Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker – Test Bank

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INSTANT DOWNLOAD COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS
Biology 2nd Edition By Robert J. Brooker – Test Bank
 
Sample  Question 

 

Chapter 02

Test Bank: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water

 

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. These are the smallest functional units of matter that form all chemical substances and that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means.
    A. protons
    B.  neutrons
    C.  electrons
    D.  atoms
    E.  molecules

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The atomic number of an atom is
    A. the number of protons in the atom.
    B.  the number of neutrons in the atom.
    C.  the number of protons and electrons in the atom.
    D.  the number of protons and neutrons in the atom.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following represents the smallest functional unit of living organisms?
    A. atoms
    B.  molecules
    C.  proteins
    D.  water
    E.  salt

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Oxygen has an atomic mass of 16 and an atomic number of 8.
    A. Oxygen has 16 neutrons.
    B.  Oxygen has 8 electrons.
    C.  Oxygen can form two bonds with other atoms.
    D.  Oxygen has 16 neutrons and 8 electrons.
    E.  Oxygen has 8 electrons and can form two bonds with other atoms.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The nucleus of an atom is composed of
    A. protons.
    B.  neutrons.
    C.  electrons.
    D.  protons and neutrons.
    E.  protons and electrons.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Ernest Rutherford’s key experiment on alpha particle bombardment of gold foil was important to the development of
    A. detection methods for protons.
    B.  alpha particle emitters.
    C.  gold as an element.
    D.  the modern model for atomic structure.
    E.  the concept that atoms have a homogenous distribution of protons throughout the atom.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. If a scientist were to shoot protons through an atom, for instance like Rutherford did with gold foil, he or she would likely find that
    A. most of the protons passed straight through the atom.
    B.  few of the protons passed straight through the atom.
    C.  most of the protons deflected or bounced back from the atom.
    D.  most of the protons would be absorbed by the atom.
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The first, inner-most energy shell of an atom
    A. can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
    B.  can have a maximum of 2 electrons.
    C.  is called the 2p orbital.
    D.  is called the 1s orbital and can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
    E.  is called the 2p orbital and can have a maximum of 2 electrons.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 2.03
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If carbon has an atomic mass of 12 and an atomic number of 6 then it has
    A. 6 electrons.
    B.  12 electrons.
    C.  18 electrons.
    D.  as many as 6 but no more than 12.
    E.  None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Tritiated hydrogen (3H) differs from hydrogen (1H) in that
    A. 3H has 2 more protons than 1H.
    B.  3H has 2 more electrons than 1H.
    C.  3H has 2 more neutrons than 1H.
    D.  3H has the same number of neutrons as 1H.
    E.  3H has a different electron configuration than 1H.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Isotopes are different forms of the same element that
    A. differ in their number of neutrons.
    B.  have the same numbers of protons.
    C.  are often used in medicine to track biological processes.
    D.  can be found in nature.
    E.  All the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following represents an abundant element found in living organisms?
    A. calcium.
    B.  iron.
    C.  iodine.
    D.  hydrogen.
    E.  sodium.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of ________ bonds with other elements.
    A. 1
    B.  2
    C.  3
    D.  4
    E.  5

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Molecules
    A. are derived from the chemical bonding of two or more atoms.
    B.  differ in their physical properties from the atoms from which they were derived.
    C.  are important to biological processes.
    D.  can form from the covalent bonding of two or more atoms.
    E.  All the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a molecule?
    A. H2
    B.  H2O
    C.  CH4
    D.  O2
    E.  H

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following represents an ion?
    A. Ca2+
    B.  He
    C.  H2
    D.  CO2
    E.  KCl

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in their outer most electron shells. How many bonds can form between a carbon atom and hydrogen atoms?
    A. 0
    B.  1
    C.  2
    D.  3
    E.  4

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. This is formed when an atom loses an electron to another atom.
    A. polar covalent bond
    B.  cations and anions that can form ionic bonds
    C.  covalent bond
    D.  hydrogen bond
    E.  nonpolar covalent bond

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following chemical bonds is the strongest?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  Van der Waal forces
    C.  hydrophobic interactions
    D.  ionic
    E.  covalent

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. What type of bonding is likely to occur between two water molecules or strands of DNA?
    A. covalent
    B.  ionic
    C.  hydrogen
    D.  both hydrogen and covalent
    E.  both hydrogen and ionic

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Carbon and hydrogen have similar electronegativities and combine together to form hydrocarbon molecules. What type of bonds form between these atoms?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. What type of bonds form from the unequal sharing of electrons?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. In water, MgCl2 dissociates into Mg2+ and Cl. Based on this information what type of bond is involved in the formation of MgCl2?
    A. hydrogen
    B.  ionic
    C.  polar covalent
    D.  nonpolar covalent
    E.  electrostatic

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of a chemical reaction?
    A. It requires no energy.
    B.  It rarely occurs with a catalyst present.
    C.  It changes a substance from one form to another.
    D.  It is limited to only a few types of organisms.
    E.  They are usually irreversible.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. When one oxygen atom shares two pairs of electrons with another oxygen atom, O2 is formed via a(n)
    A. single covalent bond.
    B.  double covalent bond.
    C.  triple covalent bond.
    D.  ionic bond.
    E.  hydrogen bond.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which of the following is LEAST hydrophilic?
    A. Na+
    B.  HCO3
    C.  oil
    D.  amphipathic molecules
    E.  CO2Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Amphipathic molecules
    A. possess only hydrophilic properties.
    B.  possess only hydrophobic properties.
    C.  possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
    D.  possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties.
    E.  Tend not to interact with other molecules.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. For water to vaporize
    A. energy must be supplied.
    B.  energy must be released.
    C.  hydrogen bonds are broken.
    D.  both energy must be supplied and hydrogen bonds broken.
    E.  both energy must be released and hydrogen bonds broken.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The molarity of a solution is
    A. a measure of solute concentration.
    B.  the weight of a solid substance.
    C.  often expressed as grams per unit volume.
    D.  reflects a measure of the amount of oil dissolved in a water.
    E.  a scientific term for determining the solubility of a substance in water.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Based on the colligative properties of water, what would happen if one were to add a solute to water?
    A. The freezing point of water would decrease.
    B.  The freezing point of water would increase.
    C.  The boiling point of water would increase.
    D.  Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase.
    E.  Nothing would change with respect to the freezing point or boiling point of water.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of water?
    A. It is polar.
    B.  It has a high heat of vaporization.
    C.  It has cohesive properties.
    D.  Its evaporation helps regulate body temperature.
    E.  It is a relatively poor solvent.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If orange juice has a pH of 4 then
    A. the H+ concentration is 4.
    B.  it is an acidic solution.
    C.  it is an alkaline solution.
    D.  it is an acidic solution with a H+ concentration of 4.
    E.  None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. pH buffers
    A. minimize fluctuations in the pH of solutions.
    B.  are usually weak acids and bases.
    C.  are common in biological fluids.
    D.  limit major shifts in the amount of H+ and OH in solution.
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. If one were to add a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution, which would result?
    A. H+ would be released into solution.
    B.  The pH would increase.
    C.  The pH would decrease.
    D.  Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would increase.
    E.  Both H+ would be released into solution and the pH would decrease.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Which is true about a pH buffer?
    A. It increases the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
    B.  It reduces the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
    C.  It reduces the amount of H+ in an alkaline solution.
    D.  It increases the amount of OH ions in an alkaline solution.
    E.  It reduces the amount of OH in an acidic solution.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Considering solutions with the following pH, which is alkaline?
    A. 8
    B.  7
    C.  6
    D.  5
    E.  All are alkaline.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE when comparing solutions with a pH of 6 and a pH of 8?
    A. The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    B.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times higher concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    C.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 100 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    D.  The solution with a pH of 8 has a 2 times lower concentration of hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
    E.  The hydrogen ion concentration does not appreciably differ between a solution with a pH of 8 versus that with a pH of 6.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. One gram of hydrogen, which has an atomic mass of 1, would have fewer atoms than 1 gram of carbon that has an atomic mass of 12.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Isotopes are different forms of the same element.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Sulfur 35 (35S) is an isotope of 32S. These elements differ in their number of neutrons.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.01
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Helium is an inert gas that rarely reacts with other elements because it has the maximum number of valence electrons in its outer shell.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. If lithium has an atomic number of 3 then it will have 1 valence electron.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The electronegativity of an atom is a measure of its ability to attract electrons to its outer shell from another atom.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Table salt forms from sodium and chloride via hydrogen bonding.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Molecules are generally rigid structures and rarely change shape.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.02
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The presence of salt helps prevent oceans from freezing.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. A dehydration reaction that builds larger molecules from smaller units requires the addition of a water molecule.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. The hydroxyl (OH) concentration of a solution with a pH of 8 would be 10-6 molar.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

  1. Most enzymes or bioactive molecules work effectively within a broad range of pH.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

 

  1. Buffers minimize fluctuations in the pH of a solution.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 2.03
Topic: Chemistry
 

Chapter 04

Test Bank: General Features of Cells

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Which of the following are principles of the cell theory or cell doctrine?
    A. All living things are composed of one or more cells.
    B.  Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms.
    C.  New cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.
    D.  Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms and new cells form from pre-existing cells by cell division.
    E.  All living organisms are composed of one or more cells, cells are the smallest units of life, and new cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which two cell scientists are credited with the formulation of the cell theory, also known as the cell doctrine?
    A. Watson and Crick
    B.  Schleiden and Schwann
    C.  Schleiden and Hooke
    D.  Schwann and Jenner

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This is a tool that enables researchers to study the structure and function of cells.
    A. magnifying glass
    B.  microscope
    C.  tunneling assay
    D.  digital recording
    E.  differential centrifugation

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. With which type of microscopy would one observe three-dimensional structure?
    A. fluorescence microscopy
    B.  standard light microscopy
    C.  confocal microscopy
    D.  differential-interference light microscopy
    E.  transmission electron microscopy

