning saturated fats is not true?

  1. A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
  2. B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
  3. C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
  4. D) They contain more hydrogen than unsaturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
  5. E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

20) A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a

  1. A) carbohydrate.
  2. B) fatty acid.
  3. C) protein.
  4. D) nucleic acid.
  5. E) hydrocarbon.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Which of the following statements is true for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?

  1. A) They are insoluble in water.
  2. B) They are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and phosphate.
  3. C) They contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates.
  4. D) They are made by dehydration reactions.
  5. E) They contain nitrogen.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) The label on a container of margarine lists “hydrogenated vegetable oil” as the major ingredient. What is the result of adding hydrogens to vegetable oil?

  1. A) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has a lower melting point.
  2. B) The hydrogenated vegetable oil stays solid at room temperature.
  3. C) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has more “kinks” in the fatty acid chains.
  4. D) The hydrogenated vegetable oil has fewer trans fatty acids.
  5. E) The hydrogenated vegetable oil is less likely to clog arteries.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?

  1. A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.
  2. B) They have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids.
  3. C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.
  4. D) They are usually liquid at room temperature.
  5. E) They are usually produced by plants.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

24) Which modifications of fatty acids will best keep triglycerides solid at warmer temperatures?

  1. A) creating cis double bonds to the fatty acids
  2. B) adding hydrogens to the fatty acids
  3. C) creating trans double bonds to the fatty acids
  4. D) adding hydrogens or trans double bonds to the fatty acids
  5. E) adding cis double bonds and trans double bonds to the fatty acids

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

25) Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids?

  1. A) They are essential components of cell membranes.
  2. B) They are not soluble in water.
  3. C) They are made of fatty acids.
  4. D) They are hydrophilic compounds.
  5. E) They contribute to atherosclerosis.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) All of the following contain amino acids except

  1. A) hemoglobin.
  2. B) cholesterol.
  3. C) antibodies.
  4. D) enzymes.
  5. E) insulin.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.3, 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires

  1. A) the release of a water molecule.
  2. B) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule.
  3. C) the addition of a nitrogen atom.
  4. D) the addition of a water molecule.
  5. E) the release of a nitrous oxide molecule.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

28) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

  1. A) different side chains (R groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon
  2. B) different side chains (R groups) attached to the amino groups
  3. C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an α carbon
  4. D) different structural and optical isomers
  5. E) different asymmetric carbons

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

29) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the following?

  1. A) removal of a water molecule
  2. B) addition of a water molecule
  3. C) formation of a glycosidic bond
  4. D) formation of a hydrogen bond
  5. E) both removal of a water molecule and formation of a hydrogen bond

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Polysaccharides, triacylglycerides, and proteins are similar in that they

  1. A) are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis.
  2. B) are synthesized from subunits by dehydration reactions.
  3. C) are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers.
  4. D) are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions.
  5. E) all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.1-5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

31) Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?

  1. A) triacylglycerides
  2. B) polysaccharides
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) triacylglycerides and proteins only
  5. E) triacylglycerides, polysaccharides, and proteins

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.1-5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

32) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?

  1. A) 101
  2. B) 100
  3. C) 99
  4. D) 98
  5. E) 97

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

33) What aspects of protein structure are stabilized or assisted by hydrogen bonds?

  1. A) primary structure
  2. B) secondary structure
  3. C) tertiary structure
  4. D) quaternary structure
  5. E) secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) How many different kinds of polypeptides, each composed of 12 amino acids, could be synthesized using the 20 common amino acids?

  1. A) 412
  2. B) 1220
  3. C) 240
  4. D) 20
  5. E) 2012

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

35) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

  1. A) peptide bonds
  2. B) hydrogen bonds
  3. C) disulphide bonds
  4. D) phosphodiester bonds
  5. E) peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulphide bonds

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

36) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

  1. A) peptide bonds
  2. B) hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
  3. C) disulphide bonds
  4. D) hydrophobic interactions
  5. E) hydrogen bonds between the R groups

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

37) Which type of interaction stabilizes the α helix and the β pleated sheet structures of proteins?

  1. A) hydrophobic interactions
  2. B) disulphide bonds
  3. C) ionic bonds
  4. D) hydrogen bonds
  5. E) peptide bonds

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) Which level of protein structure do the α helix and the β pleated sheet represent?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
  5. E) primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) The amino acids of the protein keratin are arranged predominantly in an α helix. This secondary structure is stabilized by

  1. A) covalent bonds.
  2. B) peptide bonds.
  3. C) ionic bonds.
  4. D) polar bonds.
  5. E) hydrogen bonds.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

40) The tertiary structure of a protein is the

  1. A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.
  2. B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.
  3. C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.
  4. D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet.
  5. E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

41) What type of covalent bond between amino acid side chains (R groups) functions in maintaining a polypeptide’s specific three-dimensional shape?

  1. A) ionic bond
  2. B) hydrophobic interaction
  3. C) van der Waals interaction
  4. D) disulphide bond
  5. E) hydrogen bond

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most important?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

43) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is -CH2-OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid leucine is -CH2-CH-(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution?

  1. A) Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
  2. B) Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
  3. C) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior of the globular protein.
  4. D) Both serine and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
  5. E) Both serine and leucine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

44) Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded polypeptides?

  1. A) Alzheimer’s only
  2. B) Parkinson’s only
  3. C) diabetes mellitus only
  4. D) Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s only
  5. E) Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, and diabetes mellitus

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

45) Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would

  1. A) alter the primary structure of the protein, but not its tertiary structure or function.
  2. B) cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold.
  3. C) always alter the biological activity or function of the protein.
  4. D) always alter the primary structure of the protein and disrupt its biological activity.
  5. E) always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and affect its biological activity.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

46) Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of β hemoglobin and two molecules of α hemoglobin. In sickle-cell disease, as a result of a single amino acid change, the mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibres. Based on this information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits

  1. A) altered primary structure.
  2. B) altered secondary structure.
  3. C) altered tertiary structure.
  4. D) altered quaternary structure.
  5. E) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary structures may or may not be altered.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

47) What methods may be used to elucidate the structures of purified proteins?

  1. A) X-ray crystallography
  2. B) bioinformatics
  3. C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
  4. D) NMR spectroscopy
  5. E) both X-ray crystallography and NMR spectroscopy

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

48) In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like valine?

  1. A) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water
  2. B) on the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water
  3. C) in the transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
  4. D) in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
  5. E) anywhere in the protein, with equal probability

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

49) Which of the following techniques uses the amino acid sequences of polypeptides to predict a protein’s three-dimensional structure?

  1. A) X-ray crystallography
  2. B) bioinformatics
  3. C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
  4. D) NMR spectroscopy
  5. E) high-speed centrifugation

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

50) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be labelled?

  1. A) phospholipids
  2. B) nucleic acids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) amylose
  5. E) both proteins and nucleic acids

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

51) What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?

  1. A) tertiary protein
  2. B) chaperonin
  3. C) enzyme protein
  4. D) renaturing protein
  5. E) denaturing protein

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

52) DNAase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNAase?

  1. A) The two strands of the double helix would separate.
  2. B) The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.
  3. C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
  4. D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
  5. E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.1, 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

53) Which of the following statements about the 5′ end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is correct?

  1. A) The 5′ end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
  2. B) The 5′ end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
  3. C) The 5′ end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.
  4. D) The 5′ end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
  5. E) The 5′ end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

54) One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to

  1. A) transmit genetic information to offspring.
  2. B) function in the synthesis of proteins.
  3. C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.
  4. D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.
  5. E) form the genes of higher organisms.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) If 14C-labelled uridine triphosphate is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labelled?

  1. A) phospholipids
  2. B) DNA
  3. C) RNA
  4. D) both DNA and RNA
  5. E) proteins

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

56) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?

  1. A) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
  2. B) a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
  3. C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
  4. D) a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil
  5. E) a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

57) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?

  1. A) guanine and adenine
  2. B) cytosine and uracil
  3. C) thymine and guanine
  4. D) ribose and deoxyribose
  5. E) adenine and thymine

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

58) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?

  1. A) cytosine and guanine
  2. B) guanine and adenine
  3. C) adenine and thymine
  4. D) thymine and uracil
  5. E) uracil and cytosine

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

59) If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?

  1. A) 10
  2. B) 20
  3. C) 40
  4. D) 80
  5. E) impossible to tell from the information given

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be composed of

  1. A) 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules.
  2. B) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.
  3. C) 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules.
  4. D) 120 adenine and 120 cytosine molecules.
  5. E) 120 guanine and 120 thymine molecules.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

61) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA

  1. A) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar.
  2. B) can form a double-stranded molecule.
  3. C) is an aldehyde sugar and the sugar in RNA is a keto sugar.
  4. D) is in the α configuration and the sugar in RNA is in the β configuration.
  5. E) contains one less oxygen atom.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2, 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

62) Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between DNA and RNA?

  1. A) DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not.
  2. B) The bases in DNA form base-paired duplexes, whereas the bases in RNA do not.
  3. C) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
  4. D) DNA contains the base uracil, whereas RNA contains the base thymine.
  5. E) DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not; the bases in DNA form base-paired duplexes, whereas the bases in RNA do not; and DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

63) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5’ATTGCA3′, the other complementary strand would have the sequence

  1. A) 5’TAACGT3′.
  2. B) 5’TGCAAT3′.
  3. C) 5’UAACGU3′.
  4. D) 3’UAACGU5′.
  5. E) 5’UGCAAU3′.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

64) What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

  1. A) sugar-phosphate backbone
  2. B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
  3. C) disulphide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes
  4. D) twisting of the molecule to form an α helix
  5. E) three-component structure of the nucleotides

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

65) A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism

  1. A) is more closely related to humans than to frogs.
  2. B) is more closely related to frogs than to humans.
  3. C) evolved at about the same time as frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.
  4. D) is more closely related to humans than to rats.
  5. E) is more closely related to frogs than to humans and also evolved at about the same time as frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

66) Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

  1. A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water
  2. B) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
  3. C) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water
  4. D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water
  5. E) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.1-5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P-labelled phosphate, which of these molecules will be labelled?

  1. A) phospholipids
  2. B) nucleic acids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) amylose
  5. E) both phospholipids and nucleic acids

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

68) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 15N, which of these molecules will be labelled?

  1. A) fatty acids only
  2. B) nucleic acids only
  3. C) proteins only
  4. D) amylase only
  5. E) both proteins and nucleic acids

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

69) How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution?

  1. A) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate.
  2. B) Proteins will unfold (denature).
  3. C) Starch will hydrolyze into monomeric sugars.
  4. D) Proteins will hydrolyze into amino acids.
  5. E) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate, and proteins will unfold (denature).

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2, 5.4, 5.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

70) Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

  1. A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide
  2. B) amino acid/protein
  3. C) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer
  4. D) deoxyribonucleotide/DNA
  5. E) ribonucleotide/RNA

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

71) Which of the four classes of biological molecules is not a polymer and thus isn’t formed by dehydration?

  1. A) carbohydrates
  2. B) lipids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids
  5. E) All can be considered polymers.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

72) The basis for diversity, both within a species and among species, is a result of the

  1. A) arrangement of a few base molecules into many different macromolecular combinations.
  2. B) shared structures of polymers and lipids.
  3. C) infinite number of base molecules to build from.
  4. D) ratio of lipid to protein.
  5. E) fact that some individuals have mutations.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

73) Which class of biological molecules are grouped together because they are hydrophobic?

  1. A) carbohydrates
  2. B) lipids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids
  5. E) This is not a criterion for grouping molecules.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

74) Which class of biological molecules are grouped together because their monomers are amino acids?

  1. A) carbohydrates
  2. B) lipids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids
  5. E) This is not a criterion for grouping molecules.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

75) Which class of biological molecules are grouped together because its monomers contain both a nitrogenous base and a five-carbon sugar?

  1. A) carbohydrates
  2. B) lipids
  3. C) proteins
  4. D) nucleic acids
  5. E) This is not a criterion for grouping molecules.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

76) The covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides by way of dehydration is called a(n)

  1. A) hydrogen bond.
  2. B) sulphide bridge.
  3. C) glycosidic link.
  4. D) glucose bridge.
  5. E) disaccharide link.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

77) The genome of humans and chimpanzees are ________ identical.

  1. A) less than 50%
  2. B) 70-75%
  3. C) 85-90%
  4. D) 95-98%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

78) The use of computer software to analyze large genetic and protein data sets is known as

  1. A) genomics.
  2. B) proteomics.
  3. C) bioinformatics.
  4. D) sequencing.
  5. E) molecular genealogy.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.6

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

79) If two molecules of the general type shown in the above figure were linked together, carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be

  1. A) maltose.
  2. B) fructose.
  3. C) glucose.
  4. D) galactose.
  5. E) sucrose.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

80) Which of the following descriptors is true of the molecule shown in the above figure?

  1. A) hexose
  2. B) fructose
  3. C) glucose
  4. D) hexose and fructose only
  5. E) hexose and glucose only

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

 

81) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the figure above?

  1. A) It is a saturated fatty acid.
  2. B) A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
  3. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
  4. D) It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
  5. E) It is a saturated fatty acid, a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis, and molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

82) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the above figure?

