Business Data Networks And Security 9th Edition by Raymond R. Pank – Test Bank

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Business Data Networks and Security 9th Edition by Raymond R. Pank – Test Bank
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Business Data Networks and Security, 9e (Panko)

Chapter 2  Network Standards

 

1) Network standards are also called protocols.

Answer:  TRUE

 

2) Standards govern ________.

  1. A) semantics
  2. B) syntax
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

3) The meaning of a message is referred to as the message’s ________.

  1. A) protocol
  2. B) order
  3. C) value
  4. D) semantics

Answer:  D

 

4) How a message is organized is its ________.

  1. A) syntax
  2. B) semantics
  3. C) order
  4. D) Both A and B

Answer:  A

 

5) In HTTP, a server may initiate an interaction with the client.

Answer:  FALSE

 

6) Host P transmits a SYN to Host Q. If host Q is willing to open the connection, it will transmit a(n) ________ segment.

  1. A) ACK
  2. B) SYN
  3. C) SYN/ACK
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

7) If the destination host does not receive a segment, it will ________.

  1. A) transmit an ACK segment
  2. B) transmit a NAC segment
  3. C) transmit an RSND segment
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

 

8) If the destination host receives a segment that has an error, it will ________.

  1. A) transmit an ACK segment
  2. B) transmit a NAC segment
  3. C) transmit an RST segment
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

9) A sending host will retransmit a TCP segment if ________.

  1. A) it receives an ACK segment
  2. B) it receives a NAC segment
  3. C) RPT
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

10) The side wishing to close a TCP segment sends a(n) ________ segment.

  1. A) SYN
  2. B) ACK
  3. C) FIN
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

11) After the side wishing to close a TCP connection sends a FIN segment, it will ________.

  1. A) not send any more segments
  2. B) only send ACK segments
  3. C) only send FIN segments
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

12) Which of the following is not one of the three general parts of messages?

  1. A) Address field.
  2. B) Header.
  3. C) Data field.
  4. D) Trailer.

Answer:  A

 

13) The ________ contains the content being delivered by a message.

  1. A) address field
  2. B) header
  3. C) data field
  4. D) trailer

Answer:  C

 

14) The header is defined as everything that comes before the data field.

Answer:  TRUE

 

15) Messages always have data fields.

Answer:  FALSE

 

16) The trailer is defined as everything that comes after the data field.

Answer:  TRUE

 

17) Most messages have trailers.

Answer:  FALSE

 

18) Headers usually are divided into fields.

Answer:  TRUE

19) “Octet” is the same as ________.

  1. A) “bit”
  2. B) “byte”
  3. C) Either A or B, depending on the context
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

20) Ethernet addresses are ________.

  1. A) 32 bits long
  2. B) 48 bits long
  3. C) 128 bits long
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

21) Ethernet addresses are ________ long.

  1. A) 4 octets
  2. B) 6 octets
  3. C) 32 octets
  4. D) 48 octets

Answer:  B

 

22) ________ read(s) the destination MAC address in an Ethernet frame.

  1. A) The destination host
  2. B) Switches in the network
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

23) If the destination host finds an error in an Ethernet frame, it ________.

  1. A) sends back a NAK
  2. B) retransmits the frame
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

 

24) Ethernet does ________.

  1. A) error detection
  2. B) error correction
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

25) Ethernet detects errors but does not correct them. Therefore, Ethernet is reliable.

Answer:  FALSE

 

26) In an IP header, the first bit in the second row is bit ________.

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 31
  3. C) 32
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

27) How long are IPv4 addresses?

  1. A) 32 octets.
  2. B) 48 bits.
  3. C) 20 octets.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

28) How long are IPv4 addresses?

  1. A) 4 octets.
  2. B) 6 octets.
  3. C) 20 octets.
  4. D) 32 octets.

Answer:  A

 

29) Routers make forward decisions based on a packet’s source IP address.