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following reflects a primary difference between transmission and scanning electron microscopy?
    A. Transmission electron microscopy has high resolution, but scanning electron microscopy does not.
    B.  Transmission electron microscopy shows contrast, but scanning electron microscopy does not.
    C.  Transmission electron microscopy has much higher magnification than scanning electron microscopy.
    D.  Transmission electron microscopy shows two-dimensional ultrastructure, while the scanning electron microscopy shows three-dimensional structure.
    E.  Transmission electron microscopy uses light as an illumination source, while scanning electron microscopy uses electron beams as an illumination source.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following type of microscopy would be most effective in visualizing the fine structure of viruses and cytoskeletal filaments 10–25 nanometers in diameter?
    A. standard light microscopy
    B.  phase-contrast light microscopy
    C.  transmission electron microscopy
    D.  darkfield light microscopy
    E.  differential-interference microscopy

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 4.01
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Among those listed, which type of microscopy would provide the highest resolution?
    A. phase-contrast light microscopy
    B.  scanning electron microscopy
    C.  Nomarski differential-interference light microscopy
    D.  confocal microscopy
    E.  fluorescence microscopy

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Prokaryotes
    A. lack a true nucleus.
    B.  lack true DNA.
    C.  use the cell membrane rather than ribosomes for making proteins.
    D.  contain numerous organelles.
    E.  are relatively benign cells incapable of harming organisms.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following structures distinguishes plant cells from animal cells?
    A. chloroplast
    B.  nucleus
    C.  plasma membrane
    D.  golgi apparatus
    E.  mitochondria

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true of prokaryotes?
    A. They lack a membrane-bound nucleus.
    B.  DNA is located within the cytosol.
    C.  They have a simpler structure relative to eukaryotes.
    D.  They possess membrane-bound organelles.
    E.  They are relatively small compared with eukaryotes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The cell wall is a common feature to
    A. prokaryotic cells only.
    B.  plant cells only.
    C.  animal cells only.
    D.  prokaryotic and plant cells.
    E.  prokaryotic, plant, and animal cells.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Plasma membranes are a feature of
    A. all cells.
    B.  prokaryotic cells only.
    C.  eukaryotic cells only.
    D.  plant cells only.
    E.  animal cells only.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. During a period of low water availability, which prokaryotic structure would protect a cell from dessication (drying out)?
    A. pili
    B.  plasma membrane
    C.  nucleus
    D.  cell wall

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The nucleus is to eukaryotes as the ________ is to prokaryotes.
    A. pili
    B.  glycocalyx
    C.  ribosome
    D.  nucleoid
    E.  cell wall

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following might account for the general structural and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual?
    A. The proteome differs between muscle and nerve cells.
    B.  The genome (DNA) differs between muscle and nerve cells.
    C.  The relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
    D.  The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
    E.  The genome (DNA) and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. FtsZ, MreB, and CreS proteins regulate the shape and structure of bacterial (prokaryotes) cells. These proteins are homologous to what structure in eukaryotes?
    A. extracellular matrix
    B.  DNA processing enzymes
    C.  cytoskeleton
    D.  organelles
    E.  cell wall

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the statements about the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) is INCORRECT?
    A. Translation is the process of protein synthesis.
    B.  Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol.
    C.  The synthesis of proteins is a catabolic process.
    D.  The synthesis of proteins requires ribosomes.
    E.  Proteins are synthesized from mRNA template.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which cytoskeletal structures represent a highly diverse group of tension-bearing fibers important to the maintenance of cell shape?
    A. microtubules
    B.  intermediate filaments
    C.  microfilaments
    D.  centrioles
    E.  pili

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The cytoskeleton and motor proteins are important for which of the following processes?
    A. cell motility
    B.  whipping motion of sperm flagella
    C.  movement of amoeba by lamellopodia
    D.  muscle contraction
    E.  All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT true for cilia or flagella?
    A. They are involved in cell motility.
    B.  They require ATP to work.
    C.  They are composed of microfilaments.
    D.  They require motor proteins to work.
    E.  They are composed of an internal structure called the axoneme.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This cytoskeletal structure is composed of actin and regulates cell shape, cell movement, and muscle contraction.
    A. microfilaments
    B.  intermediate filaments
    C.  microtubules
    D.  both microfilaments and intermediate filaments
    E.  both microfilaments and microtubules

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that produce which of the following molecules?
    A. steroids
    B.  lipids
    C.  glucose
    D.  starches
    E.  proteins

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. In animal cells microtubules grow from which structure?
    A. origination centers in the plasma membrane
    B.  outer membrane of the nuclear envelope
    C.  centrosomes containing centrioles
    D.  dimerization centers located throughout the cytosol
    E.  the tips of the chromosomes

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This specialized structure stores pigments, water, inorganic ions and maintains turgor pressure.
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B.  vacuole
    C.  peroxisomes
    D.  vesicles
    E.  lysosomes

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell?
    A. Golgi apparatus®lysosome®vesicles®plasma membrane
    B.  plasmid®plasma membrane®nuclear envelope®smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C.  nuclear envelope®vesicles®Golgi apparatus®plasma membrane
    D.  rough endoplasmic reticulum®lysosomes®vesicles®cell membrane
    E.  rough endoplasmic reticulum® Golgi apparatus®vesicles ®plasma membrane

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A. lysosome-protein synthesis
    B.  cytoskeleton-microfilaments
    C.  nucleus-DNA replication
    D.  cell membrane-lipid bilayer
    E.  Golgi apparatus-modification, processing, and sorting of macromolecules

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is NOT correct?
    A. chloroplast: photosynthesis
    B.  cell wall: support, protection
    C.  mitochondria: formation of ATP
    D.  ribosomes: site of protein synthesis
    E.  Golgi apparatus: breakdown of macromolecules

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. This organelle is responsible for the biosynthesis of proteins that are destined for secretion by the cell.
    A. Golgi apparatus
    B.  lysosome
    C.  vesicles
    D.  endoplasmic reticulum
    E.  mitochondria

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Due to the lack of an enzyme to break down lipids, excess accumulation of lipids in the brain leads to a human disease called Tay Sachs syndrome. Which organelle is likely to be the one that lacks the proper enzyme needed for lipid breakdown?
    A. lysosome
    B.  tonoplast
    C.  mitochondrion
    D.  Golgi apparatus
    E.  peroxisome

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. This organelle is important for the detoxification of alcohol in the liver.
    A. lysosome
    B.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    C.  mitochondrion
    D.  Golgi apparatus
    E.  peroxisome

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The gonads produce steroids.  Which organelle would likely be present in this tissue?
    A. ribosome
    B.  lysosome
    C.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D.  mitochondria
    E.  contractile vacuole

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ribosome biosynthesis and structure?
    A. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits.
    B.  Ribosomes are composed of RNA.
    C.  All components of the ribosome are produced in the cytosol.
    D.  Ribosomal proteins are produced in the cytosol.
    E.  Ribosomes are composed of proteins.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is not a constituent of the nucleus?
    A. pores
    B.  envelope or membrane
    C.  chromosomes
    D.  chromatin
    E.  protein modifying enzymes

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Lysosomes digest intracellular debris, such as organelles, through the process of ____________.
    A. endocytosis
    B.  phagocytosis
    C.  autophagy
    D.  pinocytosis
    E.  excocytosis

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. In eukaryotes, which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane?
    A. barrier for separating extracellular and intracellular environments of a cell
    B.  cell-to-cell adhesion
    C.  selective transport
    D.  ATP synthesis
    E.  cell signaling

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following statements about peroxisomes is INCORRECT?
    A. They were once viewed as semiautonomous.
    B.  They assist in detoxifying molecules.
    C.  They possess a single membrane.
    D.  They possess their own DNA.
    E.  They possess an enzyme that prevents accumulation of hydrogen peroxide and free radicals.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following organelles can grow and divide to reproduce themselves?
    A. mitochondria only
    B.  chloroplasts only
    C.  peroxisomes only
    D.  both mitochondria and chloroplasts
    E.  Mithochondria, chloroplasts, and lysosomes can reproduce themselves.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Cyanide binds and impairs one of the molecules involved in the production of ATP. Which organelle does cyanide act upon?
    A. peroxisome
    B.  lysosome
    C.  ribosome
    D.  endoplasmic reticulum
    E.  mitochondria

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Tissues that are metabolically active and utilize large amounts of energy would be rich in
    A. ribosomes.
    B.  lysosomes.
    C.  smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
    D.  mitochondria.
    E.  contractile vacuoles.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. Which of the following plant organelle is a colorless plastid that stores starch in roots?
    A. thyloplasts
    B.  chloroplasts
    C.  chromoplasts
    D.  amyloplasts
    E.  both chloroplasts and chromoplasts

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of both mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes?
    A. Composed of a double stranded chromosome.
    B.  Composed of a single circular chromosome
    C.  Has a small genome.
    D.  Chloroplast genome is larger than the mitochondrial genome.

 

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of a signal recognition particle (SRP)?
    A. Binds to a receptor in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER).
    B.  Docks the ribosome over a channel protein.
    C.  Helps a vesicle bud from the endoplasmic membrane (ER)
    D.  Recognizes the endoplasmic membrane (ER) signal sequence

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

 

True / False Questions
 

  1. The cell is the basic structural/functional unit common to all living organisms.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Resolution, contrast, and magnification are three important parameters in microscopy.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Fluorescence microscopy enables researchers to label and visualize a particular type of cellular protein or organelle.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.01
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The flagellum is used for cell motility in eukaryotes only.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. All plant cells contain centrioles.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 4.07
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The presence of a cell wall and chloroplasts are two features that distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The genome rather than proteome most specifically determines how a cell looks and functions.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The glycocalyx is a protective coating that prevents bacteria from dehydration and potential destruction by the host organism.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.02
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Myosin is a motor protein that walks along intermediate filaments.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The flagellum is composed of a 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules called the axoneme.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.03
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. The Golgi apparatus is much like a warehouse; it processes proteins and sorts them for delivery to certain parts of the cell.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Both lysosomes and peroxisomes are important for detoxifying substances in the cell.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.04
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Photosynthesis in plants occurs in chloroplasts.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The Endosymbiosis Theory best describes the origins of peroxisomes in eukaryotes.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 4.05
Topic: Cells
 

 

  1. In eukaryotes, most proteins contain short stretches of amino acid sequences called sorting signals which direct the protein to the correct cellular location.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

  1. The first step in cotranslational sorting is the peptide is directed to the endoplasmic reticulum.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

  1. Chaperones keep proteins destined for the mitochondrial matrix in their three dimensional active structure.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 4.06
Topic: Cells
 