  1. A) It is a saturated fatty acid.
  2. B) A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
  3. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
  4. D) It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
  5. E) It is a saturated fatty acid, a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis, and molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

83) The molecule shown in the figure above is a(n)

  1. A) polysaccharide.
  2. B) polypeptide.
  3. C) saturated fatty acid.
  4. D) triacylglycerol.
  5. E) unsaturated fatty acid.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

84) What is the structure shown in the figure above?

  1. A) pentose molecule
  2. B) fatty acid molecule
  3. C) steroid molecule
  4. D) oligosaccharide molecule
  5. E) phospholipid molecule

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

85) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in the figure above?

  1. A) It is a hydrolysis reaction.
  2. B) It results in a peptide bond.
  3. C) It joins two fatty acids together.
  4. D) It is a hydrolysis reaction and it results in a peptide bond.
  5. E) It is a hydrolysis reaction, it results in a peptide bond, and it joins two fatty acids together.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

86) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

87) Which bond is a peptide bond?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

88) Which bond is closest to the amino terminus of the molecule?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

89) The structure depicted in the above figure shows the

  1. A) 1—4 linkage of the α glucose monomers of starch.
  2. B) 1—4 linkage of the β glucose monomers of cellulose.
  3. C) double-helical structure of a DNA molecule.
  4. D) α helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
  5. E) β pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

The following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in the figure below. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

 

90) Which molecule has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 14

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

91) Which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide?

  1. A) 1, 2, and 11
  2. B) 3, 7, and 8
  3. C) 5, 9, and 10
  4. D) 11, 12, and 13
  5. E) 12, 14, and 15

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

92) Which of the following molecules contain(s) an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional group?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 10
  5. E) 1 and 4

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

93) Which molecule is glycerol?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 10
  4. D) 14
  5. E) 15

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

94) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 9

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

95) Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 13

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

96) Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?

  1. A) 1, 4, and 6
  2. B) 2, 7, and 8
  3. C) 7, 8, and 13
  4. D) 11, 12, and 13
  5. E) 12, 13, and 15

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

97) Which of the following molecules is an amino acid with a hydrophobic R group or side chain?

  1. A) 3
  2. B) 7
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 13

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

98) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a peptide bond as a result of a dehydration reaction?

  1. A) 2 and 3
  2. B) 3 and 7
  3. C) 7 and 8
  4. D) 8 and 9
  5. E) 12 and 13

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

99) A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration reaction between

  1. A) one molecule of 9 and three molecules of 10.
  2. B) three molecules of 9 and one molecule of 10.
  3. C) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 9.
  4. D) three molecules of 5 and one molecule of 9.
  5. E) one molecule of 5 and three molecules of 10.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

100) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a phosphodiester type of covalent bond?

  1. A) 3 and 4
  2. B) 3 and 8
  3. C) 6 and 15
  4. D) 11 and 12
  5. E) 11 and 13

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

101) Which of the following molecules is the pentose sugar found in RNA?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 6
  4. D) 12
  5. E) 13

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

102) Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 12
  4. D) 13
  5. E) 15

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

103) Which of the following molecules has a functional group that frequently forms covalent bonds that maintain the tertiary structure of a protein?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 8
  5. E) 9

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

104) Which of the following molecules consists of a hydrophilic “head” region and a hydrophobic “tail” region?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 5
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 9
  5. E) 11

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

105) Which of the following statements is false?

  1. A) Molecules 1 and 4 could be joined together by a glycosidic linkage to form a disaccharide.
  2. B) Molecules 9 and 10 could be joined together by ester bonds to form a triacylglycerol.
  3. C) Molecules 2 and 7 could be joined together to form a short peptide.
  4. D) Molecules 2, 7, and 8 could be joined together to form a short peptide.
  5. E) Molecules 14 and 15 could be joined together to form a polypeptide.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each synthesized from four nucleotides.

 

106) Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?

  1. A) polysaccharides
  2. B) proteins
  3. C) DNA
  4. D) RNA

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

107) Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety?

  1. A) polysaccharides
  2. B) proteins
  3. C) DNA
  4. D) RNA

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

108) Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70 molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures. These include at least 34 saccharides, 8 nucleosides, and 20 amino acids. In theory, then, which class of biological polymer has the greatest information-coding capacity?

  1. A) polysaccharides
  2. B) proteins
  3. C) DNA
  4. D) RNA

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

You have just had a breakfast of toast (high-fibre bread) with butter and jam (no added sugar) along with a glass of milk.

 

109) What are the two major polysaccharides you have consumed?

  1. A) fatty acids and pectin
  2. B) cellulose and fructose
  3. C) starch and fructose
  4. D) glucose and fructose
  5. E) cellulose and starch

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

110) Of these two, which one will not be hydrolyzed in your digestive tract?

  1. A) fatty acids
  2. B) cellulose
  3. C) starch
  4. D) glucose
  5. E) fructose

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

111) Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

  1. A) monosaccharide
  2. B) disaccharide
  3. C) starch
  4. D) carbohydrate
  5. E) polysaccharide

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

112) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?

  1. A) the number of carbons
  2. B) the position of the hydroxyl groups
  3. C) the position of the carbonyl group
  4. D) One is a ring form, and the other is a linear chain.
  5. E) One has a nitrogen.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

113) Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

  1. A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
  2. B) They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
  3. C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
  4. D) They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
  5. E) They have fewer fatty acid molecules per fat molecule.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

114) The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the

  1. A) primary level.
  2. B) secondary level.
  3. C) tertiary level.
  4. D) quaternary level.
  5. E) All structural levels are equally affected.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

115) Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?

  1. A) The two strands of the double helix would separate.
  2. B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken.
  3. C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
  4. D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
  5. E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

116) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

  1. A) C60H120O60
  2. B) C6H12O6
  3. C) C60H102O51
  4. D) C60H100O50
  5. E) C60H111O51

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

117) Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA?

  1. A) 5′-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3′ with 3′-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-5′
  2. B) 5′-AGCT-3′ with 5′-TCGA-3′
  3. C) 5′-GCGC-3′ with 5′-TATA-3′
  4. D) 5′-ATGC-3′ with 5′-GCAT-3′
  5. E) All of these pairs are correct.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

118) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?

  1. A) The types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules.
  2. B) The type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule.
  3. C) Whether glucose is in the α or β form.
  4. D) The amount of branching that occurs in the molecule.
  5. E) They have different amounts of hydrogen bonding.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

119) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?

  1. A) chitin
  2. B) cellulose
  3. C) amylopectin
  4. D) amylose
  5. E) starch

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

120) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?

  1. A) an amino group
  2. B) a peptide bond
  3. C) a disulfide bond
  4. D) a β pleated sheet
  5. E) an α helix

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 5.2-5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

121) Why are both cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) considered hydrophobic molecules?

  1. A) Neither have a polar or charged region.
  2. B) Neither have a nonpolar region.
  3. C) Both have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
  4. D) Both are highly reduced molecules.
  5. E) Both mix with water.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

122) How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?

  1. A) The polar heads avoid water, and the nonpolar tails attract water.
  2. B) Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.
  3. C) The polar heads interact with water, and the nonpolar tails do not.
  4. D) The hydrocarbon tails form hydrogen bonds with water.
  5. E) Both the polar head and lipid backbone from hydrogen bonds with water.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

123) What is common to both phospholipids and triglycerides?

  1. A) Both contain serine or some other organic compound.
  2. B) three fatty acids
  3. C) a glycerol backbone
  4. D) a phosphate
  5. E) a single charge

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

124) Which of the following is the best explanation for why vegetable oil is a liquid at room temperature while animal fats are solid?

  1. A) Vegetable oil has more double bonds than animal fats.
  2. B) Vegetable oil has fewer double bonds than animal fats.
  3. C) Animal fats have no amphipathic character.
  4. D) Vegetable oil has longer fatty-acid tails than animal fats have.
  5. E) Vegetable oil has shorter fatty-acid tails than animal fats have.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

125) Why are steroids are considered to be lipids?

  1. A) Because steroids are essential components of cell membranes.
  2. B) Because steroids are not soluble in water.
  3. C) Because steroids are made of fatty acids.
  4. D) Because steroids contribute to atherosclerosis.
  5. E) Because steroids are hydrophilic.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

126) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that protein structure and function are correlated?

  1. A) Proteins function best at certain temperatures.
  2. B) Proteins have four distinct levels of structure and many functions.
  3. C) Enzymes tend to be globular in shape.
  4. D) Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally.
  5. E) Proteins have many roles in the cell.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

127) You have just sequenced a new protein found in mice and observe that sulphur-containing cysteine residues occur at regular intervals. What is the significance of this finding?

  1. A) Cysteine residues are required for the formation of α-helices and β-pleated sheets.
  2. B) It will be important to include cysteine in the diet of the mice.
  3. C) Cysteine residues are involved in disulfide bridges that help form tertiary structure.
  4. D) Cysteine causes bends, or angles to occur in the tertiary structure of proteins.
  5. E) This protein is likely to be less stable than other proteins to denaturation.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

128) Proteorhodopsin, a light driven proton pump, consists of a single polypeptide chain. What is the highest level of structure found in this protein?

  1. A) primary
  2. B) secondary
  3. C) tertiary
  4. D) quaternary
  5. E) quinary

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

129) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?

  1. A) nucleotides
  2. B) sugars
  3. C) amino acids
  4. D) nitrogenous bases
  5. E) deoxyribose

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

130) Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and DNA?

  1. A) cytosine and uracil
  2. B) cytosine and thymine
  3. C) cytosine, uracil, and thymine
  4. D) cytosine, uracil, and guanine
  5. E) adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine, and uracil

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

131) What happens when nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid?

  1. A) A covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second nucleotide.
  2. B) A hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second nucleotide.
  3. C) Covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides.
  4. D) Hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides.
  5. E) A covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the base of a second nucleotide.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 5.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 15   The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance

 

1) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

  1. A) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
  2. B) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.
  3. C) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males.
  4. D) Other male-specific factors influence eye colour in flies.
  5. E) Other female-specific factors influence eye colour in flies.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of chromosomes in Drosophila in which of these ways?

  1. A) There are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.
  2. B) Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
  3. C) The overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
  4. D) The entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
  5. E) Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early 20th century?

  1. A) Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes.
  2. B) Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate during meiosis.
  3. C) Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes.
  4. D) No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell.
  5. E) Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

4) Thomas Hunt Morgan’s choice of Drosophila melanogaster has been proven to be useful even today. Which of the following has/have continued to make it a most useful species?

 

  1. its four pairs of chromosomes
  2. a very large number of visible as well as biochemically mutant phenotypes

III. easy and inexpensive maintenance

  1. short generation time and large number of offspring
  2. A) I and IV only
  3. B) II and III only
  4. C) I, II, and III only
  5. D) II, III, and IV only
  6. E) I, II, III, and IV

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

5) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including three X chromosomes. Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?

  1. A) masculine characteristics such as facial hair
  2. B) enlarged genital structures
  3. C) excessive emotional instability
  4. D) normal female, slightly taller than average
  5. E) sterile female

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

6) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

  1. A) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
  2. B) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
  3. C) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
  4. D) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
  5. E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

  1. A) a gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
  2. B) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome
  3. C) a gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development
  4. D) an autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome
  5. E) a gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

8) In cats, black fur colour is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange colour. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?

  1. A) tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males
  2. B) black females; orange males
  3. C) orange females; orange males
  4. D) tortoiseshell females; black males
  5. E) orange females; black males

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

9) Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal colour vision have a colour-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?

  1. A) XcXcand XcY
  2. B) XcXcand XCY
  3. C) XCXCand XcY
  4. D) XCXCand XCY
  5. E) XCXcand XCY

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

10) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

11) Calico cats are female because

  1. A) the males die during embryonic development.
  2. B) a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair colour.
  3. C) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange colouration.
  4. D) only females can have Barr bodies.
  5. E) multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

12) In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?

  1. A) 2:1 male to female
  2. B) 1:2 male to female
  3. C) 1:1 male to female
  4. D) 4:3 male to female
  5. E) 3:1 male to female

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

13) Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY region of the Y chromosome. An abnormality of this region could allow which of the following to have a male phenotype?

  1. A) Turner syndrome, 45, X
  2. B) translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX individual
  3. C) a person with an extra X chromosome
  4. D) a person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X
  5. E) Down syndrome, 46, XX

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 15.2, 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

14) In humans, clear gender differentiation occurs, not at fertilization, but after the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation?

  1. A) formation of testosterone in male embryos
  2. B) formation of estrogens in female embryos
  3. C) anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos
  4. D) activation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of the gonads
  5. E) activation of SRY in females and feminization of the gonads

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is caused by a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their 20s. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition?

  1. A) Women can never have this condition.
  2. B) One-half of the daughters of an affected man could have this condition.
  3. C) One-fourth of the children of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.
  4. D) Very rarely would a woman have this condition; the condition would be due to a chromosome error.
  5. E) Only if a woman is XXX could she have this condition.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

16) Women (and all female mammals) have one active X chromosome per cell instead of two. What causes this?

  1. A) modification of the XIST gene so that it is active only on one X chromosome, which then becomes inactive
  2. B) activation of the Barr gene on one of the two X chromosomes that then inactivates
  3. C) crossover between the XIST gene on one X chromosome and a related gene on an autosome
  4. D) inactivation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome derived from the male parent
  5. E) the removal of methyl (CH3) groups from the X chromosome that will remain active

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) Which of the following statements is true of linkage?