Answer:  FALSE

 

30) Routers make packet forwarding decisions based on a packet’s ________.

  1. A) source IP address
  2. B) destination IP address
  3. C) Both A and B

Answer:  B

 

31) IP is reliable.

Answer:  FALSE

 

32) IP detects errors but does not correct them. Therefore, IP is reliable.

Answer:  FALSE

 

 

33) To handle internetwork transmission control tasks that IP cannot handle, the IETF created TCP.

Answer:  TRUE

 

34) TCP messages are called ________.

  1. A) frames
  2. B) fragments
  3. C) packets
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

35) One-bit fields are called ________ fields.

  1. A) binary
  2. B) flag
  3. C) ACK
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

36) If someone says that a 1-bit flag is set, this means that it is given the value ________.

  1. A) 0
  2. B) 1
  3. C) Either A or B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

37) If the ACK bit is set, the acknowledgement number field MUST have a value.

Answer:  TRUE

 

38) Which of the following has a header checksum field?

  1. A) TCP.
  2. B) UDP.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

39) UDP checks messages for errors but does not correct them. UDP is ________.

  1. A) reliable
  2. B) unreliable
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

 

40) On a server, well-known port numbers indicate ________.

  1. A) applications
  2. B) connections with client computers
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

41) On a client, ephemeral port numbers indicate ________.

  1. A) applications
  2. B) connections with servers
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

42) The range 1024 to 4999 is the usual range for ________ port numbers.

  1. A) well-known
  2. B) ephemeral
  3. C) Both A and B

Answer:  B

 

43) 6,000 is in the range for ________ port numbers.

  1. A) well-known
  2. B) ephemeral
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

44) An IP address, a colon, and a port number constitute a(n) ________.

  1. A) well-known port number
  2. B) ephemeral port number
  3. C) connection
  4. D) socket

Answer:  D

45) The application layer standard always is HTTP.

Answer:  FALSE

 

46) Which of the following layers has the most standards?

  1. A) Data link.
  2. B) Internet.
  3. C) Transport.
  4. D) Application.

Answer:  D

 

 

47) Which layer has more standards?

  1. A) Internet.
  2. B) Application.
  3. C) Both of the above have about the same number of standards.

Answer:  B

 

48) At which layer would you find standards for requesting videos from a video sharing site such as YouTube?

  1. A) Application.
  2. B) Transport.
  3. C) Internet.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

49) At which layer would you find file transfer protocol standards for downloading files?

  1. A) Application.
  2. B) Transport.
  3. C) Internet.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

50) Nearly all application standards are simple, like HTTP.

Answer:  FALSE

 

51) In HTTP, most response message header fields consist of a keyword, an equal sign, and the value for the keyword.

Answer:  FALSE

 

52) In HTTP, the end of a header field is indicated by a ________.

  1. A) byte position
  2. B) CRLF
  3. C) colon
  4. D) blank line

Answer:  B

 

53) An HTTP request message usually has a ________.

  1. A) header
  2. B) data field
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

54) An HTTP response message usually has a ________.

  1. A) trailer
  2. B) data field
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

55) Converting application messages into bits is called ________.

  1. A) encapsulation
  2. B) encryption
  3. C) encoding
  4. D) conversion

Answer:  C

 

56) At what layer is encoding done?

  1. A) Application.
  2. B) Transport.
  3. C) Internet.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

57) How many bytes will it take to transmit “Brain Dead” without the quotation marks?

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 3
  3. C) 9
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

58) How many bytes will it take to transmit “Can you hear me now?” without the quotation marks?

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 10
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

59) Binary counting usually begins at 1.

Answer:  FALSE

 

60) In binary, 13 is 1101. What is 14?

  1. A) 1110
  2. B) 1111
  3. C) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

61) If you have a field with N bits, you can represent N2 items.

Answer:  FALSE

62) A 5-bit field can represent ________ alternatives.