Chapter 12

Test Bank: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Bread mold can grow in a minimal medium without supplements (wild type) while certain mutated strains (mutants) can only grow in a minimal medium that is supplemented with specific intermediates found in the following metabolic pathway for arginine synthesis:
    minimal ——> ornithine ——-> citrulline ——> arginine, where enzyme 1 converts the precursor to ornithine, enzyme 2 converts ornithine to citrulline, and enzyme 3 converts citrulline to arginine.
    A strain that can grow in a minimal medium containing arginine, but NOT in a minimal medium containing citrulline or ornithine would have a mutation in the gene that encodes for
    A.enzyme 1.
    B. enzyme 2.
    C. enzyme 3.
    D. both enzymes 1 and 3.
    E. both enzymes 2 and 3.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Bread mold can grow in a minimal medium without supplements (wild type) while certain mutated strains (mutants) can only grow in a minimal medium that is supplemented with specific intermediates found in the following metabolic pathway for arginine synthesis:
    minimal ——> ornithine ——-> citrulline ——> arginine, where enzyme 1 converts the precursor to ornithine, enzyme 2 converts ornithine to citrulline, and enzyme 3 converts citrulline to arginine.
    Which of the following would be TRUE of a strain that can grow in minimal medium containing ornithine, citrulline, or arginine, but not in minimal medium alone?
    A.The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 1.
    B. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 2.
    C. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes enzyme 3.
    D. The strain would have a mutation in the gene that encodes for enzymes 1, 2, and 3.
    E. The strain would be the wild type with no genetic mutations.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. The process that produces mRNA from DNA is called
    A.transcription.
    B. translation.
    C. replication.
    D. processing.
    E. post-translational modification.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. The processes of transcription and translation are collectively known as
    A.RNA processing.
    B. gene duplication.
    C. protein synthesis.
    D. DNA synthesis.
    E. gene expression.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. ________ is directly produced from the transcription of a eukaryotic gene.
    A.rRNA
    B. pre-mRNA
    C. mRNA
    D. DNA
    E. Protein

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. ________ is to transcription as ________ are to translation?
    A.RNA splicesome; ribosomes
    B. RNA polymerase; ribosomes
    C. RNA polymerase; RNA splicesomes
    D. DNA polymerase; RNA polymerase
    E. DNA polymerase; ribosomes

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. A(n) ______ is an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into RNA and ultimately results in the formation of a functional product.
    A.chromosome
    B. trait
    C. allele
    D. gene
    E. expression

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following are products of nonstructural genes, and are therefore never translated?
    A.transfer RNA
    B. ribosomal RNA
    C. messenger RNA
    D. transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA
    E. ribosomal RNA and messenger RNA

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Transcription begins near a site in the DNA called the ________, while the terminator specifies the end of transcription.
    A. promoter
    B.  enhancer
    C.  response element
    D.  transcription unit
    E.  regulatory sequence

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following regions of a structural gene contains the information that specifies an amino acid sequence?
    A.promoter region
    B. transcribed region
    C. terminator
    D. regulatory sequence
    E. enhancer region

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following statements about RNA polymerase in bacteria is INCORRECT?
    A.It binds the promoter region of a gene.
    B. It is bound to a sigma factor during initiation of transcription.
    C. It synthesizes RNA.
    D. It catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the 5¢ end of a growing RNA strand.
    E. It dissociates from the DNA at the terminator.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. If a DNA template strand has a sequence of 3¢ TACAATGTAGCC 5¢, then the RNA produced from it will be which sequence?
    A. 3¢TACAATGTAGCC5¢
    B.  5¢ATGTTACATCGG3¢
    C.  5¢AUGUUACAUCGG3′
    D.  3¢AUGUUACAUCGG5¢
    E.  3¢ATGTTACATCGG5¢

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following basic features of transcription is NOT shared by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
    A. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes have a promoter site.
    B.  RNA polymerase transcribes genes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    C.  Gene transcription involves initiation, elongation, and termination in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    D.  The complexity of protein components involved in transcription is similar for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
    E.  The initiation of transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes involves the interactions of more than one protein.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following proteins is involved in synthesizing messenger RNA in eukaryotes?
    A. RNA polymerase I
    B.  RNA polymerase II
    C.  RNA polymerase III
    D.  sigma factor
    E.  both RNA polymerase I and III

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which protein influences the ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe genes?
    A. DNA polymerases
    B.  DNA helicases
    C.  transcription factors
    D.  snRNPs
    E.  tRNA

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Intervening sequences that are transcribed, but not translated into protein are called
    A. exons.
    B.  introns.
    C.  splicesomes.
    D.  transposons.
    E.  transcription factors.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following would occur if a cell’s splicesomes were mutated so they no longer functioned normally?
    A.Introns would remain in the mature mRNA.
    B. Exons would be missing in the mature mRNA.
    C. Transcription would cease.
    D. A functional protein would still be produced.
    E. RNA processing would remain intact.

 

Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about RNA processing in eukaryotes is INCORRECT?
    A. Introns are simply excised out of pre-mRNA to produce the mature mRNA.
    B.  A complex composed entirely of proteins is used to remove introns from the pre-mRNA.
    C.  A poly A tail is added on to the 3¢ end of the mRNA.
    D.  A 7-methylguanosine cap is added on to the 5¢ end of the mRNA.
    E.  Processing occurs in the nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. ________ enables a single gene to encode two or more polypeptides that are different in their amino acid sequence.
    A. Reverse transcription
    B.  Self-splicing
    C.  Capping
    D.  Alternative splicing
    E.  Regulatory splicing

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following molecule(s) exhibits self-splicing?
    A.rRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. mRNA
    D. rRNA and tRNA
    E. rRNA and mRNA

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the 5¢ cap and mRNA processing is TRUE?
    A. The addition of a 5¢ cap to mRNA occurs while the pre-mRNA is being made.
    B.  The 5¢ cap helps stabilize the mature mRNA.
    C.  The 5¢ cap prevents the degradation of mature mRNA.
    D.  The 5¢ cap is added to the pre-mRNA by splicesomes.
    E.  The 5¢ cap is a group of adenosine molecules.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. What is the function of the poly A tail?
    A. The poly A tail is required for the proper exit of mRNA from the nucleus.
    B.  The poly A tail allows mRNA to bind to the ribosome.
    C.  The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes.
    D.  The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in prokaryotes.
    E.  The poly A tail serves as a termination sequence for RNA polymerase III.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.03
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. How many nucleotides are contained in a single codon?
    A. 1
    B.  3
    C.  4
    D.  6
    E.  9

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid, the genetic code is said to be
    A.repetitive.
    B. redundant.
    C. reverse.
    D. degenerate.
    E. degrading.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following statements about the mRNA start codon is INCORRECT?
    A.The start codon is only a few nucleotides from the ribosomal binding site.
    B. The start codon is usually GGA.
    C. The start codon is usually AUG.
    D. The start codon specifies the amino acid, methionine.
    E. The start codon defines the reading frame.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of the translation machinery?
    A.mRNA
    B. tRNA
    C. translation factors
    D. ribosomes
    E. protein polymerase

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following serves as the “translator” or intermediary between an mRNA codon and an amino acid?
    A.rRNA
    B. snRNA
    C. tRNA
    D. siRNA
    E. snRNPs

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. On which of the following processes would a defective ribosome have the most detrimental effect?
    A.translation
    B. replication
    C. transcription
    D. replication and transcription
    E. replication and translation

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. An mRNA sequence is 5¢AUG-GGC-ACU-CAU-ACU-UAA3¢, where AUG is the start codon and UAA is the stop codon. How many distinct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are required to translate the mRNA sequence?
    A.2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    E. 6

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 12.03
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which factors are needed to recognize the stop codon and disassemble the translation machinery?
    A.elongation factors
    B. release factors
    C. transcription factors
    D. inititaion factors
    E. mRNA factors

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. What enzyme catalyzes the attachment of amino acids to tRNA molecules?
    A.helicase
    B. topoisomerase
    C. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
    D. ribosome
    E. translation factor

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. If an mRNA sequence is 5¢AUG-GGC-ACU-CAU3¢, what would the anticodon sequence be?
    A.3¢AUG-GGC-ACU-CAU5¢
    B. 3¢UAC-CCG-UGA-GUA5¢
    C. 5¢AUG-GGC-ACU-CAU3¢
    D. 5¢UAC-CCG-UGA-GUA3¢
    E. 3¢TAC-CCG-TGA-GTA3¢

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about tRNA is FALSE?
    A.tRNAs of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes share common features.
    B. The two-dimensional structure of tRNAs exhibits a cloverleaf pattern.
    C. tRNAs are produced in the nucleus.
    D. tRNAs can be spliced by splicesomes.
    E. tRNAs possess an anticodon complementary to the codon.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. The most common eukaryotic ribosome carries out its function in the
    A.Golgi apparatus.
    B. nucleus.
    C. cytosol.
    D. mitochondria.
    E. chloroplast.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which of the following is released when an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase charges a tRNA?
    A.mRNA
    B. ATP
    C. AMP
    D. pyrophosphate
    E. AMP and pryophosphate

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. How many distinct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases does each cell make?
    A. ~1
    B.  ~20
    C.  ~60
    D.  ~120
    E.  ~180

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. What molecule provides the energy for translation?
    A. ADP
    B.  ATP
    C.  GMP
    D.  GDP
    E.  GTP

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. A ________ bond holds the amino acids of a growing polypeptide chain together during the elongation stage of translation.
    A. hydrogen
    B.  peptide
    C.  glycosidic
    D.  noncovalent
    E.  lactose

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. The term N-terminus refers to the presence of a(n) ________ at the 5¢ end of a polypeptide.
    A. oxygen atom
    B.  carboxyl group
    C.  amino group
    D.  carbonyl group
    E.  sulfate group

 

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.05
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Which sequence of events is most CORRECT for the initiation and elongation steps of translation?
    (1) initiator tRNA binds start codon on mRNA
    (2) small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
    (3) large ribosomal subunit binds
    (4) tRNA entry and peptidyl transfer reaction
    (5) translocation of ribosome and release of tRNA
    A.  1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    B.  1, 2, 3, 5, 4
    C.  1, 3, 2, 4, 5
    D.  2, 3, 1, 5, 4
    E.  2, 1, 3, 4, 5