  1. A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.
  2. B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value of 100%.
  3. C) All of the traits that Mendel studied—seed colour, pod shape, flower colour, and others—are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
  4. D) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.
  5. E) Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

18) How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?

  1. A) The two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.
  2. B) The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
  3. C) Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
  4. D) The testcross was improperly performed.
  5. E) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

19) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?

  1. A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
  2. B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
  3. C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
  4. D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
  5. E) Independent assortment is hindered.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?

  1. A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
  2. B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
  3. C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
  4. D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
  5. E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

21) Three genes at three loci are being mapped in a particular species. Each has two phenotypes, one of which is markedly different from the wild type. The unusual allele of the first gene is inherited with either of the others about 50% of the time. However, the unusual alleles of the other two genes are inherited together 14.4% of the time. Which of the following describes what is happening?

  1. A) The genes are showing independent assortment.
  2. B) The three genes are linked.
  3. C) The first gene is linked but the other two are not.
  4. D) The first gene is assorting independently from the other two that are linked.
  5. E) The first gene is located 14.4 units apart from the other two.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

22) Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?

  1. A) Mutation on one homologue is different from that on the other homologue.
  2. B) Independent assortment sometimes fails because Mendel had not calculated appropriately.
  3. C) When genes are linked, they always “travel” together at anaphase.
  4. D) Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange.
  5. E) Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then re-join with one another.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Why does recombination between linked genes continue to occur?

  1. A) Recombination is a requirement for independent assortment.
  2. B) Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
  3. C) New allele combinations are acted upon by natural selection.
  4. D) The forces on the cell during meiosis II always result in recombination.
  5. E) Without recombination there would be an insufficient number of gametes.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

24) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons?

  1. A) The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
  2. B) The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in every individual.
  3. C) Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
  4. D) The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
  5. E) Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogenesis, what will be the result at the completion of meiosis?

  1. A) All the gametes will be diploid.
  2. B) Half of the gametes will be n + 1, and half will be n – 1.
  3. C) 1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, 1/4 will be n – 1, and 1/2 will be n.
  4. D) There will be three extra gametes.
  5. E) Two of the four gametes will be haploid, and two will be diploid.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

26) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous chromosome. What is this alteration called?

  1. A) deletion
  2. B) transversion
  3. C) inversion
  4. D) translocation
  5. E) duplication

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?

  1. A) deletion only
  2. B) duplication only
  3. C) nondisjunction
  4. D) deletion and duplication
  5. E) duplication and nondisjunction

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

28) In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 33%
  4. D) 50%
  5. E) 75%

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

29) Of the following human aneuploidies, which is the one that generally has the most severe impact on the health of the individual?

  1. A) 47, +21
  2. B) 47, XXY
  3. C) 47, XXX
  4. D) 47, XYY
  5. E) 45, X

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

30) A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counselling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?

  1. A) 1/4 will be normal, 1/4 will have the translocation, and 1/2 will have duplications and deletions.
  2. B) All will carry the same translocation as the father.
  3. C) None will carry the translocation since abnormal sperm will die.
  4. D) His sperm will be sterile and the couple might consider adoption.
  5. E) 1/2 will be normal and the rest will have the father’s translocation.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

31) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant tumours. Errors such as translocations may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions. Which of the following might then occur to make the cancer worse?

  1. A) an increase in nondisjunction
  2. B) expression of inappropriate gene products
  3. C) a decrease in mitotic frequency
  4. D) death of the cancer cells in the tumour
  5. E) sensitivity of the immune system

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

32) An inversion in a human chromosome often results in no demonstrable phenotypic effect in the individual. What else may occur?

  1. A) There may be deletions later in life.
  2. B) Some abnormal gametes may be formed.
  3. C) There is an increased frequency of mutation.
  4. D) All inverted chromosomes are deleted.
  5. E) The individual is more likely to get cancer.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

33) What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome?

  1. A) nondisjunction in the mother only
  2. B) nondisjunction in the father only
  3. C) duplication of the chromosome
  4. D) nondisjunction in either parent
  5. E) It is impossible to detect with current technology.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

34) Down syndrome has a frequency in the Canadian population of ~4/10,000 live births. In which of the following groups would you expect this frequency to be significantly higher?

  1. A) people in Latin or South America
  2. B) the Inuit and other peoples in very cold habitats
  3. C) people living in equatorial areas of the world
  4. D) very small population groups
  5. E) No groups have such higher frequency.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the child’s condition?

  1. A) The woman inherited this tendency from her parents.
  2. B) One member of the couple carried a translocation.
  3. C) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in somatic cell production.
  4. D) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.
  5. E) The mother had a chromosomal duplication.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

36) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?

  1. A) Turner’s syndrome
  2. B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
  3. C) Down syndrome
  4. D) Philadelphia syndrome
  5. E) chronic myelogenous leukemia

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

37) If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during meiosis I, select the choice

that shows the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)?

  1. A) n+1; n+1; n-1; n-1
  2. B) n+1; n-1; n; n
  3. C) n+1; n-1; n-1; n-1
  4. D) n+1; n+1; n; n
  5. E) n+2; n-1; n-1; n

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

38) What is a syndrome?

  1. A) a characteristic facial appearance
  2. B) a group of traits, all of which must be present if an aneuploidy is to be diagnosed
  3. C) a group of traits typically found in conjunction with a particular chromosomal aberration or gene mutation
  4. D) a characteristic trait usually given the discoverer’s name
  5. E) a characteristic that only appears in conjunction with one specific aneuploidy

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) Which of the following is known as a Philadelphia chromosome?

  1. A) a human chromosome 22 that has had a specific translocation
  2. B) a human chromosome 9 that is found only in one type of cancer
  3. C) an animal chromosome found primarily in the mid-Atlantic area of the United States
  4. D) an imprinted chromosome that always comes from the mother
  5. E) a chromosome found not in the nucleus but in mitochondria

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) At what point in cell division is a chromosome lost so that, after fertilization with a normal gamete, the result is an embryo with 45, X?

 

  1. an error in anaphase I
  2. an error in anaphase II

III.  an error of the first postfertilization mitosis

  1. an error in pairing
  2. A) I or II only
  3. B) II or IV only
  4. C) III or IV only
  5. D) I, II, or III only
  6. E) I, II, III, or IV

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

41) Which of the following is true of aneuploidies in general?

  1. A) A monosomy is more frequent than a trisomy.
  2. B) 45 X is the only known human live-born monosomy.
  3. C) Some human aneuploidies have selective advantage in some environments.
  4. D) Of all human aneuploidies, only Down syndrome is associated with mental retardation.
  5. E) An aneuploidy resulting in the deletion of a chromosome segment is less serious than a duplication.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

42) A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to “violate” Mendel’s laws. Which of the following would be considered Mendelian?

  1. A) a gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
  2. B) a gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
  3. C) a gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
  4. D) a gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
  5. E) a gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

43) If genomic imprinting depends on the sex of the parent who transmits the gene, which of the following must be true?

  1. A) Methylation of C is permanent in a gene.
  2. B) Genes required for early development stages must not be imprinted.
  3. C) Methylation of this kind must occur more in males than in females.
  4. D) Methylation must be reversible in ovarian and testicular cells.
  5. E) The imprints are transmitted only to gamete-producing cells.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

44) Correns described that the inheritance of variegated colour on the leaves of certain plants was determined by the maternal parent only. What phenomenon does this describe?

  1. A) mitochondrial inheritance
  2. B) chloroplast inheritance
  3. C) genomic imprinting
  4. D) infectious inheritance
  5. E) sex-linkage

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

45) Mitochondrial DNA is primarily involved in coding for proteins needed for electron transport. Therefore, in which body systems would you expect most mitochondrial gene mutations to be exhibited?

  1. A) the immune system and the blood
  2. B) the excretory and respiratory systems
  3. C) the skin and senses
  4. D) the nervous and muscular systems
  5. E) the circulation system

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

46) A certain kind of snail can have a right-handed direction of shell coiling (D) or left-handed coiling (d). If direction of coiling is due to a protein deposited by the mother in the egg cytoplasm, then a Dd egg-producing snail and a dd sperm-producing snail will have offspring of which genotype(s) and phenotype(s)?

  1. A) 1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; all right coiling
  2. B) all Dd; all right coiling
  3. C) 1/2 Dd:1/2 dd; half right and half left coiling
  4. D) all Dd; all left coiling
  5. E) all Dd; half right and half left coiling

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

47) Which of the following produces a Mendelian pattern of inheritance?

  1. A) genomic imprinting
  2. B) a mitochondrial gene mutation
  3. C) a chloroplast gene mutation
  4. D) viral genomes that inhabit egg cytoplasm
  5. E) a trait acted upon by many genes

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

48) Suppose that a gene on human chromosome 18 can be imprinted in a given pattern in a female parent but not in a male parent. A couple in whom each maternal meiosis is followed by imprinting of this gene have children. What can we expect as a likely outcome?

  1. A) All sons but no daughters will bear their mother’s imprinting pattern.
  2. B) All daughters but no sons will bear their mother’s imprinting pattern.
  3. C) All sons and daughters will have a 50% chance of receiving the mother’s imprinting pattern.
  4. D) All the children will bear their mother’s imprinting pattern but only daughters will then pass it down.
  5. E) Each of the children will imprint a different chromosome.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

49) The term hemizygous refers to

  1. A) autosomal characteristics in diploid populations.
  2. B) incomplete dominance of phenotypic traits.
  3. C) having two different alleles on the loci of polyploidal species.
  4. D) X-linked characteristics expressed in mammalian males.
  5. E) X-linked characteristics in mammalian females resulting from Barr body silencing.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

50) The phenotype most commonly observed in a natural population is the

  1. A) wild type.
  2. B) parental type.
  3. C) recombinant type.
  4. D) Z-W system.
  5. E) F1.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) An abnormal number of a specific chromosome is referred to as

  1. A) triploid.
  2. B) aneuploid.
  3. C) polyploid.
  4. D) recombinant.
  5. E) translocated.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

52) An organism with three sets of complete chromosomes is

  1. A) aneuploid.
  2. B) diploid.
  3. C) trisomic.
  4. D) triassic.
  5. E) triploid.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

53) Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy does not follow Mendelian genetic because it is

  1. A) the result of genomic imprinting.
  2. B) a mutation in the mitochondrial genome.
  3. C) a mutation in the plastid genome.
  4. D) X-linked.
  5. E) Y-linked.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome.

 

 

54) Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?

  1. A) A and W
  2. B) W and E
  3. C) E and G
  4. D) A and E
  5. E) A and G

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

55) Which two genes would you likely find inherited together?

  1. A) A and W
  2. B) W and E
  3. C) E and G
  4. D) A and E
  5. E) A and G

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

56) In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the above figure. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome map?

  1. A) rb-cn-vg-b
  2. B) vg-b-rb-cn
  3. C) cn-rb-b-vg
  4. D) b-rb-cn-vg
  5. E) vg-cn-b-rb

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

57) The pedigree in the figure above shows the transmission of a trait in a particular family. Based on this pattern of transmission, the trait is most likely

  1. A) mitochondrial.
  2. B) autosomal recessive.
  3. C) sex-linked dominant.
  4. D) sex-linked recessive.
  5. E) autosomal dominant.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Refer to the following information to answer the questions below.

 

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a colour-blind woman of normal height. The man’s father was 6 feet tall, and both the woman’s parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant, and red-green colour blindness is X-linked recessive.

 

58) How many of their daughters might be expected to be colour-blind dwarfs?

  1. A) all
  2. B) none
  3. C) half
  4. D) one out of four
  5. E) three out of four

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

59) What proportion of their sons would be colour-blind and of normal height?

  1. A) none
  2. B) half
  3. C) one out of four
  4. D) three out of four
  5. E) all

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal colour vision. What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?

  1. A) 0%
  2. B) 25%
  3. C) 50%
  4. D) 75%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

A plant-like organism on the planet Pandora has three recessive genetic traits: bluish leaves, due to an allele (a) of gene A; a feathered stem, due to an allele (b) of gene B; and hollow roots due to an allele (c) of gene C. The three genes are linked and, when a geneticist did a testcross with an organism that had been found to be heterozygous for the three recessive traits, she was able to identify progeny with the following phenotypic distribution (+ = wild type):

 

Phenotypes Leaves Stems Roots Number
1 a + +  14
2 a + c  0
3 a b +  32
4 a b c  440
5 + b +  0
6 + b c  16
7 + + c  28
8 + + +  470
Total 1,000

 

61) Which of the following are the phenotypes of the parents in this cross?

  1. A) 2 and 5
  2. B) 1 and 6
  3. C) 4 and 8
  4. D) 3 and 7
  5. E) 1 and 2

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

62) In which progeny phenotypes has there been recombination between genes A and B?

  1. A) 1, 2, 5, and 6
  2. B) 1, 3, 6, and 7
  3. C) 2, 4, 5, and 8
  4. D) 2, 3, 5, and 7
  5. E) in all 8 of them

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

63) What is the greatest benefit of having used a testcross for this experiment?