  1. A) 8
  2. B) 16
  3. C) 32
  4. D) 64

Answer:  C

 

63) Increasing an alternatives field length by one bit always doubles the number of alternatives it can represent.

Answer:  TRUE

 

64) A 7-bit field can represent ________ alternatives.

  1. A) 14
  2. B) 49
  3. C) 128
  4. D) 256

Answer:  C

 

65) To represent 65 alternatives, your alternatives field would have to be ________ bits long.

  1. A) 5
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 7
  4. D) 8

Answer:  C

 

66) The electrical signal generated by a microphone is called a(n) ________ signal.

  1. A) binary
  2. B) digital
  3. C) analog
  4. D) Either A or B

Answer:  A

 

67) A codec ________.

  1. A) encodes voice signals into analog signals
  2. B) encodes voice signals into binary signals
  3. C) compresses the signal
  4. D) Both B and C

Answer:  A

 

68) ________ is placing a message in the data field of another message.

  1. A) Encryption
  2. B) Vertical communication
  3. C) Layering
  4. D) Encapsulation

Answer:  D

 

69) After the internet layer process does encapsulation, it passes the IP packet to the ________ layer process.

  1. A) transport
  2. B) data link
  3. C) physical
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

70) After the data link layer process does encapsulation, it passes the IP packet to the ________ layer process.

  1. A) physical
  2. B) internet
  3. C) transport
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

71) Which layer process does not do encapsulation when an application layer process transmits a message?

  1. A) Physical.
  2. B) Data link.
  3. C) Internet.
  4. D) All do encapsulation.

Answer:  A

 

72) Network standards architectures break the standards functionality needed for communication into layers and define the functions of each layer.

Answer:  TRUE

 

73) Which of the following is a network standards architecture?

  1. A) ISO.
  2. B) TCP/IP.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

74) A corporate network can use either OSI standards at all layers or TCP/IP standards at all layers, but cannot use OSI standards at some layers and TCP/IP standards at other layers.

Answer:  FALSE

 

75) What is the dominant network standards architecture in most real firms today?

  1. A) OSI.
  2. B) TCP/IP.
  3. C) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

 

76) Which of the following is a standards agency for OSI?

  1. A) IETF.
  2. B) ITU-T.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

77) Which of the following is a network standards architecture?

  1. A) ISO.
  2. B) OSI.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

78) OSI is dominant at the ________ layer.

  1. A) physical
  2. B) internet
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

79) OSI is dominant at the ________ layer.

  1. A) data link
  2. B) transport
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

80) OSI is dominant at the ________ layer.

  1. A) internet
  2. B) transport
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

81) Which of the following is an architecture?

  1. A) IP.
  2. B) TCP.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

 

82) Which of the following is a standard?

  1. A) TCP/IP.
  2. B) IP.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

83) Which of the following is a standards agency for TCP/IP?

  1. A) ITU-T.
  2. B) IETF.
  3. C) OSI.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

84) TCP/IP became dominant in corporations primarily because of ________.

  1. A) its use on the Internet
  2. B) its relatively simple standards, which led to low costs
  3. C) a government mandate
  4. D) All of the above

Answer:  B

 

85) Most IETF documents are called ________.

  1. A) official internet standards
  2. B) TCP/IP standards
  3. C) RFCs
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

86) TCP/IP is dominant at the ________ layer(s).

  1. A) physical
  2. B) internet
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

87) TCP/IP is dominant at the ________ layer(s).

  1. A) data link
  2. B) transport
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

 

88) TCP/IP is dominant at the ________ layer(s).

  1. A) physical
  2. B) data link
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

89) Which standards architecture is dominant at the application layer?

  1. A) OSI.
  2. B) TCP/IP.
  3. C) IEEE.
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

90) Almost all applications, regardless of what standards architecture they come from, can run over TCP/IP standards at the internet and transport layers.

Answer:  TRUE

91) Which layer(s) of the hybrid TCP/IP—OSI standards architecture normally use(s) OSI standards?