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.06
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. The following codons and the amino acids they encode is as follows:
    AUG = Start or Met; UUU, UUC = Phe; UUA, UUG = Leu; UCU, UCC = Ser; CCU, CCC = Pro; ACU, ACC = Thr; UGA = Stop.
    The 5¢ACU-UUC-ACU-AUG-UUU-UUA-UCC-UCC-ACU-CCU-UGA3¢ mRNA transcript results in which of the following polypeptide sequences?
    A.Thr-Phe-Thr
    B. Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro
    C. Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro
    D. Thr-Phe-Thr-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro
    E. Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 12.05
Section: 12.06
Topic: Genetics
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. A single gene always encodes for an enzyme.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes always requires more than one general transcription factor to initiate transcription.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. DNA is used as a template to make mRNA, which contains the information to make a polypeptide.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. As part of the transcriptional unit, regulatory sequences are the sites where RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind to regulate transcription.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.02
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. All enzymes are proteins.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.01
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Because of the abundance of ribosomes, translation is NOT an energy costly process for the cell.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. The cells of every organism make only a few different tRNA molecules encoded by the same gene.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

 

  1. In eukaryotes, 40S and 60S combine to form a 100S ribosome.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. Translation is a relatively slow process.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. tRNA contains the genetic code for producing a polypeptide.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

  1. The termination of translation occurs when a release factor recognizes the stop codon.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 12.04
Topic: Genetics
 

Chapter 22

Test Bank: The Origin and History of Life

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. The early Earth reducing atmosphere is thought to have lacked which of the following gases?
    A. N2
    B.  O2
    C.  CO2
    D.  H2O
    E.  SO4

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 450) Study of the origin of life has resulted in the breakdown of cellular development into overlapping stages, beginning with the synthesis of precursor molecules for the synthesis of nucleotides and amino acids and ending in polymers enclosed in membranes acquiring cellular properties. Which of these stages were a focus of study for Miller and Urey in their FIRST experiment?
    A.  Stage 1:  Nucleotides and amino acids were produced prior to the existence of cells.
    B.  Stage 2:  Nucleotides became polymerized to form RNA and/or DNA, and amino acids became polymerized to form proteins.
    C.  Stage 3:  Polymers became enclosed in membranes.
    D.  Stage 4:  Polymers enclosed in membranes acquired cellular properties.
    E.  Stage 5:  Ribosomes were developed inside the membrane.

 

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 450) Miller and Urey’s experiment was ground breaking because
    A.  This was the first example of an experiment being used that inserted oxygen into the prebiotic soup.
    B.  This was the first attempt to apply scientific experimentation to the quest of understanding the origin of life.
    C.  They hypothesized what could have been the first molecules formed, but they could not demonstrate this in a scientific experiment.
    D.  This was the last experiment that used boiling water as a trigger mechanism for the production of macromolecules.
    E.  This was the first experiment based on the theory that organic carbon actually arrived from outer space.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 451) Which of the following hypotheses relies on the chemical reaction between hydrogen sulfide (HS2) and iron (Fe) for the built up of a H2 concentration gradient to provide the necessary energy for the reduction of N2 to NH3?
    A.  Reducing Atmosphere Hypothesis.
    B.  Extraterrestrial Hypothesis.
    C.  Deep-Sea Vent Hypothesis.
    D.  Both Reducing Atmosphere and Extraterrestrial Hypotheses.
    E.  All three hypotheses use this exact reaction to create a chemical gradient to form amino acids.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 451) The major opposition to the Extraterrestrial Hypothesis is …
    A.  not enough organic carbon molecules could have been transported to the Earth’s surface by comets and asteroids.
    B.  most organic carbon molecules, including nucleic acids and amino acids, would have been destroyed by the intense heating that occurs when large bodies fall through the Earth’s atmosphere.
    C.  not enough comets and asteroids hit the Earth to deliver organic carbon molecules to the surface.
    D.  most of the organic carbon molecules would have fallen into the seas, helping life form in the water but not on the land.
    E.  without oxygen in the atmosphere the organic carbons that did fall would have been rapidly reduced to inorganic carbon compounds.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 451)
    The Miller and Urey apparatus produced hydrogen cyanide (HCN), formaldehyde (CH2O), and glycine (an amino acid) in their first experiment, why was it important that they use water vapor, methane, carbon monoxide, ammonia and hydrogen as their reactants and an electrical spark as their energy source?

    A.  They knew these reactants were available in their lab and in today’s atmosphere.
    B.  These reactants were found in today’s atmosphere therefore they should be used to try to replicate the early Earth atmosphere.
    C.  Each of the reactants were readily changed into proteins and DNA.
    D.  These reactants were useful because their products were able to be predicted before the experiment began, it is always good to know the outcome of an experiment to achieve success with the experiment.
    E.  These reactants were hypothesized to have made up the early Earth atmosphere, the electricity was used to emulate lightening strikes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The deep-sea vent hypothesis for the formation of prebiotic organic molecules is based on
    A. temperature gradients of the hot water coming from the vents and cold ocean water.
    B.  hot gaseous substances released from the vents.
    C.  a buildup of radioactive substances around the vents.
    D.  temperature gradients of the hot water coming from the vents and cold ocean water and hot gaseous substances released from the vents are correct answers.
    E.  temperature gradients, proton gradients, and radioactive substances could all lead to the formation of prebiotic organic molecules.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 452) John Bernal suggested that prebiotic synthesis of polymers took place on clay because
    A.  Clay minerals are known to bind organic molecules.
    B.  Clay is negatively charged and attracts cations.
    C.  Some minerals in clay attract organic monomers and catalyze chemical reactions.
    D.  Clay minerals can attract and bind organic molecules, catalyze chemical reactions and attract cations.
    E.  Clay is positively charged and can bind organic molecules for polymerization.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 452) Suppose you wanted to investigate ideas on how polymerization of prebiotic organic molecules may have occurred on the early Earth, which of the following scenarios might best be utilized for this?
    A.  Mix some RNA nucleotides in water and heat them to boiling temperatures.
    B.  Mix some amino acids (protein building blocks) in water and add a strong acid or a strong base.
    C.  Mix some RNA nucleotides in water and repeatedly wet and dry them on clay.
    D.  Mix some amino acids (protein building blocks) in water and add a bacterium harmless to humans.
    E.  Mix some amino acids in salt water and cool down to 0C.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 452) Scientist believe that the formation of organic polymers, like RNA and DNA, had to move from the watery environment of the seas to solid surfaces or evaporating tidal pools because
    A.  dehydration is necessary for the formation of large organic polymers, too much water competes with dehydration.
    B.  hydrolysis is necessary for the formation of large organic polymers, dehydration competes with polymerization.
    C.  tidal pools would provide a concentrated area where more small organic molecules could aggregate.
    D.  Kusky discovered 1.43 billion year old fossils in shallow water and tidal pools.
    E.  sugars dissolve in water, ribose is a sugar and is necessary for the polymerization of DNA and RNA therefore being out of the water would speed up the polymerization reactions.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 453) A protobiont
    A.  has a boundary, or membrane.
    B.  contains polymers inside that store information.
    C.  has a boundary and contains polymers inside that store information.
    D.  polymers that have enzymatic functions.
    E.  has a boundary, contains polymers that store information and other polymers that act as enzymes, and it can replicate itself.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 453) Protobionts are thought to be the first nonliving structures that evolved into living cells. A critical characteristic of a protobiont that is found in both modern day prokaryotes and eukaryotes is
    A.  internal compartments that subdivide metabolic functions.
    B.  a boundary membrane that separates external from internal environments.
    C.  the ability to exclude all organic substances.
    D.  the ability to fuse with any other protobiont for reproduction.
    E.  the ability to recognize other protobionts for developmental purposes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. Alexander Oparin hypothesized that living cells evolved from coacervates; what was the “boundary” material of the coacervates Oparin made, and how does this boundry differ from present day liposome membranes?
    A. Oparin used a phospholipid bilayer to build the coacervates, it is the same as the bilayer found in present day lysosomes.
    B.  Oparin’s coacervates were surrounded by a tight skin of water molecules, the same as present day lysosomes.
    C.  Oparin’s coacervates were surrounded by carbohydrates and lipids, unlike present day lysosomes which have a carbohydrate membrane only.
    D.  Oparin’s coacervates were surrounded by a tight skin of water molecules; present day lysosomes have a phospholipid bilayer for their membrane.
    E.  Starch was the main component in Oparin’s coacervate boundry; lysosomes also use mainly carbohydrates for their membrane.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 453) When lipids, phosphates, carbohydrates and RNA were placed on clay,  a lysosome was formed. Why was the clay an important surface for lysosome formation and how is RNA associated with the lysosome?
    A.  Clay acts as a catalyst for the formation of a lysosome that can grow and divide; the RNA would be enclosed inside of the lipid bilayer.
    B.  Clay would cause anions to stick together, while the cations would be pulled from the carbohydrates.  This chemical reaction would cause the formation of a carbohydrate membrane.  RNA would be part of this membrane.
    C.  The clay surface had nothing to do with the formation of a phospholipid bilayer; water would have worked just as well.  RNA would be a transmembrane catalyst.
    D.  The positively charged clay surface would react with the negatively charged phospholipids to create a clay ball that would enclose the RNA molecule.
    E.  RNA would react chemically with the negatively charged clay surface.  This would create covalent bonds; an impenetrable membrane would form.  The phospholipids would be caught inside of the membrane.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. Which macromolecule did the majority of scientists favor as the “first” to be found in protobionts?
    A. DNA.
    B.  RNA.
    C.  Amino acids.
    D.  Proteins.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. You have just invented a time machine and you want to investigate the past (the dream of every paleontologist!). When is the earliest time in Earth history that you could go back and not have to have an oxygen tank so that you could breathe normally?
    A. Cambrian Period
    B.  Phanerozoic Eon
    C.  Archaean Eon
    D.  Quaternary Period
    E.  Devonian Period

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 453) You have chosen RNA as the most likely molecule to be first enclosed by a membrane. You understand that it has the ability to store information and can self-replicate, but what else is necessary for simple metabolic processes to occur in a timely manner?
    A.  A biological catalyst.
    B.  Energy from ADP.
    C.  A pump, to drive a concentration gradient.
    D.  A mechanism to control self-replication.
    E.  Both a mechanism to control self-replication and energy from ADP.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. Chemical selection occurs….
    A. when a catalyst speeds up a process that would normally occur at a slower rate.
    B.  when covalent bonds are formed between two previously unlinked molecules.
    C.  when a chemical within a mixture has special properties or advantages that cause it to increase in number compared to other chemicals in the mixture.
    D.  during the ribozymic phase of coacervate formation.
    E.  after the formation of a membrane and when the DNA is replicated and transcribed.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. Bartel and Szostak hypothesized that among a large pool of RNA molecules, some of them may contain the enzymatic ability to catalyze a covalent bond between nucleotides; these can be selected for in the laboratory. The chart above shows the results from their experiment. The x-axis shows the original pool and 10 pools that were derived from their tagging of RNA with specific enzymatic functions; the y-axis shows the rate of phosphoester (covalent) bond formation. Was their hypothesis supported by this experiment and why?