  1. A) The homozygous recessive parents are obvious to the naked eye.
  2. B) The homozygous parents are the only ones whose crossovers make a difference.
  3. C) Progeny can be scored by their phenotypes alone.
  4. D) All of the progeny will be heterozygous.
  5. E) The homozygous recessive parents will be unable to cross over.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

64) The greatest distance among the three genes is between a and c. What does this mean?

  1. A) Gene a is closest to
  2. B) Genes are in the order: a-b-c.
  3. C) Gene a is not recombining with
  4. D) Gene a is between b and
  5. E) Distance ab is equal to distance a

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans have DNA sequences that are almost identical to those of humans; however, these genes are found on 24 pairs of chromosomes in apes, while humans have 23 pairs. The C2 chromosome in humans is a large chromosome with similar banding pattern and DNA sequences to two smaller chromosomes in apes (C2 and C4). In addition it appears to have both a vestigial second centromere and telomere sequences in the middle of the strand.

 

65) What could explain these observations?

  1. A) The human ancestor originally had 24 pairs but complete fusion of C2 and C4 occurred, reducing the total number of chromosomes.
  2. B) A nondisjunction event must have occurred in the human ancestor, increasing the overall ploidy.
  3. C) The loss of a chromosome is due to a deletion event in the human ancestor.
  4. D) C2 must have undergone an inversion with C4.
  5. E) There is not enough information to speculate.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

66) It is believed that early hominins interbred with each other. Ancient humans may have successfully mated with both Neanderthal and Denisovans. What must be true of these species for this to occur?

They must have

  1. A) been triploid.
  2. B) had 23 pairs of chromosomes.
  3. C) actually been human.
  4. D) had 24 chromosomes, so nondisjunction could occur.
  5. E) had wild type phenotypic traits identical to humans.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

67) Why do, in general, do only female cats have the tortoiseshell phenotype?

  1. A) a male inherits only one allele of the X-linked gene controlling hair color
  2. B) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration
  3. C) only males can have Barr bodies
  4. D) multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production
  5. E) two tortoiseshell genes located on the X chromosome are required

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

68) Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a human disorder that causes gradual deterioration of the muscles. Only boys are affected, and they are always born to phenotypically normal parents. Due to the severity of the disease, the boys die in their teens. What can we deduce about the disorder?

  1. A) dominant allele, sex-linked
  2. B) recessive allele, autosomal
  3. C) recessive allele, sex-linked
  4. D) incomplete allele dominant, sex-linked
  5. E) multiple alleles, autosomal

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

69) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male. What is the probability that this couple’s first son will be color blind?

  1. A) 1/4
  2. B) 1/3
  3. C) 1/2
  4. D) 3/4
  5. E) 1

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

70) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to whom?

  1. A) all of his daughters
  2. B) half of his daughters
  3. C) half of his sons
  4. D) all of his sons
  5. E) all of his children

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

71) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is inherited as a recessive allele of an X-linked gene in humans. A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man.

(a) What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD?

(b) If the husband was not normal but was G6PD deficient, would you change your answer in part (a)?

  1. A) (a) 100%; (b) no
  2. B) (a) 1/2; (b) yes
  3. C) (a) 1/2; (b) no
  4. D) (a) zero; (b) no
  5. E) (a) 100%; (b) yes

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

 

72) In a Drosophila experiment, a cross was made between homozygous wild-type females and yellow-bodied males. All of the resulting F1s were phenotypically wild type. However, adult flies of the F2 generation (resulting from matings of the F1s) had the characteristics shown in the figure above. Consider the following questions:

(a) Is the mutant allele for yellow body recessive or dominant?

(b) Is the yellow locus autosomal or X-linked?

  1. A) (a) recessive; (b) X-linked
  2. B) (a) recessive; (b) autosomal
  3. C) (a) dominant; (b) X-linked
  4. D) (a) dominant; (b) autosomal
  5. E) (a) co-dominant; (b) X-linked

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

73) What is the definition of one map unit?

  1. A) the physical distance between two linked genes
  2. B) a 1% frequency of recombination between two genes
  3. C) 1 nanometer of distance between two genes
  4. D) the recombination frequency between two genes assorting independently
  5. E) 1 picometer of distance between two genes

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

74) What is an adaptive advantage of recombination between linked genes?

  1. A) Recombination is required for independent assortment.
  2. B) Recombination must occur or genes will not assort independently.
  3. C) New allele combinations are acted upon by natural selection.
  4. D) The forces on the cell during meiosis II results in recombination.
  5. E) Recombination ensures genes far away from each other are inherited together.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

75) A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 all had red fruit and yellow flowers. The F1 were testcrossed by crossing them to homozygous recessive individuals and the following offspring were obtained:

Red fruit and yellow flowers—41

Red fruit and white flowers—7

Golden fruit and yellow flowers—8

Golden fruit and white flowers—44

How many map units separate these genes?

  1. A) 17.6
  2. B) 15
  3. C) 17.1
  4. D) 18.1
  5. E) 3

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 15.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 30   Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants

 

1) Which group is noted for the independence of gametophyte and sporophyte generations from each other?

  1. A) ferns
  2. B) mosses, hornworts, and liverworts
  3. C) charophytes
  4. D) angiosperms
  5. E) gymnosperms

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?

  1. A) the trend toward smaller size
  2. B) the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle
  3. C) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle
  4. D) the trend toward larger gametophytes

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) All of the following cellular structures are functionally important in cells of the gametophytes of both angiosperms and gymnosperms except

  1. A) haploid nuclei.
  2. B) mitochondria.
  3. C) cell walls.
  4. D) chloroplasts.
  5. E) peroxisomes.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

4) The seed coat’s most important function is to provide

  1. A) a nonstressful environment for the megasporangium.
  2. B) the means for dispersal.
  3. C) dormancy.
  4. D) a nutrient supply for the embryo.
  5. E) desiccation resistance.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) In addition to seeds, which of the following characteristics are unique to the seed-producing plants?

  1. A) sporopollenin
  2. B) lignin present in cell walls
  3. C) pollen
  4. D) use of air currents as a dispersal agent
  5. E) megaphylls

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) Suppose that the cells of seed plants, like the skin cells of humans, produce a pigment upon increased exposure to UV radiation. Rank the following cells, from greatest to least, in terms of the likelihood of producing this pigment.

  1. cells of sporangium
  2. cells in the interior of a subterranean root
  3. epidermal cells of sporophyte megaphylls
  4. cells of a gametophyte
  5. A) 3, 4, 1, 2
  6. B) 3, 4, 2, 1
  7. C) 3, 1, 4, 2
  8. D) 3, 2, 1, 4
  9. E) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

7) Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated.

  1. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence
  2. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence
  3. gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence
  4. A) 1 → 2 → 3
  5. B) 2 → 3 → 1
  6. C) 2 → 1 → 3
  7. D) 3 → 2 → 1
  8. E) 3 → 1 → 2

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

8) In seed plants, which of the following is part of a pollen grain and has a function most like that of the seed coat?

  1. A) sporophyll
  2. B) male gametophyte
  3. C) sporopollenin
  4. D) stigma
  5. E) sporangium

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

9) In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains of seed-producing plants are most similar to a

  1. A) moss sporophyte.
  2. B) moss gametophyte bearing both male and female gametangia.
  3. C) fern sporophyte.
  4. D) hermaphroditic fern gametophyte.
  5. E) fern gametophyte bearing only antheridia.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Which of the following is most important in making the typical seed more resistant to adverse conditions than the typical spore?

  1. A) a different type of sporopollenin
  2. B) an internal reservoir of liquid water
  3. C) integument(s)
  4. D) ability to be dispersed
  5. E) waxy cuticle

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

11) A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte tissue blue; the other stains gametophyte tissue red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains, and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur?

  1. A) The pollen grains will be pure red.
  2. B) The pollen grains will be pure blue.
  3. C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors.
  4. D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors.
  5. E) Insofar as the pollen grains are independent of the plant that produced them, they will not absorb either stain.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

12) A gymnosperm seed consists of a

  1. A) sporophyte embryo and protective seed coat.
  2. B) sporophyte embryo, food supply, protective seed coat.
  3. C) pollen grain and micropyle.
  4. D) megasporangium and integument.
  5. E) megasporangium and food supply.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

13) Archaeopteris was heterosporous just like seed plants, but it reproduced via spores and not seeds. Transitional seedless species of vascular plants are referred to as

  1. A) progymnosperms.
  2. B) proangiosperms.
  3. C) successional species.
  4. D) early gymnosperms.
  5. E) conifers.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) Which of the following sex and generation combinations directly produces the pollen tube of angiosperms?

  1. A) male gametophyte
  2. B) female gametophyte
  3. C) male sporophyte
  4. D) female sporophyte

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Gymnosperms differ from both extinct and extant (living) ferns because they

  1. A) are woody.
  2. B) have macrophylls.
  3. C) have pollen.
  4. D) have sporophylls.
  5. E) have spores.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

16) Generally, wind pollination is most likely to be found in seed plants that grow

  1. A) close to the ground.
  2. B) in dense, single-species stands.
  3. C) in relative isolation from other members of the same species.
  4. D) along coastlines where prevailing winds blow from the land out to sea.
  5. E) in well-drained soils.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

17) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are

  1. A) ferns, horsetails, lycophytes, and club mosses.
  2. B) hornworts, liverworts, and mosses.
  3. C) gnetophytes, cycads, and ginkgos.
  4. D) elms, maples, and aspens.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Conifers and pines both have needlelike leaves, with the adaptive advantage of

  1. A) thin cuticle, increased surface area, increasing photosynthesis.
  2. B) thin cuticle, increased surface area, increasing gas exchange.
  3. C) thick cuticle, decreased surface area, reducing gas exchange.
  4. D) thick cuticle, decreased surface area, reducing water loss.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

19) Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of the pine life cycle?

  1. A) Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs.
  2. B) Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones.
  3. C) Pollen grains contain female gametophytes.
  4. D) A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Which of the following statements is true of the pine life cycle?

  1. A) Fertilization produces a zygote and an endosperm.
  2. B) The pine tree is a gametophyte.
  3. C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis.
  4. D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes.
  5. E) Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, what is the correct sequence in which the following should appear during development, assuming that fertilization occurs?

  1. sporophyte embryo
  2. female gametophyte
  3. egg cell
  4. megaspore
  5. A) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
  6. B) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
  7. C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
  8. D) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2
  9. E) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

22) Which of the following can be found in gymnosperms?

  1. A) nonfertile flower parts
  2. B) triploid endosperm
  3. C) fruits
  4. D) pollen
  5. E) carpels

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

23) Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive).

  1. sporophyte
  2. microspores
  3. microsporangia
  4. pollen cone
  5. pollen nuclei
  6. A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
  7. B) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
  8. C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
  9. D) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
  10. E) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

24) The three key reproductive adaptations of seed plant evolution include

  1. A) dominant sporophyte, cones, ovules.
  2. B) dominant gametophyte, spores, seeds.
  3. C) dominant sporophyte, seeds, pollen.
  4. D) sporophylls, strobili, cones.
  5. E) homospory, spores, cones.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

25) Which of the following structures in the life cycle of a pine are haploid?

  1. A) pollen grains, megaspore, female gametophyte, egg nucleus
  2. B) new sporophyte, pollen cone, pollen grains, microsporocytes
  3. C) mature sporophyte, ovulate cone, pollen cone, female gametophyte
  4. D) megasporocyte, megasporangium, megaspore, female gametophyte

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

26) Which trait(s) is (are) shared by many modern gymnosperms and angiosperms?

  1. pollen transported by wind
  2. lignified xylem
  3. microscopic gametophytes
  4. sterile sporophylls, modified to attract pollinators
  5. endosperm
  6. A) 1 only
  7. B) 1 and 3
  8. C) 1, 2, and 3
  9. D) 1, 3, and 5
  10. E) 2, 4, and 5

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

27) Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms?

  1. A) stigma
  2. B) carpel
  3. C) ovule
  4. D) ovary
  5. E) anthers

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

28) A botanist discovers a new species of land plant with a dominant sporophyte, chlorophylls a and b, and cell walls made of cellulose. In assigning this plant to a phylum, which of the following, if present, would be least useful?

  1. A) endosperm
  2. B) seeds
  3. C) sperm that lack flagella
  4. D) flowers
  5. E) spores

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

29) What is true of stamens, sepals, petals, carpels, and pinecone scales?

  1. A) They are female reproductive parts.
  2. B) None are capable of photosynthesis.
  3. C) They are modified leaves.
  4. D) They are found on flowers.
  5. E) They are found on angiosperms.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

30) Reptilian embryos are protected from desiccation by a leathery shell. Similarly, which pair of structures protects seed plants’ embryos and male gametophytes, respectively, from desiccation?

  1. A) ovules—waxy cuticle
  2. B) ovaries—filaments
  3. C) fruits—stamens
  4. D) pollen grains—waxy cuticle
  5. E) integuments—sporopollenin

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

31) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the integument of a pine seed?

  1. A) male gametophyte
  2. B) female gametophyte
  3. C) male sporophyte
  4. D) female sporophyte

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

32) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the pollen tube?

  1. A) male gametophyte
  2. B) female gametophyte
  3. C) male sporophyte
  4. D) female sporophyte

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

33) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the megasporangium of pine ovules?