  1. A) Data link.
  2. B) Transport.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

92) Which layer(s) of the hybrid TCP/IP—OSI standards architecture normally use(s) TCP/IP standards?

  1. A) Data link.
  2. B) Transport.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

93) Wireless LAN transmission normally is governed by ________ standards.

  1. A) OSI
  2. B) TCP/IP
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

94) Switched WAN transmission is governed by ________ standards.

  1. A) OSI
  2. B) TCP/IP
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

95) The OSI ________ layer allows application communication to be restarted at the last rollback point.

  1. A) application
  2. B) presentation
  3. C) session
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

96) The OSI ________ layer is designed to handle data formatting differences between two computers.

  1. A) application
  2. B) presentation
  3. C) session
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

97) The OSI ________ layer is designed to handle compression and encryption for applications.

  1. A) application
  2. B) presentation
  3. C) session
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

98) The OSI presentation layer is actually used ________.

  1. A) to convert between file formats
  2. B) as a category for data file standards used by multiple applications
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

99) Which of the following is NOT an OSI layer name?

  1. A) Data link.
  2. B) Internet.
  3. C) Session.
  4. D) Presentation.

Answer:  C

 

100) In OSI, the presentation layer is Layer ________.

  1. A) 7
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 5
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

Business Data Networks and Security, 9e (Panko)

Chapter 4  Network Management

 

1) The systems development life cycle includes the operation of a system after its creation.

Answer:  FALSE

 

2) Networking professionals only need to worry about the SDLC—not the SLC.

Answer:  FALSE

 

3) Which of the following manages a system throughout its life?

  1. A) SDLC.
  2. B) SLC.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

4) Which of the following is growing more rapidly?

  1. A) Network demand.
  2. B) Network budgets.
  3. C) Both of the above are growing equally rapidly.

Answer:  A

 

5) Network managers do not need to worry very much about cost when making decisions.

Answer:  FALSE

 

6) Performing an in-depth inventory of the current state of the company’s network is called ________.

  1. A) sensitivity analysis
  2. B) GIGO analysis
  3. C) validation
  4. D) what-is analysis

Answer:  D

 

7) Which of the following is not a driving force for change in a company’s technological infrastructure?

  1. A) The introduction of disruptive applications.
  2. B) Organizational change within the company.
  3. C) The normal continuing growth of application traffic demand.
  4. D) All of the above are driving forces for change.

Answer:  A

 

8) After performing what-is analysis, it is generally a good idea to perform gaps analysis.

Answer:  TRUE

 

 

9) Decisions that lock an organization into a specific vendor or technology option for several years are ________.

  1. A) SDLC
  2. B) SLC
  3. C) strategic
  4. D) legacy

Answer:  D

10) In QoS, the S stands for ________.

  1. A) software
  2. B) security
  3. C) service
  4. D) satisfaction

Answer:  C

 

11) QoS is quantified through ________.

  1. A) criteria
  2. B) consensus
  3. C) metrics
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

12) Transmission speed normally is measured in bits per second.

Answer:  TRUE

 

13) Transmission speed normally is measured in bytes per second.

Answer:  FALSE

 

14) Transmission speed is normally measured in ________.

  1. A) bits per second
  2. B) bytes per second
  3. C) Both of the above about equally
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

15) Which of the following correctly orders transmission speeds from smallest to largest?

  1. A) bps, kbps, Gbps, Mbps.
  2. B) kbps, bps, Mbps, Gbps.
  3. C) Gbps, kbps, Mbps, bps.
  4. D) bps, kbps, Mbps, Gbps.

Answer:  D

 

 

16) Which of the following is written improperly?

  1. A) 170 Mbps.
  2. B) 48.62Gbps.
  3. C) 45.328 Gbps.
  4. D) All of the above are written properly.

Answer:  B

 

17) Throughput is ________.

  1. A) the speed a network actually provides to users
  2. B) a network’s rated speed
  3. C) Both of the above
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

18) Throughput is a network’s rated speed.