    A.  Yes, because pools 1 to 10 show a continual increase in covalent bond formation.
    B.  Yes, there is a definite increase from the original pool to the second pool, but not from pool 8-10.
    C.  No, because there is only a slight increase from the original pool to the first experimental pool.
    D.  No, because this figure does not give sufficient data to make that assumption.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. Both DNA and RNA can store information, yet DNA is the major information storage molecule in most cells. What are the advantages of using DNA for information storage instead of RNA?
    A. DNA strands are less likely to spontaneously break because of the hydrogen bonds between bases.
    B.  If DNA stored information for the synthesis of RNA, RNA could be freed up for enzymatic functions.
    C.  Cells with both DNA and RNA would have an advantage over cells with just RNA, because DNA does not spontaneously break and RNA could carry out enzymatic functions.
    D.  Reverse transcriptase could occur and DNA could make RNA.
    E.  DNA could be used to make proteins directly.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 458)

    The age of a fossil can be estimated by analyzing the decay of radioisotopes within the accompanying rock. If you suspected a fossil was 100 million years old, which type of radioisotopes would you use to analyze the accompanying rock?
    A.  Potassium-40/Argon-40 (half-life = 1.3 billion years;  useful dating range =100,000-4.5 billion years)
    B.  Rubidium-87/Strontium-87 (half-life = 47 billion years; useful dating range = 10 million-4.5 billion years)
    C.  Uranium-235/Lead-207 (half-life = 710 million years; useful dating range = 10 million-4.5 billion years)
    D.  Carbon-14/Nitrogen-14  (half-life = 5,730 years; useful dating range = 100-50,000 years)
    E.  Uranium-238/Lead-238  (half-life 4.5 billion years; useful dating range = 10 million-4.5 billion years)

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. A scientist found an unweathered igneous rock that contained .025 g of potassium-40 and .075 g of argon-40. The half-life of potassium-40 is 1.3 billion years. The rock would be estimated to be
    A. 2.6 billion years old.
    B.  0.050 billion years old.
    C.  1.3 billion years old.
    D.  0.001875 billion years old.
    E.  1.69 billion years old.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 22.02
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. Which would be most likely to be fossilized?
    A. a small worm with all soft body parts.
    B.  a thick-shelled oyster that lives under water.
    C.  a small herb growing at the top of a mountain.
    D.  an elephant trapped in a tar pit.
    E.  a thick-shelled oyster that lives under water and an elephant trapped in a tar pit.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 22.02
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The time it requires for exactly one-half of a given amount of a radioactive isotope of an element to decay is called that isotope’s
    A. decay time.
    B.  decay product.
    C.  half-life.
    D.  half-decay.
    E.  useful dating range.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.02
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The first known fossils of living cells were preserved in rocks that are 3.5 billion years old, but scientists postulated that the first cells arose many millions of years prior to this time. These first cells were most likely …
    A. aerobic, photosynthetic, eukaryotic.
    B.  aerobic, photosynthetic, prokaryotic.
    C.  anaerobic, heterotrophic, prokaryotic.
    D.  anaerobic, heterotrophic, eukaryotic.
    E.  anaerobic, chemotrophic, eukaryotic.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.01
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 463) Genetic material, DNA and RNA, are found in three distinct organelles in eukaryotic cells, what are these organelles and which type of relationship may have lead to their formation?
    A.  Chloroplast, mitochondria, nucleus, endosymbiotic.
    B.  Chloroplast, lysosomes, nucleus, endosymbiotic.
    C.  Nucleus, Golgi body, endoplasmic reticulum, symbiotic.
    D.  Mitochondria, chloroplast, nucleus, parasitic.
    E.  Lysosomes, mitochondria, chloroplast, parasitic.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 463) To explain the origin of the nuclear genome, which of the following hypotheses are most widely accepted?
    A.  Endosymbiotic relationship.
    B.  Symbiotic relationship.
    C.  Mitochondrial relationship.
    D.  Both the endosymbiotic and symbiotic relationships.
    E.  Endosymbiotic, symbiotic and mitochondrial relationships.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The major difference between the endosymbiotic relationship theory and the symbiotic relationship theory is
    A. In the endosymbiotic relationship theory the archaeon engulfs the smaller bacterium while in the symbiotic relationship theory the Archaeon and Baterium unite, joining their plasma membranes.
    B.  In the endosymbiotic relationship theory the archaeon and bacterium unite, joining their plasma membranes while in the symbiotic relationship theory the archaeon engulfs the smaller bacterium.
    C.  In the endosymbiotic relationship theory the origin of both mitochondria and chloroplast are explained but the origin of the nucleus is not explained, while the symbiotic relationship theory explains the origin of mitochondria, chloroplast and the nucleus.
    D.  In the symbiotic relationship theory the origin of both mitochondria and chloroplast are explained but the origin of the nucleus is not explained, while the endosymbiotic relationship theory explains the origin of mitochondria, chloroplast and the nucleus.
    E.  Both theories have an explanation for the mitochondria and chloroplast, but the symbiotic theory fails to explain the origin of the nucleus.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 459) The chemical composition of the gases surrounding the Earth has changed substantially over the past 4 billion years. One notable change was due to the emergence of organisms that photosynthesized. Their photosynthesis increased the amount of which of the following gases in the atmosphere?
    A.  Carbon dioxide (CO2).
    B.  Nitrogen (N2).
    C.  Hydrogen sulfide (H2SO4).
    D.  Oxygen (O2).
    E.  Water vapor (H2O).

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 461) The process by which the major land masses have shifted their positions, changed shapes and separated from each other, is known as
    A.  Cotranslational sorting.
    B.  Continental drift.
    C.  Depolarization of land masses.
    D.  Differential land movement.
    E.  Cyclic land drift.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 461) Which of the following are thought to have occurred because of the increase of oxygen (O2) in the atmosphere during and after the Silurian Period?
    A.  Conquest of land by arthropods.
    B.  Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates.
    C.  Increases in animal body sizes and conquest of land by plants.
    D.  Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates, and plants.
    E.  Conquest of land by arthropods and vertebrates and an increase in animal body sizes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 462) Because hardly any oxygen (O2) was in the early Earth’s atmosphere, the single-celled microorganisms probably used which of the following to produce energy to drive metabolic processes?
    A.  Aerobic cellular respiration.
    B.  Anaerobic cellular respiration.
    C.  Sulfuric acid respiration.
    D.  Both aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration.
    E.  Sulfuric acid, aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. (p. 465)

    Which of the following best describes three DIFFERENCES that occur among these four types of algae?
    A.  They are all composed of cells, have flagella and photosynthesize.
    B.  Chlamydomonas reinhardtil is a single celled algae, while the other three are multicellular with identical cells.
    C.  Chlamydomonas reinhardtil is a single celled algae, Gonium pectorale is composed of identical cells, and Pleodorina californica and Volvox are composed of different cell types (somatic and reproductive).
    D.  Chlamydomonas reinhardtil is a multicellular algae, Gonium pectorale is a single celled algae but is shown in a group, and Pleodorina californica and Volvox are multicellular algae.
    E.  Chlamydomonas reinhardtil is a single celled algae, Gonium pectorale is multicellular, Pleodorina californica is composed of different cell types (somatic and reproductive) and Volvox is not an algae because it cannot photosynthesize.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The amniotic egg evolved as an adaptation
    A. against predation.
    B.  to insure survival in the uterus.
    C.  to prevent desiccation.
    D.  to permit the embryo to develop undisturbed up to the time of hatching.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 468) In 1909, Charles Walcott discovered fossils in the Burgess Shale of the Canadian Rockies. The area was formed by an underwater mudslide that provided an oxygen free environment, so decomposition was minimal. Why were these fossils so unique?
    A.  They were from the Cambrian period.
    B.  There were both vertebrate and invertebrate (soft bodied) animals fossilized.
    C.  Only invertebrate (soft bodied) animals were found and no vertebrate animals or plants.
    D.  Before this discovery, it was thought that mudslides could not occur underwater.
    E.  The first bird fossil, Archaeopteryx, was discovered in this area.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. (p. 468) At the end of the Permian period a large mass extinction occurred; 90-95% of the marine and terrestrial species were eliminated. Which of the following are thought to be the possible cause(s) of this mass extinction?
    A.  Glaciation.
    B.  Meteorites colliding with the Earth.
    C.  Volcanic eruptions.
    D.  Competition between marine and terrestrial animals.
    E.  Glaciation or volcanic eruptions.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. Changes that have occurred in living organisms over the past four billion years are due primarily to
    A. extinction of species.
    B.  continental drift.
    C.  changes in geological periods.
    D.  interaction of genetic changes and environmental changes.
    E.  the change in the orbit of the moon, causing mass extinction due to volcanic activity.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. Stromatolites are
    A. layered rocklike structures formed by some cyanobacteria (blue-green algae).
    B.  the earliest known arthropods.
    C.  found only in rocks of Carboniferous age.
    D.  the earliest known arthropods and found only in rocks of Carboniferous age are correct.
    E.  fossilized coral reefs.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. In eukaryotes, genes involved in transcription and translation are derived from
    A. ancient bacteria.
    B.  primitive RNA.
    C.  archeal ancestors.
    D.  clay templates.
    E.  primitive RNA and clay interactions.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The origin of the mitochondrion and chloroplast by endosymbiosis, hypothesizes that these organelles originated by
    A. the fusion of two archean cells to form the eukaryote with the eukaryotic mitochondrion and chloroplast inside.
    B.  the absorption of RNA from prokaryotic cells.
    C.  prokaryotic cells being engulfed and becoming internal symbionts within an early eukaryotic cell.
    D.  only the absorption of DNA from dead prokaryotic cells used as food.
    E.  prokaryotic cells being engulfed and becoming external symbionts within an early bacteria cell.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The Carboniferous Period is known for
    A. Rich coal deposits found in rocks of this age.
    B.  The first examples of gymnosperms on land.
    C.  The first angiosperms developed.
    D.  The carboniferous explosion of marine invertebrates; sea urchins, arthropods, and crustaceans.
    E.  The appearance of reptiles and large mammals.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. Toward the end of the Proterozoic eon, multicellular animals emerged. The first animals were
    A. Fish.
    B.  Reptiles.
    C.  Invertebrates.
    D.  Chordates.
    E.  Tetrapods.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. The event called the Cambrian Explosion resulted in an abrupt increase in
    A. geological activity.
    B.  diversity of major animal groups.
    C.  algal diversity.
    D.  the number of days in the year.
    E.  the amount of fish, of a single species, in the seas.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. The first bilateral animal emerged during the Ordovician Period. Fossils of this organism were discovered in South Africa.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The eukaryotic genome is comprised entirely of genes derived from Archean ancestors.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Which of the following would likely fossilize under normal environmental conditions?
    A. An elephant that died near a waterhole that dried up.
    B.  A bird that died and fell into the forest litter.
    C.  A slug that died in leaf litter.
    D.  A soft shelled crab that dies in an estuary.
    E.  Both a bird and slug that die and fall in leaf litter.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 22.02
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The first vertebrates appear in the fossil record during the
    A. Cambrian Period.
    B.  Proterozoic Era.
    C.  Carboniferous Period.
    D.  Triassic Period.
    E.  Devonian Period.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