  1. A) male gametophyte
  2. B) female gametophyte
  3. C) male sporophyte
  4. D) female sporophyte

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

34) Which of the following sex and generation combinations most directly produces the fruit?

  1. A) male gametophyte
  2. B) female gametophyte
  3. C) male sporophyte
  4. D) female sporophyte

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

35) Given the differences between angiosperms and gymnosperms in the development of the integument(s), which of these statements is the most logical consequence?

  1. A) The seed coats of angiosperms should be relatively thicker than those of gymnosperms.
  2. B) It should be much more difficult for pollen tubes to enter angiosperm ovules than for them to enter gymnosperm ovules.
  3. C) The female gametophytes of angiosperms should not be as well protected from environmental stress as should those of gymnosperms.
  4. D) As a direct consequence of such differences, angiosperms should have fruit.
  5. E) Angiosperm seeds should be more susceptible to desiccation.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

36) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?

  1. A) complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent
  2. B) double internal fertilization
  3. C) free-living gametophytes
  4. D) carpels that contain microsporangia
  5. E) ovules that are not contained within ovaries

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

37) Which of the following is true concerning flowering plants?

  1. A) The flower includes sporophyte tissue.
  2. B) The gametophyte generation is dominant.
  3. C) The gametophyte generation is what we see when looking at a large plant.
  4. D) The sporophyte generation is not photosynthetic.
  5. E) The sporophyte generation consists of relatively few cells within the flower.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means?

  1. The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks.
  2. The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal’s mouth.
  3. The seed coat should be able to withstand low pH levels.
  4. The seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals.
  5. The seed coat should be resistant to the animals’ digestive enzymes.
  6. A) 4 only
  7. B) 1 and 2
  8. C) 2 and 3
  9. D) 3 and 5
  10. E) 3, 4, and 5

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

39) The seeds of orchids are among the smallest known, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule seed leaves. Consequently, what should one expect to be true of such seeds?

  1. A) They require extensive periods of dormancy during which the embryo develops.
  2. B) They are surrounded by brightly coloured, sweet fruit.
  3. C) They germinate very soon after being released from the ovary.
  4. D) The developing embryo within is dependent upon the gametophyte for nutrition.
  5. E) The sporophytes that produce such seeds are wind-pollinated.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

40) Which of the following are structures of angiosperm gametophytes?

  1. A) immature ovules
  2. B) pollen tubes
  3. C) ovaries
  4. D) stamens
  5. E) sepals

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

41) Which of the following statements is true of monocots?

  1. A) They are currently thought to be polyphyletic.
  2. B) The veins of their leaves form a netlike pattern.
  3. C) They, along with the eudicots, magnoliids, and basal angiosperms, are currently placed in the phylum Anthophyta.
  4. D) Each possesses multiple cotyledons.
  5. E) They are in the clade that includes most of our crops, except the cereal grains.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) Carpels and stamens are

  1. A) sporophyte plants in their own right.
  2. B) gametophyte plants in their own right.
  3. C) gametes.
  4. D) spores.
  5. E) modified sporophylls.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

43) Which of the following is a true statement about angiosperm carpels?

  1. A) Carpels are features of the gametophyte generation.
  2. B) Carpels consist of anther and stamen.
  3. C) Carpels are structures that directly produce male gametes.
  4. D) Carpels surround and nourish the female gametophyte.
  5. E) Carpels consist of highly modified microsporangia.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

44) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells?

  1. A) binary fission
  2. B) mitosis
  3. C) meiosis
  4. D) mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis
  5. E) meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

45) Angiosperm double fertilization is so called because it features the formation of

  1. A) two embryos from one egg and two sperm cells.
  2. B) one embryo from one egg fertilized by two sperm cells.
  3. C) two embryos from two sperm cells and two eggs.
  4. D) one embryo involving one sperm cell and an endosperm involving a second sperm cell.
  5. E) one embryo from two eggs fertilized by a single sperm cell.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

46) Among plants known as legumes (beans, peas, alfalfa, clover, etc.), the seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a legume, better known as a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly observed that some ovules have become mature seeds, whereas other ovules have not. Thus, which of the following statements is (are) true?

  1. The flowers that gave rise to such pods were not pollinated.
  2. Pollen tubes did not enter all of the ovules in such pods.
  3. There was apparently not enough endosperm to distribute to all of the ovules in such pods.
  4. The ovules that failed to develop into seeds were derived from sterile floral parts.
  5. Fruit can develop, even if all ovules within have not been fertilized.
  6. A) 1 only
  7. B) 1 and 5
  8. C) 2 and 4
  9. D) 2 and 5
  10. E) 3 and 5

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

47) How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?

  1. A) by nourishing the plants that make them
  2. B) by facilitating dispersal of seeds
  3. C) by attracting insects to the pollen inside
  4. D) by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
  5. E) by producing triploid cells via double fertilization

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

48) Arrange the following structures from largest to smallest, assuming that they belong to two generations of the same angiosperm.

  1. ovary
  2. ovule
  3. egg
  4. carpel
  5. embryo sac
  6. A) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
  7. B) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
  8. C) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
  9. D) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
  10. E) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

49) Which structure(s) must pass through the micropyle for successful fertilization to occur in angiosperms?

  1. A) only one sperm nucleus
  2. B) two sperm nuclei
  3. C) the pollen tube
  4. D) Two of the responses above are correct.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

50) Hypothetically, one of the major benefits of double fertilization in angiosperms is to

  1. A) decrease the potential for mutation by insulating the embryo with other cells.
  2. B) increase the number of fertilization events and offspring produced.
  3. C) promote diversity in flower shape and colour.
  4. D) coordinate developmental timing between the embryo and its food stores.
  5. E) emphasize embryonic survival by increasing embryo size.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

51) Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?

  1. A) ovule
  2. B) ovary
  3. C) fruit
  4. D) stamen

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

52) Which of the following flower parts develops into the pulp of a fleshy fruit?

  1. A) stigma
  2. B) style
  3. C) ovule
  4. D) ovary
  5. E) micropyle

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

53) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

  1. A) wind pollination
  2. B) dominant gametophytes
  3. C) fruits enclosing seeds
  4. D) embryos enclosed within seed coats
  5. E) sperm cells without flagella

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

54) In a typical angiosperm, what is the sequence of structures encountered by the tip of a growing pollen tube on its way to the egg?

  1. micropyle
  2. style
  3. ovary
  4. stigma
  5. A) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
  6. B) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
  7. C) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
  8. D) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
  9. E) 3 → 2 → 4 → 1

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

55) Many mammals have skins and mucous membranes that are sensitive to phenolic secretions of plants like poison oak (Rhus). These secondary compounds are primarily adaptations that

  1. A) prevent desiccation.
  2. B) favour pollination.
  3. C) foster seed dispersal.
  4. D) decrease competition.
  5. E) inhibit herbivory.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

56) The fruit of the mistletoe, a parasitic angiosperm, is a one-seeded berry. In members of the genus Viscum, the outside of the seed is viscous (sticky), which permits the seed to adhere to surfaces, such as the branches of host plants or the beaks of birds. What should be expected of the fruit if the viscosity of Viscum seeds is primarily an adaptation for dispersal rather than an adaptation for infecting host plant tissues?

  1. A) It should be drab in colour.
  2. B) It should be coloured so as to provide it with camouflage.
  3. C) It should be nutritious.
  4. D) It should secrete enzymes that can digest bark.
  5. E) It should contain chemicals that cause birds to fly to the ground and vomit.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

57) Which of the following structures is incorrectly matched with function in the life cycle of an angiosperm?

  1. A) microspore — develops into a pollen grain
  2. B) megaspore — forms female gametophyte
  3. C) double fertilization — produces embryo and endosperm
  4. D) seed germinates — develops into mature gametophyte
  5. E) microsporocytes — produce microspores

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

58) Domesticated honeybees are one of the most important insect pollinators for domestic and global food production. Which cause is not attributed to the large losses of honeybee colonies?

  1. A) lack of gene flow between wild and domestic honey bees
  2. B) fungal, bacterial, and viral pathogens
  3. C) pesticide use
  4. D) potential nutritional deficiencies
  5. E) mites

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

59) Cutting down rain forests can lead to

  1. A) decreased temperatures.
  2. B) decreased rainfall.
  3. C) decreased atmospheric carbon dioxide.
  4. D) increased biodiversity.
  5. E) more than one of these.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

60) The cutting and burning of tropical rain forests leads to which of the following?

  1. addition of CO2to the atmosphere
  2. decreased removal of CO2from the atmosphere
  3. greenhouse effect
  4. global warming
  5. decreasing sea level
  6. A) 1 only
  7. B) 1 and 2
  8. C) 1, 2, and 3
  9. D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
  10. E) 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

61) Over human history, which process has been most important in improving the features of plants that have long been used by humans as staple foods?

  1. A) genetic engineering
  2. B) artificial selection
  3. C) natural selection
  4. D) sexual selection
  5. E) pesticide and herbicide application

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

62) What is the greatest threat to plant diversity?

  1. A) insects
  2. B) grazing and browsing by animals
  3. C) pathogenic fungi
  4. D) competition with other plants
  5. E) human population growth

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

63) A botanist was visiting a tropical region for the purpose of discovering plants with medicinal properties. All of the following might be ways of identifying potentially useful plants except

  1. A) observing which plants sick animals seek out.
  2. B) observing which plants are the most-used food plants.
  3. C) observing which plants animals do not eat.
  4. D) collecting plants and subjecting them to chemical analysis.
  5. E) asking local people which plants they use as medicine.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

64) As tropical rainforests and other ecosystems are destroyed, people are realizing all of the following, except that

  1. A) plant diversity is not a renewable resource.
  2. B) if particular plants become threatened, endangered, or go extinct, then animals that depend on them will likely suffer the same fate.
  3. C) we are losing many potential medicinal plants that can benefit humans.
  4. D) technology can be used to replace any plants that humans require.
  5. E) humans depend on many species of plants for food, building materials, cooking, and medicine.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

65) The following statements about seed plants are true, with the exception of

  1. A) Most of our food comes from angiosperms
  2. B) the majority of the crops we eat today are a result of natural selection
  3. C) spices that we use are derived from flowers, leaves, fruits, seeds, and bark
  4. D) seed plants are important for medicines
  5. E) just a few crops provide 80% of all calories consumed by people

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

The following questions refer to the generalized life cycle for land plants shown in the figure below. Each number within a circle or square represents a specific plant or plant part, and each number over an arrow represents either meiosis, mitosis, or fertilization.

 

 

66) In the figure above, which number represents the mature gametophyte?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 11

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

67) In the figure above, which number represents an embryo?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 9
  5. E) 11

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

68) Meiosis is most likely to be represented by which number(s) in the figure above?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 2 and 8
  4. D) 4 and 8
  5. E) 10 and 12

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

69) Which number represents a megaspore mother cell in the figure above?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 5
  4. D) 7
  5. E) 11

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

70) In the figure above, the process labelled “6” involves

  1. A) nuclear fission.
  2. B) mitosis.
  3. C) meiosis.
  4. D) fertilization.
  5. E) binary fission.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

71) The embryo sac of an angiosperm flower is best represented by which number in the above figure?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 9
  5. E) 11

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

72) In angiosperms, which number in the above figure most nearly represents the event that initiates the formation of endosperm?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 10
  5. E) 12

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

The next few questions refer to the following description.

 

The cycads, a mostly tropical phylum of gymnosperms, evolved about 300 million years ago and were dominant forms during the Age of the Dinosaurs. Though their sperm are flagellated, their ovules are pollinated by beetles. These beetles get nutrition (they eat pollen) and shelter from the microsporophylls. Upon visiting megasporophylls, the beetles transfer pollen to the exposed ovules. In cycads, pollen cones and seed cones are borne on different plants. Cycads synthesize neurotoxins, especially in the seeds, that are effective against most animals, including humans.

 

73) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms?

  1. They have exposed ovules.
  2. They have flagellated sperm.
  3. They are pollinated by animals.
  4. A) 1 only
  5. B) 2 only
  6. C) 3 only
  7. D) 2 and 3
  8. E) 1, 2, and 3

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

74) Which feature of cycads makes them similar to many angiosperms?

  1. They have exposed ovules.
  2. They have flagellated sperm.
  3. They are pollinated by animals.
  4. A) 1 only
  5. B) 2 only
  6. C) 3 only
  7. D) 2 and 3
  8. E) 1, 2, and 3

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

75) If the beetles survive by consuming cycad pollen, then whether the beetles should be considered mutualists with, or parasites of, the cycads depends upon

  1. A) the extent to which their overall activities affect cycad reproduction.
  2. B) the extent to which the beetles are affected by the neurotoxins.
  3. C) the extent to which the beetles damage the cycad flowers.
  4. D) the distance the beetles must travel between cycad microsporophylls and cycad megasporophylls.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

76) On the Pacific island of Guam, large herbivorous bats called “flying foxes” commonly feed on cycad seeds, a potent source of neurotoxins. The flying foxes do not visit male cones. Consequently, what should be true?

  1. A) The flying foxes are attracted to cycad fruit, and eat the enclosed seeds only by accident.
  2. B) Flying foxes are highly susceptible to the effects of the neurotoxins.
  3. C) The flying foxes assist the beetles as important pollinating agents of the cycads.
  4. D) Flying foxes can be dispersal agents of cycad seeds if the seeds sometimes get swallowed whole (in other words, without getting chewed).