Answer:  FALSE

19) A network’s rated speed is ________.

  1. A) the speed it should provide
  2. B) the speed it actually provides
  3. C) Both of the above

Answer:  A

 

20) The actual network speed a user gets is ________.

  1. A) rated speed
  2. B) throughput
  3. C) Both of the above
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

21) Users of an access point share the transmission capacity of the access point. The throughput they share is called ________.

  1. A) rated speed
  2. B) aggregate throughput
  3. C) individual throughput
  4. D) All of the above

Answer:  B

 

22) Availability is the percentage of time that a network is available for use.

Answer:  TRUE

 

23) ________ is the percentage of time that a network is available for use.

  1. A) Availability
  2. B) Downtime
  3. C) Individual throughput
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

24) Downtime is the percentage of time that a network is available for use.

Answer:  FALSE

 

25) Which typically is designed to be available at least 99.999% of the time?

  1. A) The telephone network.
  2. B) Data networks.
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

26) The Public Switched Telephone Network is designed to be available 99.999% of the time.

Answer:  TRUE

 

27) Which of the following usually has higher availability?

  1. A) Data networks.
  2. B) The Public Switched Telephone Network.
  3. C) Both of the above usually have equal availability.

Answer:  B

28) The percentage of packets that are lost or damaged during delivery is called the ________.

  1. A) packet error rate
  2. B) bit error rate
  3. C) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

29) The percentage of bits that are lost or damaged during delivery is called the packet error rate.

Answer:  FALSE

 

30) Companies should measure error rates when traffic levels are low in order to have a good understanding of error rate risks.

Answer:  FALSE

 

31) When a packet travels through a network, the time it takes to get from the sender to the receiver is called ________.

  1. A) latency
  2. B) milliseconds
  3. C) jitter
  4. D) throughput

Answer:  A

 

32) Latency is usually measured in ________.

  1. A) bits per second (bps)
  2. B) milliseconds (ms)
  3. C) Megabits per second (Mbps)
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

33) Variability in delay is called jitter.

Answer:  TRUE

 

34) Variability in delay is called ________.

  1. A) jitter
  2. B) variance
  3. C) a QoS failure
  4. D) latency

Answer:  A

 

35) Jitter is a problem for ________.

  1. A) voice over IP (VoIP)
  2. B) streaming media
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

36) Jitter is a problem for ________.

  1. A) streaming media
  2. B) e-mail
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

37) The terms “latency” and “application response time” mean approximately the same thing.

Answer:  FALSE

 

38) Who is normally in charge of managing application response time?

  1. A) Networking.
  2. B) Security.
  3. C) Application and host managers.
  4. D) Nobody.

Answer:  D

 

39) An SLA should specify the ________.

  1. A) best case
  2. B) worst case
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

 

40) An SLA for latency should specify a ________.

  1. A) maximum latency
  2. B) minimum latency
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

41) An SLA for availability should specify a ________.

  1. A) maximum availability
  2. B) minimum availability
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

42) If a carrier does not meet its SLA guarantees, it generally must pay a penalty to its customers.

Answer:  TRUE

 

43) ________ the physical arrangement of a network’s computers, switches, routers, and transmission lines.

  1. A) Network architecture is
  2. B) Network topology is
  3. C) Network layout is
  4. D) Physical layer standards are

Answer:  B

 

44) Topology is a ________ layer concept.

  1. A) physical
  2. B) data link
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

45) In the ________ topology, there are only two nodes.

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) bus
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  D

 

46) In the ________ topology, there is only a single possible path between two end nodes.

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) bus
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

47) In the ________ topology, there are many possible paths between two end nodes.

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchial
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

48) Broadcasting is used in the ________ topology.

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) bus
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

49) What topology do radio transmission networks normally use?

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchical
  3. C) bus
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

50) Which of the following can be used in a complex topology?