True / False Questions

  1. Although not well understood, the Cambrian Explosion most likely occurred due to changes in sea level and continental drift.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Flowering plants originated during the
    A. Permian Period.
    B.  Tertiary Period.
    C.  Devonian Period.
    D.  Cretaceous Period.
    E.  Jurassic Period.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

  1. The “Age of Dinosaurs” occurred during which era?
    A. Phanerozoic.
    B.  Mesozoic.
    C.  Cenozoic.
    D.  Proterozoic.
    E.  Precambrian.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section: 22.03
Topic: Evolution
 

Chapter 32

Test Bank: An Introduction to Animal Diversity

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. Animal classification has undergone a reassessment in recent years because of:
    A.Carl Linnaeus’ new data
    B. comparisons of DNA and rRNA among different taxa
    C. new, genetically engineered species
    D. developing resistance to antibiotics
    E. all of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The number of animal species now known is about:
    A.10 million
    B. 100 million
    C. 1 million
    D. 15 million
    E. 5 million

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following statements best defines the feature(s) linking all animals, but separating them from all other organisms?
    A.They are terrestrial or secondarily aquatic.
    B. They have digestive enzymes.
    C. They are heterotrophic.
    D. The nature of their small subunit rRNA gene sequences is different.
    E. All of the choices provided are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most animals?
    A.They have Hox genes.
    B. They are heterotrophic.
    C. They have an extracellular matrix of proteins such as collagen.
    D. They have cell walls.
    E. They have a nervous system.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The putative ancestor of animals was:
    A.choanoflagellates
    B. chytrids
    C. gnetophytes
    D. stramenopiles
    E. euglenozoa

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following was NOT a major morphological criterion on which traditional classification of animals was based?
    A.presence or absence of a true body cavity
    B. type of symmetry
    C. pattern of embryonic development
    D. presence or absence of certain types of tissue
    E. basic pattern of cell division

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The comparison between Parazoa and Eumetazoa is best described by which of the following statements?
    A.Parazoa have only one kind of cell whereas Eumetazoa have many kinds.
    B. The various kinds of cells of Parazoa do not form permanent associations into tissues or organs whereas Eumetazoa possess true, stable tissues.
    C. Parazoans are only haploid, whereas eumetazoans are diploid with haploid sex cells.
    D. Parazoans invert during their development whereas eumetazoans do not.
    E. All of the choices provided are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Bilateria are characterized by:
    A.a plane of symmetry that forms mirror images around a vertical plane in the midline
    B. a plane of symmetry that forms mirror images around a horizontal plane in the midline
    C. a plane of symmetry around a transverse plane across the center of the body so that the front and back halves are mirror images
    D. a plane of symmetry that forms mirror images around an oblique plane in the midline
    E. a plane of symmetry that forms mirror images around any plane through the longitudinal midline of the body

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Cephalization is:
    A.embryonic development of the head in advance of the rest of the body
    B. concentration of the sensory organs on the posterior end of the body
    C. concentration of the sensory organs on the anterior end of the body
    D. an evolutionary degeneration of the head as seen in some parasites
    E. a malformation of the head

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Germ layers are:
    A.layers infected with bacteria
    B. embryonic layers with different developmental potentials
    C. layers of cells surrounding the egg prior to fertilization
    D. colonial protists arranged in layers
    E. none of the choices provided

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The fate of the embryonic germ layers is:
    A.The endoderm forms the gut, the ectoderm forms the epidermis and parts of the nervous system, and the mesoderm forms muscles and most internal organs.
    B. The endoderm forms the gut, the ectoderm forms the reproductive tract and endocrine system, and the mesoderm forms muscles and most internal organs.
    C. The endoderm forms the inner part of all internal organs, the mesoderm forms the middle parts, and the ectoderm forms the outer coverings.
    D. The layers are sequential structures that all disappear during development, with the endoderm appearing first and then is replaced by the mesoderm, which in turn is supplanted by the ectoderm.
    E. The endoderm is an embryonic structure that disappears early, whereas the ectoderm persists as the skin and the mesoderm as the internal organs.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Triploblastic are animals that:
    A.form three separate blastulas from a single embryo
    B. produce three eggs, each of which forms a single blastula
    C. form three blastopores in each blastula
    D. have a blastula composed of three cells
    E. have three germ layers

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Coelomates are:
    A.two embryos that develop in the same coelom
    B. animals that have a true coelom
    C. animals that have two coeloms
    D. animals that have no coelom
    E. animals in which the coelom disappears at gastrulation

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. When division of the zygote reaches the eight-cell stage and the planes of cleavage of the upper four cells line up with those of the bottom four cells so that two tiers of cells result, one directly above the other, the type of cleavage is called:
    A.direct cleavage
    B. spiral cleavage
    C. indirect cleavage
    D. protostome cleavage
    E. radial cleavage

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: General
 

  1. You are given an embryo with eight cells and you carefully separate them and allow them to develop in separate containers. Each of the cells forms a complete embryo that develops normally into an adult animal. How would you categorize your animal?
    A.It has indeterminate cleavage.
    B. It has determinate cleavage.
    C. It is a protostome.
    D. It is an annelid, mollusk, or arthropod.
    E. It has spiral cleavage.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the blastopore?
    A.It is the opening from the blastocoel to the outside.
    B. It is the opening from the archenteron to the outside.
    C. It can develop into the mouth of the adult in some animals.
    D. It can develop into the anus of the adult in some animals.
    E. It occurs in both protostomes and deuterostomes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Metamerism is a characteristic feature of:
    A.Annelida
    B. Arthropoda
    C. Chordata
    D. all of the three phyla listed
    E. none of the three phyla listed

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Forelimbs form at the junction of the neck and thoracic vertebrae, the position of which is controlled by HoxC-6 genes. Several kinds of vertebrates from different Classes are legless, including legless lizards, and amphibians known as caecilians. All descended from legged forms. On the basis of recent research in genetics what would you predict about the functioning of their HoxC-6 genes?
    A.The site of expression of their HoxC-6 genes may have moved anteriorly until the level of expression has eliminated the neck region.
    B. The site of expression of their HoxC-6 genes would be the same as that of legged vertebrates but is simply turned off early in development.
    C. Their HoxC-6 gene has mutated and serves a different function than in legged vertebrates.
    D. The effect of the HoxC-6 gene is masked by another gene that is dominant to it.
    E. None of the other choices provided offer an adequate explanation and other reasons must be sought.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure 32.07
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. A reinterpretation of animal phylogeny (differing from morphologically based phylogeny) that was made possible by molecular techniques, was:
    A.designation of the Ecdysozoa and Lophotrochozoa as clades
    B. designation of the Bilateria as a monophyletic group
    C. designation of annelids and arthropods as closely related
    D. designation of rotifers and nematodes as closely related
    E. placement of echinoderms and chordates in entirely different clades

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure 32.07
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Traditional and molecular phylogenies disagree on which one of the following issues?
    A.whether or not the Eumetazoa are monophyletic
    B. whether the Bilateria and Radiata split early into separate monophyletic clades
    C. whether the split between Parazoa and Eumetazoa occurred at a very early stage in animal evolution
    D. whether Echinodermata and Chordata are both deuterostomes
    E. whether the appearance and type of coelom is important in interpreting phylogeny

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following phyla are NOT lophotrochozoans?
    A.Platyhelminthes
    B. Mollusca
    C. Annelida
    D. Rotifera
    E. Nematoda

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. A horseshoe-shaped crown of tentacles used by many invertebrates for feeding is called a:
    A.protostome
    B. fimbrium
    C. lophophore
    D. trochophore
    E. rhizophore

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. A distinctive type of larva shared by several phyla of invertebrates and considered to be important in phylogeny is the:
    A.trochophore
    B. paedomorph
    C. gastrula
    D. metamere
    E. tadpole

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. What is the primary characteristic that groups phyla within the Ecdysozoa?
    A.They all have tropchophore larvae.
    B. They all shed their exoskeletons.
    C. They all have radial cleavage.
    D. They all have lophophores.
    E. All of the choices provided are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used as a tool for:
    A.breaking down DNA for analysis
    B. amplifying the amount of DNA to provide a large sample
    C. fragmenting DNA into smaller pieces
    D. rearranging the gene sequences in isolated fragments of DNA
    E. extracting DNA from nuclei

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. If two otherwise dissimilar organisms share similar genomic DNA, it suggests which of the following conclusions?
    A.The shared genes are ancient and probably no longer function within the altered physiological states of modern organisms.
    B. The shared genes have evolved a number of times and have no phylogenetic significance.
    C. The two taxa are more closely related than formerly believed.
    D. The shared genes developed early in evolution and are likely to be applicable to a wide diversity of organisms.
    E. DNA is not a reliable basis for phylogenetic decisions.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Ecdysis is:
    A.development of the ectoderm layer in the gastrula
    B. development of the epidermis from the ectoderm
    C. disintegration of the ectoderm
    D. molting
    E. the feeding tentacles of the Ecdysozoa