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

77) If one were to erect a new taxon of plants that included all plants that are pollinated by animals, and only plants that are pollinated by animals, then this new taxon would be

  1. A) monophyletic.
  2. B) paraphyletic.
  3. C) polyphyletic.
  4. D) identical in composition to the phylum Anthophyta.
  5. E) identical in composition to the phylum Cycadophyta.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2, 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues.

 

78) How many chromosomes should be in a tube cell nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

79) How many chromosomes should be in an endosperm nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

80) How many chromosomes should be in a generative cell nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

81) How many chromosomes should be in an embryo sac nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

82) How many chromosomes should be in an embryo nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

83) How many chromosomes should be in a megasporangium nucleus?

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 24
  5. E) 32

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

 

Scarlet gilia (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence of up to 250 flowers. In certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however, the flowers range from red to pink to white. In early summer, most of the flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were still present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were present. The major pollinators early in the season were two species of hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower elevations, and the major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk moth was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white flowers after dark. When hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths were present, more white flowers produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and population shifts in flower colour by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science 227:315-17).

 

84) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. What is the significance of measuring fruit production?

  1. A) It is a measure of pollination success.
  2. B) It is a measure of seed dispersal success.
  3. C) It is easier than counting flowers.
  4. D) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

85) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Late in the season, when only hawk moths were present, researchers painted the red flowers white. What would you expect?

  1. A) Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.
  2. B) Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.
  3. C) Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

86) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia. Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colours, and some retained the same darker colour all season. Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?

  1. A) those that changed their colour to a lighter shade
  2. B) those that stayed darker
  3. C) the same numbers of fruit on both

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

The next few questions refer to the following description. Match the animal features with the appropriate angiosperm analogue.

 

Oviparous (egg-laying) animals have internal fertilization (sperm cells encounter eggs within the female’s body). Yolk and/or albumen is (are) provided to the embryo, and a shell is then deposited around the embryo and its food source. Eggs are subsequently deposited in an environment that promotes their further development, or are incubated by one or both parents.

 

87) The yolk and/or albumen of an animal egg is what type of angiosperm analogue?

  1. A) endosperm
  2. B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei
  3. C) carpels
  4. D) fruit
  5. E) integuments

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

88) The shell of an animal egg is what type of angiosperm analogue?

  1. A) endosperm
  2. B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei
  3. C) carpels
  4. D) fruit
  5. E) integuments

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

89) The internal fertilization that occurs prior to shell deposition is what type of angiosperm analogue?

  1. A) endosperm
  2. B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei
  3. C) carpels
  4. D) fruit
  5. E) integuments

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

90) The dispersal and/or nurture of young after hatching from the egg is what type of angiosperm analogue?

  1. A) endosperm
  2. B) pollen tube and sperm nuclei
  3. C) carpels
  4. D) fruit
  5. E) integuments

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

The following questions refer to the description below.

 

Biologists are studying pollination of one species of alpine flower in the Canadian Rocky Mountains. In late spring and early summer, they find that the majority of flowers are deep red and deep pink. Toward the end of summer, the most common colours are white and very pale pink.

 

91) What is the most likely explanation as to why the colours of the flowers from the same plants change from dark red to white as summer progresses?

  1. A) The alpine flowering plant produces red pigment early in the season but, as the pigment amount decreases over time, the flowers produced are mostly white,
  2. B) Biologists suspect that a pollinator that prefers red flowers pollinates the flowers early in the season, while a second pollinator that prefers light-coloured and white flowers pollinates the flowers later in the season.
  3. C) The same pollinator is attracted to both colours equally.
  4. D) Herbivores trample the early flowers so only the pale pink and white flowers remain.
  5. E) The flowers are likely wind pollinated, so flower colour changes randomly.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

92) In order to complete their pollination study, the biologists had to

  1. A) identify the early-season pollinator and count their numbers, and count the number of deep red/pink flowers.
  2. B) identify the late-season pollinator and count their numbers, and count the number of light pink and white flowers.
  3. C) identify the early-season pollinator and the late-season pollinator.
  4. D) cut down either the dark or light flowers and see which pollinators returned.
  5. E) A and B

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

Harold and Kumar are pre-med and pre-pharmacy students, respectively. They complain to their biology professor that they should not have to study about plants because plants have little relevance to their chosen professions.

 

93) It would be best for these students, and for society in the long run, if their biology professor responds by

  1. A) acknowledging their concern, and promising not to hold them responsible for any material on plants.
  2. B) chiding them for their careerist attitudes, and advising them to whine less and study more.
  3. C) offering extra credit for a research paper on plants that harm humans, as well as plants that heal humans.
  4. D) lowering the stress level by providing them with the relevant test questions from the upcoming test so they can research the answers ahead of time.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

94) From reading their biology textbook, what would Harold and Kumar discover?

  1. A) About one-quarter of all prescription drugs come from seed plants.
  2. B) Prescription drugs that enter the water table are responsible for the extinction of many plants.
  3. C) Much of what was once rain forest has been replanted with fields of medicinally valuable plants.
  4. D) All rain forest plants contain at least one chemical useful as a medicine.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

95) Kumar, especially, might be well advised to learn more about

  1. A) cell wall components, such as lignins and pectins.
  2. B) secondary metabolites.
  3. C) accessory photosynthetic pigments.
  4. D) sporopollenin.
  5. E) the wax of cuticles.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

96) Which adaptation(s) of land plants is (are) likely to provide Harold with future patients?

  1. A) sporophyte dominance
  2. B) defences against herbivory
  3. C) those for using wind to disperse male gametophytes
  4. D) All three of the responses above are potentially medically significant.
  5. E) Two of the responses above are potentially medically significant.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following information to answer the questions below.

 

The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 metres, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favourite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow, self-incompatible flowers of Brazil nut trees admit only female orchid bees as pollinators.

 

97) Animals that consume Brazil nuts are deriving nutrition mostly from tissue whose nuclei have how many chromosomes?

  1. A) 17
  2. B) 34
  3. C) 51
  4. D) 68
  5. E) There is not enough information to say.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 12.1, 30.3, 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

98) The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others behind inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate. Consequently, which terms describe the relationship between the Brazil nut tree and the agouti?

  1. parasitic
  2. commensalistic
  3. symbiotic
  4. endosymbiotic
  5. mutualistic
  6. A) 1 and 3
  7. B) 2 and 4
  8. C) 2 and 5
  9. D) 3 and 5
  10. E) 4 and 5

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 27.5, 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

99) Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem?

  1. A) poor sporophyte viability
  2. B) poor sporophyte fertility
  3. C) failure to produce fertile ovules
  4. D) failure to produce pollen
  5. E) pollination failure

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.3, 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

100) The agouti is most directly involved with the Brazil nut tree’s dispersal of

  1. A) male gametophytes.
  2. B) female gametophytes.
  3. C) sporophyte embryos.
  4. D) sporophyte megaspores.
  5. E) female gametes.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

101) The harpy eagle, Harpia harpyja, is the largest, most powerful raptor in the Americas. It nests only in trees taller than 25 metres. It is a “sloth specialist,” but will also take agouti. Thus, if these eagles capture too many agoutis from a particular locale, they might contribute to their own demise by

  1. A) having too many offspring.
  2. B) increasing habitat loss.
  3. C) decreasing atmospheric CO2.
  4. D) increasing the number of sloths.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

102) Brazil nut trees begin producing fruit at the age of 10 years, reach final height at about 120 years, and can live for over 500 years. A landowner can earn more by felling a Brazil nut tree and selling it for lumber than from several seasons’ worth of Brazil nut harvests from the same tree. Thus, it makes greater financial sense in the long run to harvest

  1. A) all of the Brazil nut trees and sell them for lumber.
  2. B) all of the nuts, and only then harvest all of the trees.
  3. C) the nuts for many seasons.
  4. D) remove no resources from the forest.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

103) Native peoples traditionally use Brazil nuts to treat stomach ache, inflammation, hypersensitivity, and hepatitis. Consequently, a scientist should be interested in promoting

  1. A) better education for the native peoples so that they will overcome their old ways.
  2. B) clear-cutting forests containing Brazil nut trees to make way for crops with proven medical benefits.
  3. C) an increase in the living standards of the native peoples so that they might be able to purchase modern pharmaceuticals.
  4. D) the evaluation of Brazil nut chemicals for use as potential drugs.
  5. E) that free, FDA-approved medicines be provided to the impoverished natives.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

104) To help ensure a prosperous future for the largest number of people, developed countries should

  1. A) help underdeveloped countries to more effectively exploit and market their natural resources.
  2. B) apply sanctions on developing countries that fail to curtail their rates of growth and development.
  3. C) conserve at home and exploit resources abroad.
  4. D) reuse, recycle, and reduce at home, while encouraging the same abroad.
  5. E) work for the removal of indigenous peoples from endangered habitats, so as to better preserve limited resources in those habitats.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

105) In the long run, harvesting Brazil nut trees for their lumber is most likely to benefit

  1. A) harpy eagles.
  2. B) later generations of humans.
  3. C) agoutis.
  4. D) orchid bees.
  5. E) sloths.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

106) People who attempted to plant Brazil nuts in hopes of establishing plantations of Brazil nut trees played roles most similar to those of

  1. A) agoutis.
  2. B) orchid bees.
  3. C) pollen tubes.
  4. D) harpy eagles.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

107) The same bees that pollinate the flowers of the Brazil nut trees pollinate orchids, which are epiphytes (in other words, plants that grow on other plants); however, orchids cannot grow on Brazil nut trees. These observations explain

  1. A) the coevolution of Brazil nut trees and orchids.
  2. B) why Brazil nut trees do not set fruit in plantations.
  3. C) why male orchid bees do not pollinate Brazil nut tree flowers.
  4. D) why male orchid bees are smaller than female orchid bees.
  5. E) the importance of orchid and Brazil nut tree flowers for the production of orchid bee honey.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

108) If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her stomach, and if she visits only other flowers on the same tree, the result should be

  1. A) pollination.
  2. B) more nectar in her stomach.
  3. C) more pollen in her pollen basket.
  4. D) Three of the responses above are correct.
  5. E) Two of the responses above are correct.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

109) If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different Brazil nut tree, what is the sequence in which the following events should occur?

  1. double fertilization
  2. pollen tube emerges from pollen grain
  3. pollen tube enters micropyle
  4. pollination
  5. A) 4, 2, 3, 1
  6. B) 4, 2, 1, 3
  7. C) 4, 3, 2, 1
  8. D) 2, 4, 3, 1
  9. E) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

110) Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees.

  1. A) breezes
  2. B) rain droplets
  3. C) seed-eating birds
  4. D) squirrels
  5. E) both seed-eating birds and squirrels

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concepts 30.2-30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

111) The taller a Brazil nut tree is,

  1. the more valuable it is as a source of lumber.
  2. the less useful it is to harpy eagles.
  3. the greater its photosynthetic rate relative to neighbouring plants.
  4. A) 1 only
  5. B) 1 and 2
  6. C) 1 and 3
  7. D) 2 and 3

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

112) Ecologists often build models to depict the relationships between organisms. In such models, an arrow is used to link two organisms in a relationship. The arrowhead is next to the organism that is affected. If the effect is positive, the arrow is labeled with (+), and if negative, then the label is (-). Which of the following models best illustrates the relationship of the Brazil nut tree and the other organisms associated with it?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

 

113) If all agoutis were permanently removed from the rain forest, what would be the result?

  1. A) swift extinction of harpy eagles
  2. B) eventual extinction of Brazil nut trees
  3. C) eventual extinction of orchid bees
  4. D) swift extinction of orchids
  5. E) swift extinction of sloths

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

114) Ecologists often build models to depict the relationships between organisms. In such models, an arrow is used to link two organisms in a relationship. The arrowhead is next to the organism that is affected. If the effect is positive, the arrow is labeled with (+), and if negative, then the label is (-). Capuchin monkeys have been known to use rocks to smash open the fruits of Brazil nut trees. On the rare occasions this has been observed, the monkeys consume all of the Brazil nuts. Thus, which of the following correctly depicts the relationship between capuchin monkeys and Brazil nut trees?

  1. A)
  2. B)
  3. C)
  4. D)

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 30.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

115) Where in an angiosperm would you find a megasporangium?

  1. A) in the style of a flower
  2. B) inside the tip of a pollen tube
  3. C) enclosed in the stigma of a flower
  4. D) within an ovule contained within an ovary of a flower
  5. E) packed into pollen sacs within the anthers found on a stamen

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

116) A fruit is most commonly

  1. A) a mature ovary.
  2. B) a thickened style.
  3. C) an enlarged ovule.
  4. D) a modified root.
  5. E) a mature female gametophyte.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

117) With respect to angiosperms, which of the following is incorrectly paired with its chromosome count?

  1. A) egg—n
  2. B) megaspore—2n
  3. C) microspore—n
  4. D) zygote—2n
  5. E) sperm—n

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

118) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?