  1. A) mesh
  2. B) hierarchy
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

51) Reliability is an advantage of ________.

  1. A) full mesh leased line networks
  2. B) pure hub-and-spoke networks
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

52) Low cost is an advantage of ________.

  1. A) full mesh leased line networks
  2. B) pure hub-and-spoke networks
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

53) Which type of network typology is less expensive to operate?

  1. A) Full mesh leased-line networks.
  2. B) Pure hub-and-spoke leased line networks.
  3. C) Both A and B cost about the same to operate.

Answer:  C

 

54) Most corporate leased line networks are ________.

  1. A) full mesh leased line networks
  2. B) pure hub-and-spoke leased line networks
  3. C) Both of the above
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

55) Overprovisioning is ________.

  1. A) wasteful of capacity
  2. B) highly labor-intensive
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

56) Overprovisioning means ________.

  1. A) assigning high priority to latency-intolerant applications while giving low priority to latency-tolerant applications
  2. B) adding much more switching and transmission line capacity than will be needed much of the time

Answer:  B

 

57) Overprovisioning is adding much more switching and transmission line capacity than will be needed much of the time.

Answer:  TRUE

 

58) Priority is assigning high priority to ________ applications while giving low priority to ________ applications.

  1. A) latency-tolerant, latency-intolerant
  2. B) latency-intolerant, latency-tolerant

Answer:  B

 

59) Priority is more labor-intensive than overprovisioning.

Answer:  TRUE

 

60) A packet will definitely get through if it has ________.

  1. A) QoS reserved capacity
  2. B) high priority
  3. C) Both A and B

Answer:  A

61) QoS guarantees help traffic even if the traffic is not given specific QoS guarantees.

Answer:  FALSE

 

 

62) ________ restricts traffic entering the network at access points.

  1. A) Overprovisioning
  2. B) Priority
  3. C) QoS reservations
  4. D) Traffic shaping

Answer:  D

 

63) Priority restricts traffic entering the network at access points.

Answer:  FALSE

 

64) Traffic shaping can ________.

  1. A) filter out unwanted traffic
  2. B) limit some traffic to a certain percentage of total capacity
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

65) Traffic shaping can substantially reduce a network’s overall traffic.

Answer:  TRUE

 

66) ________ can help reduce the traffic coming into a network.

  1. A) Traffic shaping
  2. B) Compression
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

67) To do compression, you do not need to have compatible equipment at the two ends of the network.

Answer:  FALSE

 

68) Data cannot be compressed unless it has redundancy.

Answer:  TRUE

 

69) If a product fails to meet minimum requirements, it should be dropped from consideration.

Answer:  TRUE

 

70) If a product fails to meet minimum requirements, ________.

  1. A) it should be dropped from further consideration
  2. B) it may still be the best product after you have conducted a multicriteria analysis

Answer:  A

 

 

71) A solution fails to be scalable if it is ________.

  1. A) too expensive at higher traffic volumes
  2. B) unable to grow to meet higher traffic volume
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

72) Firms generally make their own routers and switches, rather than purchasing them.

Answer:  FALSE

 

73) Hardware base prices usually give an accurate indication of the actual cost of using the hardware.

Answer:  FALSE

 

74) The price of hardware before adding components that will be needed in actual practice is called the ________ price.

  1. A) total
  2. B) base
  3. C) preliminary
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  B

 

75) Which of the following is not one of the categories of SDLC costs?

  1. A) Hardware costs.
  2. B) Software costs.
  3. C) Carrier costs.
  4. D) Outsourcing development costs.

Answer:  C

 

76) The cost of a system over its entire life cycle is called the ________.

  1. A) total cost of ownership
  2. B) base price
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

77) The total cost of ownership is the cost of a system during its development life cycle.

Answer:  FALSE

 

78) Carrier costs occur during the ________.

  1. A) SLC
  2. B) SDLC
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

 

79) Carrier costs are a factor in the systems life cycle.