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The coelom forms in two different ways. Which of the following statements best compares those ways?
    A.In schizocoelous development a solid mass of mesoderm splits to form the coelom whereas in enterocoelous development a layer of mesoderm cells forms a pocket off of the developing gut to form the coelom.
    B. In enterocoelous development a solid mass of mesoderm splits to form the coelom whereas in schizocoelous development a layer of mesoderm cells forms a pocket off of the developing gut to form the coelom.
    C. In enterocoelous development the coelom forms inside the mesoderm whereas in schizocoelous development the coelom forms on the outside of the mesoderm.
    D. In schizocoelous development the coelom forms within the mesoderm whereas in enterocoelous development, no coelom is formed at all.
    E. Schizocoelous and enterocoelous both form the coelom in identical ways, the difference merely being that the term schizocoelous is used only for deuterostomes and enterocoelous is used only for protostomes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The placement of the phylum Platyhelminthes in the phylogenetic tree differs between a morphologically based phylogeny and a molecular based phylogeny. Which of the following statements best describes the interpretation based on molecular phylogeny?
    A.Modern Platyhelminthes do not have a coelom but did originate from an ancestor that had one.
    B. The Platyhelminthes clade separated from other clades before coeloms evolved and consequently Platyhelminthes have never had a coelom.
    C. Platyhelminthes originated from ancestors with a coelom and have retained it to the present time.
    D. Platyhelminthes evolved from an ancestor without a coelom but developed one during the course of their evolution.
    E. Some Platyhelminthes have a coelom but others do not and it is difficult to conclude anything about its evolution within the clade.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The relevance of the pseudocoelom to phylogeny has been questioned. Rotifera and Nematoda both have a pseudocoelom. The molecular evidence suggests which of the following conclusions?
    A.Molecular evidence confirms that rotifers and nematodes are closely related and that both participate in the same monophyletic clade.
    B. Rotifers are more closely related to Lophotrochozoa than to nematodes.
    C. Rotifers are more closely related to echinoderms than to nematodes.
    D. Rotifers are more closely related to chordates than to nematodes.
    E. Rotifers are more closely related to nematodes than to mollusks.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following statements best compares a pseudocoelom and a coelom?
    A.A coelom is completely enclosed by mesoderm whereas a pseudocoelom has an outer covering of mesoderm and an inner one of endoderm.
    B. A pseudocoelom is completely enclosed by mesoderm whereas a coelom has an outer covering of mesoderm and an inner one of endoderm.
    C. The coelom is enclosed by ectoderm and the pseudocoelom is enclosed by endoderm.
    D. The pseudocoelom is enclosed by ectoderm and the coelom is enclosed by endoderm.
    E. The coelom is enclosed by ectoderm and the pseudocoelom is enclosed by mesoderm.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The aboral side of a radially symmetrical animal is:
    A. the side containing the mouth
    B.  the side opposite the side containing the mouth
    C.  its outside
    D.  its inside
    E.  All of the other choices provided are incorrect

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. An acoelomate is an animal that:
    A.has a coelom
    B. has a pseudocoelom
    C. has both a coelom and a pseudocoelom
    D. has neither a coelom nor a pseudocoelom
    E. has a coelom during early development but later loses it

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Metamerism is:
    A.the division of the body into segments
    B. the fusion of body parts
    C. shedding of the skin
    D. formation of the germ layers in early development
    E. the first cellular division following fertilization

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. If it were found that all animals except the Parazoa had a particular set of genes, one could conclude:
    A. that those genes are not useful in interpreting phylogeny
    B.  that Darwin was incorrect in his idea about descent with modification
    C.  that the Parazoa are not animals
    D.  that those genes probably are related to the embryonic formation of tissues
    E.  None of the other choices offered are realistic

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the phyla of animals has the greatest number of species?
    A.Arthropoda
    B. Chordata
    C. Mollusca
    D. Annelida
    E. Nematoda

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Echinoderms are classified as Bilateria and they start out as bilateral larvae, yet as they develop they change into radially symmetrical adults. Would you expect their genes controlling the development of radial symmetry to be:
    A.different from those controlling development of symmetry in all other radially symmetrical animals
    B. similar to genes controlling body form in Porifera
    C. similar to genes controlling body form in Ctenophora
    D. similar to genes controlling body form in the lophophorates
    E. similar to a common set of genes controlling body form in Ctenohora, and lophophorates

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. If you were to discover a new species of animal that did not have body segments, but shed its exoskeleton and was a protostome, under the molecular phylogenetic scheme, you would allocate it to which of the following phyla?
    A.Mollusca
    B. Echinodermata
    C. Nematoda
    D. Platyhelminthes
    E. Arthropoda

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. If you conducted an experiment in which you took a complete animal and strained it through a fine-mesh cloth so that all its cells separated, then you placed all the cells together and they reunited to form a new animal, to which phylum would that animal likely belong? (This was an actual experiment.)
    A.Platyhelminthes
    B. Porifera
    C. Ctenophora
    D. Nematoda
    E. All of the choices provided are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure 32.05
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a valid distinction between a blastocoel, an archenteron, and a coelom?
    A.During development these cavities appear in the sequence blastocoel, archenteron, coelom.
    B. The blastocoel forms the cavity of the digestive tract, the archenteron forms the chest cavity, and the coelom forms the cavity of the digestive tract.
    C. The blastocoel is bounded only by an external germ layer, the archenteron is bounded by inner and outer layers of germ cells, and the coelom is a cavity within the mesoderm.
    D. The archenteron has a direct opening to the outside of the embryo whereas the other two cavities do not.
    E. None of the other choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

True / False Questions
 

  1. Animals are monophyletic.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The terms “dorsal” and “oral” are synonyms.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Topic: Animals
 

  1. A pseudocoelom is a cavity that develops embryonically into the coelom.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Gastrulation is the development of the gastrula into an embryo.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure 32.01
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. A hydrostatic skeleton has no bones or cartilage.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Stem cells have determinate cleavage.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Very great differences in body form can result from only small differences of gene expression.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Radiata have neither an anterior end nor a posterior end.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. All eumetazoans have cell junctions.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section 32.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Gastrulation is brought about by an invagination of the wall of the blastocoel.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section 32.02
Topic: Animals
 

Chapter 42

Test Bank: Neuroscience II: Evolution and Function of the Brain and Nervous System

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. A nerve net is the type of nervous system that would be found in which of the following organisms?
    A.jellyfish
    B. cockroach
    C. fiddler crab
    D. earthworm
    E. frog

 

Bloom’s Level: Remember
Figure: 42.01
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Outside the CNS, groups of neuronal cell bodies that are clustered together to perform basic functions are termed
    A.nerve nets.
    B. ganglia.
    C. nerves.
    D. spinal cords.
    E. soma.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Inside the CNS, groups of neuronal cell bodies that are clustered together to perform basic functions are termed
    A.nerve nets.
    B. ganglia.
    C. nuclei.
    D. spinal cords.
    E. soma.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. cephalization refers to the trend for animals with more complex body types to
    A.concentrate nervous tissue in the anterior (head) end of the animal.
    B. become bilaterally symmetrical.
    C. develop a brain with clear divisions between “gray” and “white” matter.
    D. develop a segmental organization to the nervous system.
    E. concentrate sensory organs in the anterior end of the animal.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

  1. The central nervous system or CNS of vertebrate animals consists of
    A.the brain.
    B. the spinal cord.
    C. all nerves in the body.
    D. nerves originating at sensory receptors.
    E. the brain and spinal cord.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Damage to the cerebellum could result in which of the following?
    A.decreased ability to balance
    B. loss of hearing
    C. loss of vision
    D. loss of taste sensation
    E. diminished thermoreceptive sensation

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which portion of the brain has shown the most dramatic changes in size in the evolution of birds and mammals?
    A.hindbrain
    B. midbrain
    C. forebrain
    D. cerebellum
    E. medulla oblongata

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following are NOT found in the “gray matter” of the human brain?
    A.neuronal soma
    B. dendrites
    C. unmyelinated axons
    D. myelinated axons
    E. neuronal soma and dendrites

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The meninges surrounding the CNS include the
    A.dura mater.
    B. pia mater.
    C. arachnoid mater.
    D. All of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Figure: 42.07
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The fluid filling the space around the CNS is termed
    A.cerebrospinal fluid.
    B. interstitial fluid.
    C. lymph.
    D. blood.
    E. arachnoid fluid.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 42.07
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following activities would be associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
    A.resting and digesting
    B. release of both acetylcholine and epinephrine
    C. increased heart rate
    D. “fight-or-flight” response
    E. release of epinephrine only

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Figure: 42.08
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the
    A.CNS.
    B. autonomic nervous system.
    C. somatic nervous system.
    D. learning and memory system.
    E. limbic system in the brain mediating emotion.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 42.08
Topic: General
 

  1. The motor division of the PNS in a vertebrate can be divided into
    A.the brain and spinal chord.
    B. the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
    C. the central nervous and sensory systems.
    D. the somatic and autonomic systems.
    E. muscles and glands.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Figure: 42.08
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The autonomic nervous system regulates
    A.blood pressure.
    B. heart contractions.
    C. digestive system function.
    D. skeletal muscle contractions.
    E. All of these answers are correct except “skeletal muscle contractions.”