  1. A) alternation of generations
  2. B) ovules
  3. C) integuments
  4. D) pollen
  5. E) dependent gametophytes

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

119) Gymnosperms and angiosperms have the following in common except

  1. A) seeds.
  2. B) pollen.
  3. C) vascular tissue.
  4. D) ovaries.
  5. E) ovules.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

Campbell Biology, Cdn. Ed., 2e (Reece et al.)

Chapter 55   Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology

 

1) How do the Taylor Glacier bacteria produce their energy?

  1. A) photosynthesis
  2. B) heterotrophism
  3. C) chemoautotrophism
  4. D) thermophobism
  5. E) chemosynthesis

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

2) In ecosystems, why is the term cycling used to describe material transfer, whereas the term flow is used for energy exchange?

  1. A) Materials are repeatedly used, but energy flows through and out of ecosystems.
  2. B) Both material and energy are recycled and are then transferred to other ecosystems as in a flow.
  3. C) Materials are cycled into ecosystems from other ecosystems, but energy constantly flows within the ecosystem.
  4. D) Both material and energy flow in a never-ending stream within an ecosystem.
  5. E) None of the choices is correct.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

3) Which statement most accurately describes how matter and energy are used in ecosystems?

  1. A) Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.
  2. B) Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.
  3. C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy.
  4. D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter.
  5. E) Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

4) The law of conservation of matter states that matter cannot be created, yet matter is sometimes gained or lost to an ecosystem. What is the reason for this seeming contradiction?

  1. A) Chemoautotrophic organisms can convert matter to energy.
  2. B) Matter can be moved in/out of an ecosystem from/to another ecosystem.
  3. C) Photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy to sugars.
  4. D) Detrivores convert matter to energy.
  5. E) Heterotrophs convert heat to energy.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

5) Photosynthetic organisms are unique to most ecosystems because they

  1. A) synthesize organic compounds they obtain from decaying heterotrophs.
  2. B) synthesize inorganic compounds from organic compounds.
  3. C) use light energy to synthesize organic compounds.
  4. D) use chemical energy to synthesize organic compounds.
  5. E) convert light energy into matter.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

6) A cow’s herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n)

  1. A) primary consumer.
  2. B) secondary consumer.
  3. C) decomposer.
  4. D) autotroph.
  5. E) producer.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

7) To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum,

  1. A) producers.
  2. B) producers and decomposers.
  3. C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers.
  4. D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers.
  5. E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

8) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?

  1. A) heterotrophs
  2. B) herbivores
  3. C) carnivores
  4. D) primary consumers
  5. E) secondary consumers

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

9) Decomposers obtain energy from

  1. A) live organic material
  2. B) detritus
  3. C) fungi
  4. D) other heterotrophs
  5. E) bacteria

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

10) Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings, which are then hauled to the local landfill. Which of the following actions would most benefit the suburban ecosystem?

  1. A) Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheep’s feces to be delivered to the landfill.
  2. B) Collect the lawn clippings and burn them.
  3. C) Collect the lawn clippings and add them to a compost pile, don’t collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn, or apply composted clippings to the lawn.
  4. D) Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake.
  5. E) Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

11) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?

  1. A) all of the brook trout in a 500 hectare2river drainage system
  2. B) the plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow
  3. C) a pond and all of the plant and animal species that live in it
  4. D) the intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna during a drought
  5. E) interactions between all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

12) If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster?

  1. A) tropical rain forest
  2. B) tundra
  3. C) benthic ocean
  4. D) grassland
  5. E) desert

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

13) Which of the following is true of detrivores?

  1. A) They recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers.
  2. B) They synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers.
  3. C) They convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers.
  4. D) They secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into CO2and H2
  5. E) Some species are autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

14) The major role of detrivores in ecosystems is to

  1. A) provide a nutritional resource for heterotrophs.
  2. B) recycle chemical nutrients to a form capable of being used by autotrophs.
  3. C) prevent the buildup of the organic remains of organisms, feces, and so on.
  4. D) return energy lost to the ecosystem by other organisms.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

15) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?

  1. A) some prokaryotes – detritivores
  2. B) rabbits – primary consumers
  3. C) zooplankton – primary consumers
  4. D) phytoplankton – primary producers
  5. E) great white shark – secondary consumer

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

16) Gross primary production

  1. A) is equal to NPP — respiration of autotrophs.
  2. B) is about half of NPP.
  3. C) is the total biomass of all photosynthetic autotrophs.
  4. D) is the total energy from light converted to chemical energy of organic molecules per unit time.
  5. E) is not as important as net primary production.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

17) What are two key factors controlling primary productivity in lakes and oceans?

  1. A) light and nutrients
  2. B) nutrients and temperature
  3. C) light and temperature
  4. D) light and phytoplankton
  5. E) nutrients and wind

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

18) Approximately 1% of the solar radiation that strikes a plant is converted into the chemical bond energy of sugars. Why is this amount so low?

  1. A) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is converted to heat energy.
  2. B) Only 1% of the wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by photosynthetic pigments.
  3. C) Most solar energy strikes water and land surfaces.
  4. D) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is reflected.
  5. E) Only the green wavelengths are absorbed by plants for photosynthesis.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

19) What percentage of solar radiation striking a plant is converted into chemical energy?

  1. A) 1%
  2. B) 10%
  3. C) 25%
  4. D) 50%
  5. E) 100%

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

20) Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity?

  1. A) the energy contained in the standing crop
  2. B) the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration
  3. C) the energy used by autotrophs in respiration
  4. D) the energy fixed by photosynthesis
  5. E) all solar energy

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

21) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth’s net primary productivity?

  1. A) tundra
  2. B) savanna
  3. C) salt marsh
  4. D) open ocean
  5. E) tropical rain forest

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

22) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square metre?

  1. A) savanna
  2. B) open ocean
  3. C) boreal forest
  4. D) tropical rain forest
  5. E) temperate forest

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

23) Which data is most useful to measure primary productivity in a terrestrial ecosystem?

  1. A) temperature readings
  2. B) potential evapotranspiration
  3. C) intensity of solar radiation
  4. D) annual precipitation
  5. E) amount of carbon fixed

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

24) Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils and their implication for primary productivity?

  1. A) Globally, phosphorous availability is most limiting to primary productivity.
  2. B) Adding a nonlimiting nutrient will stimulate primary productivity.
  3. C) Adding more of a limiting nutrient will increase primary productivity, indefinitely.
  4. D) Phosphorous is sometimes unavailable to producers due to leaching.
  5. E) Alkaline soils are more productive than acidic soils.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

25) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as

  1. A) gross primary productivity.
  2. B) standing crop.
  3. C) net primary productivity.
  4. D) secondary productivity.
  5. E) trophic efficiency.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

26) How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earth’s ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square metre is relatively low?

  1. A) Oceans contain greater concentrations of nutrients compared to other ecosystems.
  2. B) Oceans receive a lesser amount of solar energy per unit area.
  3. C) Oceans have the largest area of all the ecosystems on Earth.
  4. D) Ocean ecosystems have less species diversity.
  5. E) Oceanic producers are generally much smaller than oceanic consumers.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

27) Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)?

  1. A) NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time.
  2. B) NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire ecosystem.
  3. C) NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the ecosystem.
  4. D) NPP is the same as the standing crop.
  5. E) NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

28) How is net ecosystem production (NEP) typically estimated in ecosystems?

  1. A) the ratio of producers to consumers
  2. B) the amount of heat energy released by the ecosystem
  3. C) the net flux of CO2or O2in or out of an ecosystem
  4. D) the rate of decomposition by detrivores
  5. E) the annual total of incoming solar radiation per unit of area

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

29) During a year, plants never use 100% of the incoming solar radiation for photosynthesis. What is a reasonable explanation for this?

  1. I) Plants cannot photosynthesize as well during winter (in cold winter climates).
  2. II) Plants cannot photosynthesize as well on cloudy days.

III) The pigments that drive photosynthesis respond to only a fraction of the wavelengths that are available.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) I, II, and III

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

30) You own three hundred acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?

  1. A) adding fertilizer to the entire area
  2. B) introducing one hundred rabbits into the area
  3. C) planting five hundred new trees
  4. D) relocating all of the deer found in the area

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

31) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following?

  1. A) light and nutrient availability
  2. B) predation by primary consumers
  3. C) increased pressure with depth
  4. D) pollution
  5. E) temperature

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

32) Aquatic ecosystems are least likely to be limited by which of the following nutrients?

  1. A) nitrogen
  2. B) carbon
  3. C) phosphorus
  4. D) iron
  5. E) zinc

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

33) What is the primary limiting factor for aquatic productivity?

  1. A) pressure
  2. B) lack of nutrients
  3. C) light availability
  4. D) herbivores
  5. E) competition

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

34) Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare and why?

  1. A) open ocean because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
  2. B) grassland because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition
  3. C) tropical rain forest because of the massive standing crop biomass and species diversity
  4. D) cave due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
  5. E) tundra because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

35) How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on Earth?

  1. A) Photosynthetic organisms absorb more visible light in the 350-750 wavelengths.
  2. B) Satellite instruments can detect reflectance patterns of the photosynthetic organisms of different ecosystems.
  3. C) Sensitive satellite instruments can measure the amount of NADPH produced in the summative light reactions of different ecosystems.
  4. D) Satellites detect differences by comparing the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by photoautotrophs to the amount of light reaching different ecosystems.
  5. E) Satellites detect differences by measuring the amount of water vapour emitted by transpiring producers.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

36) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest percent in production efficiency?

  1. A) mammals, fish, insects
  2. B) insects, fish, mammals
  3. C) fish, insects, mammals
  4. D) insects, mammals, fish
  5. E) mammals, insects, fish

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

37) A 3-hectare lake in the American Midwest suddenly has succumbed to an algal bloom. What is the likely cause of eutrophication in freshwater ecosystems, such as this one?

  1. A) increased solar radiation
  2. B) introduction of non-native tertiary consumer fish
  3. C) nutrient runoff
  4. D) accidental introduction of a prolific culture of algae
  5. E) iron dust blowing into the lake

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

38) The amount of chemical energy in consumers’ food that is converted to their own new biomass during a given time period is known as which of the following?

  1. A) biomass
  2. B) standing crop
  3. C) biomagnification
  4. D) primary production
  5. E) secondary production

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

39) What is secondary production?

  1. A) energy converted by secondary consumers from primary consumers
  2. B) solar energy that is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis
  3. C) food that is converted to new biomass by consumers
  4. D) energy that is not used by consumers for growth and reproduction
  5. E) growth that takes place during the second year of life in consumers

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

40) How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top-level predators?

  1. A) Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed.
  2. B) Predators have relatively large population sizes.
  3. C) Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels.
  4. D) Predators have short life spans and short reproductive periods.
  5. E) Top-level predators are more likely to be stricken with parasites.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

41) Trophic efficiency is

  1. A) the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production.
  2. B) the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next.
  3. C) a measure of how nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next.
  4. D) usually greater than production efficiencies.
  5. E) about 90% in most ecosystems.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

42) Owls eat rats, mice, shrews, and small birds. Assume that, over a period of time, an owl consumes 5000 J of animal material. The owl loses 2300 J in feces and owl pellets and uses 2500 J for cellular respiration. What is the primary efficiency of this owl?

  1. A) 0.02%
  2. B) 1%
  3. C) 4%
  4. D) 10%
  5. E) 40%

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

43) Why does a vegetarian leave a smaller ecological footprint than an omnivore?

  1. A) Fewer animals are slaughtered for human consumption.
  2. B) There is an excess of plant biomass in all terrestrial ecosystems.
  3. C) Vegetarians need to ingest less chemical energy than omnivores.
  4. D) Vegetarians require less protein than do omnivores.
  5. E) Eating meat is an inefficient way of acquiring photosynthetic productivity.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

44) For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same—they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that

  1. A) secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers.
  2. B) at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive.
  3. C) as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment.
  4. D) biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores.
  5. E) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

45) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?

  1. A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
  2. B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy.
  3. C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems.
  4. D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
  5. E) Energy transfer between tropic levels is in almost all cases less than 20% efficient.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

46) Which trophic level is most vulnerable to extinction?

  1. A) producer level
  2. B) primary consumer level
  3. C) secondary consumer level
  4. D) tertiary consumer level
  5. E) decomposer level

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

47) Secondary consumers that can eat only primary consumers receive what percentage of the energy fixed by primary producers in a typical field ecosystem?

  1. A) 0.1%
  2. B) 1%
  3. C) 10%
  4. D) 20%
  5. E) 80%

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

48) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?

  1. A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.
  2. B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration.
  3. C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.
  4. D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat in accordance with the second law of thermodynamics.
  5. E) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

49) Consider the food chain grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake → hawk. How much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100%) is available to the hawk?

  1. A) 0.01%
  2. B) 0.1%
  3. C) 1%
  4. D) 10%
  5. E) 60%

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

50) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true?

  1. A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.
  2. B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals.
  3. C) Seal meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins.
  4. D) Seal populations are larger than fish populations.
  5. E) The fish can potentially provide more food for humans than the seal meat can.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

 

51) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

  1. A) production efficiency — energy in assimilated food that is not used for respiration
  2. B) secondary production — the amount of chemical energy in a consumers’ food that is converted to their new biomass in a given time period
  3. C) tertiary production — the number of top predators in the food web
  4. D) trophic efficiency — percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next
  5. E) eutrophication — excess nutrients resulting in high cyanobacteria concentrations and algae blooms

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

52) What do researchers typically focus on when they study a particular biogeochemical cycle?