Answer:  TRUE

 

80) The acronym OAM&P stands for ________.

  1. A) organization, authorization, management, and planning
  2. B) operations, administration, maintenance, and provisioning
  3. C) operations, administration, management, and provisioning
  4. D) organization, administration, maintenance, and planning

Answer:  B

 

81) Operations manages the network on a second-by-second basis.

Answer:  TRUE

82) ________ is managing the network on a second-by-second basis.

  1. A) Operations
  2. B) Administration
  3. C) Provisioning
  4. D) Maintenance

Answer:  A

 

83) Provisioning is setting up service.

Answer:  TRUE

 

84) Operations is setting up service.

Answer:  FALSE

 

85) Reprovisioning may be necessary when ________.

  1. A) a user changes jobs within the firm
  2. B) a user joins a project team
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

86) Reprovisioning may be necessary when a user leaves the company entirely.

Answer:  FALSE

 

87) Deprovisioning may be necessary when ________.

  1. A) a user joins a project team
  2. B) a user leaves the company entirely
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

 

88) Making purchases is a function of ________.

  1. A) operations
  2. B) administration
  3. C) provisioning
  4. D) maintenance

Answer:  B

 

89) Which of the following is not one of the main elements in SNMP?

  1. A) The manager.
  2. B) Managed devices.
  3. C) The management information base.
  4. D) All of the above are main elements in SNMP.

Answer:  D

 

90) In SNMP, the manager communicates directly with a(n) ________.

  1. A) managed device
  2. B) agent
  3. C) Both of the above
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

91) In SNMP, the manager communicates directly with a managed device.

Answer:  FALSE

 

92) SNMP Get commands ask agents for information about the managed device.

Answer:  TRUE

 

93) SNMP Set commands can ________.

  1. A) ask agents for information about the managed device
  2. B) reroute traffic
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

94) SNMP ________ commands can change how managed devices operate.

  1. A) Get
  2. B) Set
  3. C) Both of the above
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  B

 

95) The SNMP manager stores the information it receives from Get commands ________.

  1. A) in the MIB
  2. B) on the agent
  3. C) on the managed device
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  A

 

96) SNMP agents can initiate ________.

  1. A) Get commands
  2. B) Set commands
  3. C) traps
  4. D) All of the above

Answer:  C

Business Data Networks and Security, 9e (Panko)

Module B  More on Modulation

 

1) Frequency modulation uses two loudness levels.

Answer:  FALSE

 

2) Amplitude modulation uses two ________ levels.

  1. A) loudness
  2. B) frequency
  3. C) Both A and B

Answer:  A

 

3) Phase modulation uses two ________ levels.

  1. A) loudness
  2. B) frequency
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  D

 

4) BPSK uses ________ phase levels.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 15

Answer:  A

 

5) BPSK modulation uses two ________.

  1. A) amplitudes
  2. B) frequencies
  3. C) phases
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

6) QPSK modulation uses ________ phases.

  1. A) 2
  2. B) 4
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 15

Answer:  B

 

7) QPSK sends ________ bit(s) per clock cycle.

  1. A) 1
  2. B) 2
  3. C) 4
  4. D) 16

Answer:  B

8) QAM uses ________.

  1. A) amplitude modulation
  2. B) phase modulation
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  C

 

9) QAM uses ________ levels.

  1. A) loudness
  2. B) frequency
  3. C) Both A and B
  4. D) Neither A nor B

Answer:  A

 

10) In QAM, if you have four possible amplitudes, you have ________ possible states.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) None of the above

Answer:  C

 

11) In QAM, if you have eight possible amplitudes, you have ________ possible states.

  1. A) 4
  2. B) 8
  3. C) 16
  4. D) 64

Answer:  D

 

12) In QAM, if you have eight possible amplitudes, how many bits can you send per clock cycle?

  1. A) 3
  2. B) 6
  3. C) 8
  4. D) 16

Answer:  B

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