  1. I) the nature and size of the reservoirs
  2. II) the rate of element movement between reservoirs

III) interaction of the current cycle with other cycles

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) only II and III

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

53) Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of

  1. A) N2 in the atmosphere.
  2. B) nitrite ions in the soil.
  3. C) uric acid from animal excretions.
  4. D) amino acids from decomposing plant and animal proteins.
  5. E) nitrate ions in the soil.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

54) Which of the following locations is the reservoir for nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle?

  1. A) atmosphere
  2. B) sedimentary bedrock
  3. C) fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)
  4. D) plant and animal biomass
  5. E) soil

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

55) Which of the following locations is the reservoir for carbon for the carbon cycle?

  1. A) atmosphere
  2. B) sediments and sedimentary rocks
  3. C) fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas)
  4. D) plant and animal biomass
  5. E) all of the above

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

56) Decomposition

  1. A) is controlled by temperature, moisture, and nutrient availability.
  2. B) rate is similar in tropical rain forests and temperate forests.
  3. C) is slow in ecosystems that are cold and wet, such as peatlands.
  4. D) is rapid in aquatic systems, such as deep lakes.
  5. E) A and C

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

57) In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N2 are

  1. A) Rhizobium
  2. B) nitrifying bacteria.
  3. C) denitrifying bacteria.
  4. D) methanogenic protozoans.
  5. E) nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

58) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems?

  1. A) cellular respiration
  2. B) photosynthesis
  3. C) rock weathering
  4. D) vulcanism
  5. E) atmospheric phosphorous gas

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

59) Which of the following is an example of a local biogeochemical cycle?

  1. A) O2released by oak trees in a forest
  2. B) CO2absorbed by phytoplankton in the open ocean
  3. C) excess NO3-converted to N2 by denitrifying soil bacteria
  4. D) phosphorous being absorbed from the soil by a corn plant
  5. E) organic carbon remains of a leaf being converted to CO2by a fungus

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

60) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?

  1. A) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus.
  2. B) The phosphorus cycle involves the weathering of rocks.
  3. C) The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil fuels.
  4. D) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO2for the past million years.
  5. E) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

61) Which of the following properly links the nutrient to its reservoir?

  1. A) nitrogen—ionic nitrogen in the soil
  2. B) water—atmospheric water vapour
  3. C) carbon—dissolved CO2in aquatic ecosystems
  4. D) phosphorous—sedimentary rocks
  5. E) All of the options are correct.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

 

62) The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment revealed that

  1. I) deforestation increased water runoff.
  2. II) nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high.

III) calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) only I and II

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

63) In terms of nutrient cycling, why does timber harvesting in a temperate forest cause less ecological devastation than timber harvesting in tropical rain forests?

  1. A) Trees are generally less numerous in temperate forests, so fewer nutrients will be removed from the temperate forest ecosystem during a harvest.
  2. B) Temperate forest tree species require fewer nutrients to survive than their tropical counterpart species, so a harvest removes fewer nutrients from the temperate ecosystem.
  3. C) The warmer temperatures in the tropics influence rain forest species to assimilate nutrients more slowly, so tropical nutrient absorption is much slower than in temperate forests.
  4. D) There are far fewer decomposers in tropical rain forests, so turning organic matter into usable nutrients is a slower process than in temperate forest ecosystems.
  5. E) Typical harvests remove up to 75% of the nutrients in the woody trunks of tropical rain forest trees, leaving nutrient-impoverished soils behind.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

64) Why do logged tropical rain forest soils typically have nutrient-poor soils?

  1. A) Tropical bedrock contains little phosphorous.
  2. B) Logging results in soil temperatures that are lethal to nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
  3. C) Most of the nutrients in the ecosystem are removed in the harvested timber.
  4. D) The cation exchange capacity of the soil is reversed as a result of logging.
  5. E) Nutrients evaporate easily into the atmosphere in the post-logged forest.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

 

65) The rate at which nutrients move through an ecosystem is most often limited by

  1. A) decomposition rate.
  2. B) primary production.
  3. C) density of primary consumers.
  4. D) density of secondary consumers.
  5. E) density of tertiary consumers.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

66) Two key strategies in biological restoration include

  1. A) reversing the damage, adding fertilizer.
  2. B) removing dams, increasing water flow.
  3. C) adding soil, planting trees.
  4. D) bioremediation, biological augmentation.
  5. E) removing toxic soil, introducing fungi.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

67) How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites?

  1. I) Bacteria have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals; perhaps there are more.
  2. II) Trees produce sawdust, which can be used to soak up chemicals.

III) Species evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area.

  1. A) only I
  2. B) only II
  3. C) only III
  4. D) only II and III

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

68) What is the first step in ecosystem restoration?

  1. A) to restore the physical structure
  2. B) to restore native species that have been extirpated due to disturbance
  3. C) to remove competitive invasive species
  4. D) to identify the limiting factors of the producers
  5. E) to remove toxic pollutants

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

69) What is the goal of restoration ecology?

  1. A) to replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area
  2. B) to speed up the restoration of a degraded ecosystem
  3. C) to completely restore a disturbed ecosystem to its former undisturbed state
  4. D) to prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status
  5. E) to manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

70) Which of the following statements is true?

  1. A) An ecosystem’s trophic structure determines the rate at which energy cycles within the system.
  2. B) At any point in time, it is impossible for consumers to outnumber producers in an ecosystem.
  3. C) Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep-sea vents are primary producers.
  4. D) There has been a well-documented increase in atmospheric nitrogen over the past several decades.
  5. E) The reservoir of ecosystem phosphorous is the atmosphere.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

71) In a typical grassland community, which of the following has the smallest biomass?

  1. A) hawk
  2. B) snake
  3. C) shrew
  4. D) grasshopper
  5. E) grass

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

72) In a typical grassland community, which of the following is the primary consumer?

  1. A) hawk
  2. B) snake
  3. C) shrew
  4. D) grasshopper
  5. E) grass

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

73) Restoration of a temperate grassland ecosystem involves

  1. A) planting native prairie grasses and removing all gazing animals to protect the vegetation.
  2. B) planting native prairie grasses and introducing grazers such as pronghorn antelope and bison.
  3. C) prescribed burns to mimic natural fires.
  4. D) A and C
  5. E) B and C

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

74) Which of the following is an example of biological augmentation?

  1. A) planting species that thrive in nutrient-poor soil to speed up succession
  2. B) planting nitrogen-fixing plants, such as lupines, to raise nitrogen concentration in the soil
  3. C) dredging a river or lake bottom to remove contaminated sediments
  4. D) introducing lichen species that grow in soil polluted with uranium
  5. E) A and B

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

75) When levels of CO2 are experimentally increased in a typical grassland community, C3 plants generally respond with a greater increase in productivity than C4 plants. This is because

  1. A) C3plants are more efficient in their use of CO2.
  2. B) C3plants are able to obtain the same amount of CO2by keeping their stomata open for shorter periods of time.
  3. C) C4plants don’t use CO2as their source of carbon.
  4. D) C3plants are more limited by CO2availability because they lack mechanisms to prevent transpirational water loss.
  5. E) C3plants have special adaptations for CO2uptake, such as larger stomata.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following food web to answer the questions below.

 

Food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species)

 

76) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is autotrophic?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

77) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species is most likely a decomposer on this food web?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

78) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C?

  1. A) A
  2. B) B
  3. C) C
  4. D) D
  5. E) E

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Synthesis/Evaluation

79) Examine this food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which pair of species could be omnivores?

  1. A) A and B
  2. B) A and D
  3. C) B and C
  4. D) C and D
  5. E) C and E

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

Use the following food web to answer the questions below.

 

 

Diagram of a food web (arrows represent energy flow and letters represent species)

 

80) If the figure above represents a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of C + D would probably be

  1. A) greater than the biomass of A.
  2. B) less than the biomass of H.
  3. C) greater than the biomass of B.
  4. D) less than the biomass of A + B.
  5. E) less than the biomass of E.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

81) If the figure above represents a marine food web, the smallest organism might be

  1. A) A.
  2. B) F.
  3. C) C.
  4. D) I.
  5. E) E.

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

Use the following figure to answer the questions below.

 

 

82) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrite (NO2)?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

83) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents ammonia (NH4+)?

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 3
  4. D) 4

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

84) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 7

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

85) On the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, which number represents nitrifying bacteria?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 7

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.4

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

86) Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a month. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?

  1. A) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and add that amount to the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
  2. B) Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period, multiply this number by 100, and subtract that amount from the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
  3. C) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/- value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem.
  4. D) Do nothing. The Canada geese visitation to the lake would have negligible impact on the nitrogen budget of the pond.
  5. E) Put a net over the pond so that no more migrating flocks can land on the pond and alter the nitrogen balance of the pond.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.1

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

87) As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate this, one reasonable approach would be to

  1. A) follow whale migrations in order to determine where most nutrients are located.
  2. B) observe Antarctic Ocean productivity from year to year to see if it changes.
  3. C) experimentally enrich some areas of the ocean and compare their productivity to that of untreated areas.
  4. D) compare nutrient concentrations between the photic zone and the benthic zone in various marine locations.
  5. E) contrast nutrient uptake by autotrophs in marine locations that are different temperatures.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.2

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

88) A porcupine eats 3000 J of plant material. Of this, 2100 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces, 800 J are used in cellular respiration, and 100 J are used for growth and reproduction. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal?

  1. A) 0.03%
  2. B) 3%
  3. C) 10%
  4. D) 27%
  5. E) 33%

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.3

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

The following questions refer to the description below.

 

Fynbos are endemic shrubs found in the Cape province of South Africa. A small botanical region known as the Cape Floral Kingdom, is one of the richest areas in the world in terms of plant diversity. Fynbos shrubs, readily recognized by their small, hard, tough, leathery leaves, are well adapted to summer droughts, nutrient-poor soils, and periodic fires. The fynbos shrub community plays a key role in maintaining a regional supply of water. In recent decades, exotic plant species, such as acacia trees from Australia and pine trees from Europe, have been introduced to South Africa and have invaded the fynbos. Researchers are now observing that stream flow from fynbos watersheds is inversely proportional to plant biomass and natural fire cycles have changed.

 

89) Speculate on the most likely reasons why exotic/invasive trees are disrupting the natural ecological functions of the fynbos shrub community.

  1. Invasive tree species likely grow larger and faster than the shrubs and can increase the intensity and severity of fires, harming the native vegetation.
  2. Invasive tree species require/utilize more water than native vegetation, decreasing stream flow.
  3. Invasive trees are bigger than the native shrubs and prevent natural fires.
  4. Invasive trees transpire less than the native fynbos, disrupting the hydrological cycle of the region.
  5. The invasive species have a different root system and expose the area to soil erosion.
  6. A) 1 and 2
  7. B) 1 and 3
  8. C) 1 and 4
  9. D) 3 and 5
  10. E) 4 and 5

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

90) Restoration ecology projects, including the removal of exotic species from the fynbos shrub community described above, are important because

  1. A) they target many species that have low genetic variation.
  2. B) fire is a threat to many restored ecosystems.
  3. C) many habitats that are part of ecology restoration projects are those that have been highly degraded and cannot return to their natural state without human intervention.
  4. D) areas that are being restored are those most threatened by global warming.
  5. E) practices such as captive propagation are not as successful as they were predicted to be.

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  Concept 55.5

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

91) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?

  1. A) cyanobacterium—primary producer
  2. B) grasshopper—primary consumer
  3. C) zooplankton—primary producer
  4. D) eagle—tertiary consumer
  5. E) fungus—detritivore

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

92) Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square metre?

  1. A) a salt marsh
  2. B) an open ocean
  3. C) a coral reef
  4. D) a grassland
  5. E) a tropical rain forest

Answer:  B

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

93) The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to a more natural state is known as

  1. A) population viability analysis.
  2. B) landscape ecology.
  3. C) conservation ecology.
  4. D) restoration ecology.
  5. E) resource conservation.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Knowledge/Comprehension

 

94) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by

  1. A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia.
  2. B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil.
  3. C) converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere.
  4. D) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb.
  5. E) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.

Answer:  D

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

95) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem?

  1. A) the ecosystem’s rate of primary production
  2. B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem’s consumers
  3. C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
  4. D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
  5. E) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem

Answer:  C

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

96) The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except

  1. A) Most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem.
  2. B) The flow of minerals out of a natural watershed was offset by minerals flowing in.
  3. C) Deforestation increased water runoff.
  4. D) The nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high.
  5. E) Calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

97) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?

  1. A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
  2. B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
  3. C) dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments
  4. D) reconfiguring the channel of a river
  5. E) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium

Answer:  A

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

 

98) If you applied a fungicide to a cornfield, what would you expect to happen to the rate of decomposition and net ecosystem production (NEP)?

  1. A) Both decomposition rate and NEP would decrease.
  2. B) Both decomposition rate and NEP would increase.
  3. C) Neither would change.
  4. D) Decomposition rate would increase and NEP would decrease.
  5. E) Decomposition rate would decrease and NEP would increase.

Answer:  E

Type: MC

Topic:  End-of-Chapter Questions

Skill:  Application/Analysis

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