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. In a classic experiment, Otto Loewi stimulated the vagus nerve of a frog heart electrically. He let the fluid bathing the heart he was stimulating flow to and thus contact a second, nonstimulated heart. Both the first and second hearts slowed down with this stimulation. Based on this response, you can assume the nerve he stimulated was part of the
    A.parasympathetic system.
    B. sympathetic system.
    C. somatic system.
    D. atrioventricular system.
    E. central nervous system.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. You’ve just had a near miss in your car. Your pulse is racing and you notice your pupils are wide open when you look in your rearview mirror. What part of your autonomic nervous system is activated?
    A.peripheral
    B. sympathetic
    C. parasympathetic
    D. myelencephalon
    E. neocortex

 

Bloom’s Level: Create
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following levels of the vertebrate nervous system is responsible for the skeletal muscle responses to stimuli (i.e., which system causes these responses)?
    A. sensory
    B.  somatic
    C.  sympathetic
    D.  parasympathetic
    E.  All of these answers are correct

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Which of the following regions of the human brain is critically important for controlling heart rate and breathing?
    A.medulla oblongata
    B. cerebellum
    C. thalamus
    D. hippocampus
    E. cerebral cortex

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 42.08
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following regions of the human brain is critically important for monitoring and controlling movements?
    A.medulla oblongata
    B. cerebellum
    C. hypothalamus
    D. basal nuclei
    E. cerebral cortex

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. In mammals, one region has become especially important as a “relay center” for information passing from sensory structures to the cerebrum. What region is this?
    A.pons
    B. cerebellum
    C. hypothalamus
    D. thalamus
    E. hippocampus

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Which of the following regions produces hormones that are secreted by the pituitary gland?
    A.cerebrum
    B. cerebellum
    C. thalamus
    D. hypothalamus
    E. medulla oblongata

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following brain regions helps regulate hunger and thirst?
    A.cerebrum
    B. cerebellum
    C. thalamus
    D. hypothalamus
    E. medulla oblongata

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Figure: 42.08
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The mammalian circadian pacemaker is located in the
    A.suprachiasmatic nucleus.
    B. brainstem.
    C. somatosensory cortex.
    D. adrenal gland.
    E. hippocampus.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The challenges in movement experienced by people with Parkinson disease are due to loss of dopamine-secreting neurons in which of the following areas?
    A.medulla oblongata
    B. cerebellum
    C. thalamus
    D. basal nuclei
    E. somatosensory cortex

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Collectively, the amygdala, olfactory bulbs, hippocampus, and parts of the thalamus and hypothalamus are said to form
    A.the limbic system.
    B. the reticular formation.
    C. the basal nuclei.
    D. the sympathetic division.
    E. the frontal lobe.

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following regions is especially important for functions related to emotion such as understanding emotional situations or being able to recognize displays of emotion by other individuals?
    A.amygdala
    B. hippocampus
    C. thalamus
    D. pons
    E. reticular formation

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. A neurologist diagnosis a patient with damage to the hippocampus. This observation is consistent with the difficulties the patient reports with
    A.forming memories of recent events.
    B. effectively coordinating movements once initiated.
    C. planning movements.
    D. maintaining a steady and regular heartbeat.
    E. perceiving tactile stimulation from different regions of their body.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The site of integration for sensory and motor information in humans is the
    A.cerebellum.
    B. thalamus.
    C. basal nuclei.
    D. hippocampus.
    E. cerebral cortex.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the lobes of the cerebral cortex?
    A.frontal
    B. parietal
    C. occipital
    D. temporal
    E. basal

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Humans have a particularly good ability to recognize other individual humans. This ability appears to be mediated by the ____ lobe of the cerebral cortex.
    A.frontal
    B. parietal
    C. occipital
    D. temporal
    E. thalamic

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is a major neural connection between the right and left hemispheres of the human brain?
    A.corpus callosum
    B. basal nuclei
    C. thalamus
    D. reticular formation
    E. motor cortex

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. What is significant about the findings from “split brain” patients studied by Roger Sperry and his collaborators?
    A.These studies revealed that the right and left hemispheres both function primarily to enable people to understand and produce language.
    B. These studies revealed that the right and left hemispheres both function primarily to enable people to describe qualities of objects such as shape and texture.
    C. These studies revealed that the left hemisphere functions primarily in understanding and producing language while the right hemisphere functions instead in describing qualities like shape and texture.
    D. These studies revealed that the right hemisphere functions primarily in understanding and producing language while the left hemisphere functions instead in describing qualities like shape and texture.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure : 42.12
Section: 42.03
Topic: General
 

  1. The genes microcephalin and ASPM have been implicated in what aspect of human evolution?
    A.the evolution of our large frontal cortex
    B. the evolution of language
    C. the evolution of bipedal locomotion (walking upright)
    D. the evolution of an opposable thumb
    E. the evolution of mother-infant bonding

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 42.01
Topic: Evolution
 

 

  1. What, if anything, distinguishes learning from memory?
    A. Learning is the process of acquiring new information while memory is the retention of that information over time.
    B. Memory is the process of acquiring new information while learning is the retention of that information over time.
    C. Both learning and memory are the process of acquiring new information.
    D. Both learning and memory are the retention of information over time.
    E. Memory does not require prior learning.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 42.03
Topic: General
 

  1. The process whereby repeated, short stimuli provided to a hippocampal neuron have the effect of strengthening the synapse it makes with other neurons is specifically referred to as
    A.long-term potentiation.
    B. short-term potentiation.
    C. neurotransmission.
    D. synaptic reuptake.
    E. None of these choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The study of learning has been considerably advanced through studies of the California sea slug Aplysia. Which of the following is NOT a reason Aplysia is well suited to these studies?
    A.It has a simple nervous system with only about 20,000 cells.
    B. Some of its neurons are very large, enabling the insertion of electrodes for recording.
    C. Some of its neurons are very large, enabling the injection of dyes that allowed tracing the paths and connections of these neurons.
    D. The large size of some neurons allowed isolation of proteins and mRNAs from these neurons.
    E. All of the choices for this question are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. What behavior did Eric Kandel and his colleagues focus on in their studies of learning in Aplysia?
    A. the gill-withdrawal reflex
    B. feeding
    C. sexual behavior
    D. locomotion
    E. aggression

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following is true about short-term and long-term memory processes?
    A.Short-term memory processes act through second messenger systems while long-term memory processes require protein synthesis.
    B. Long-term memory processes act through second messenger systems while short-term memory processes require protein synthesis.
    C. BOTH short-term and long-term memory processes require protein synthesis.
    D. NEITHER short-term nor long-term memory processes require protein synthesis.
    E. Invertebrate animals like Aplysia and Drosophila do not show long-term memory processes.

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 42.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Which of the following imaging techniques detects differences in blood flow to particular regions through detection of differences in the relative proportions of oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin?
    A.X-ray
    B. CT scan
    C. MRI scan
    D. fMRI scan
    E. sonogram

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The development of Alzheimer’s disease is associated with deposits of which of the following proteins?
    A.b-amyloid
    B. protein kinase A
    C. myosin
    D. hemoglobin
    E. cAMP-response-element-binding protein (CREB)

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 42.04
Topic: General
 

 

True / False Questions
 

  1. Overall brain size across mammals (e.g., an elephant vs. a bat) is a good predictor of behavioral complexity.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section: 42.03
Topic: General
 

  1. Cranial nerves are connected directly to the brain.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. The somatic nervous system primarily regulates involuntary responses.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system tend to have opposing actions on target organs.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. You would not expect a protein synthesis inhibitor to block learning processes in the relevant neurons of Aplysia or yourself.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Apply
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Even single stimuli can activate protein kinase A in presynaptic neurons involved in the gill-withdrawal reflex in Aplysia.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

  1. New neurons do not appear in the brain of adult vertebrate animals.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section: 42.01
Topic: General
 

 

  1. Activities like playing a musical instrument regularly can affect the size of brain regions involved in performing these activities.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Create
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

  1. Meningitis is solely a bacterially caused disease.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 42.04
Topic: General
 

  1. Synaptic vesicles discharge their contents at the axon hillock region.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Analyze
Section : 42.02
Topic: General
 

Chapter 52

Test Bank: Animal Development

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions
 

  1. The process by which a fertilized egg becomes a distinct organism is called
    A.epigenesis.
    B. cellular dedifferentiation.
    C. involution.
    D. embryonic development.
    E. metamorphosis.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The specific process by which a swimming tadpole transforms into an adult frog with distinct limbs is called
    A.epigenesis.
    B. cellular dedifferentiation.
    C. gastrulation.
    D. involution.
    E. metamorphosis.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.01
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The process by which cells acquire specialized forms and functions is called
    A.cell growth.
    B. cell elasticity.
    C. cell differentiation.
    D. cell replication.
    E. None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following represents the proper order of events in embryonic development?
    A.fertilization, gastrulation, neurulation, cleavage, organogenesis
    B. fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis, neurulation
    C. fertilization, cleavage, gastrulation, neurulation, organogenesis
    D. fertilization, gastrulation, cleavage, neurulation, organogenesis
    E. fertilization, gastrulation, cleavage, organogenesis, neurulation

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.01
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Most organisms develop from the embryonic gastrula that is composed of ________ germ cell layer(s)?
    A.1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 5

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which stage of development involves cell division without cell growth?
    A.fertilization
    B. cleavage
    C. neurulation
    D. gastrulation
    E. organogenesis

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. During which stage of development are germ cell layers first formed?
    A.fertilization
    B. cleavage
    C. neurulation
    D. gastrulation
    E. organogenesis

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52:02
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of fertilization?
    A.It restores the egg to a diploid state.
    B. It activates cell division.
    C. It is critical to maintaining membrane polarity.
    D. It both restores the egg to a diploid state and activates cell division.
    E. It both restores the egg to a diploid state and maintains membrane polarity.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52:02
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which event of fertilization occurs first?
    A.fast block to polyspermy
    B. the entry of sperm DNA into the egg
    C. the slow block to polyspermy
    D. the acrosomal reaction
    E. the cortical reaction

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52:02
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Once an egg has been fertilized, what event(s) are crucial for preventing additional sperm from inserting chromosomes into the egg?
    A.the acrosomal reaction
    B. the cortical reaction
    C. the fast block to polyspermy
    D. both the acrosomal and cortical reactions
    E. both the cortical reaction and fast block to polyspermy

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following events involves the release of enzymes?
    A.cell cleavage
    B. cortical reaction
    C. egg membrane depolarization
    D. increase in cytosolic calcium within the egg
    E. the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following sequence of events of fertilization is in the proper order?
    A.acrosomal reaction, binding of sperm to egg membrane, fast block to polyspermy, increase in egg cytosolic calcium, and then the slow block to polyspermy
    B. binding of sperm to egg membrane, acrosomal reaction, fast block to polyspermy, slow block to polyspermy, and then an increase in egg cytosolic calcium
    C. binding of sperm to egg membrane, acrosomal reaction, fast block to polyspermy, increase in egg cytosolic calcium, and then the slow block to polyspermy
    D. acrosomal reaction, fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm to egg membrane, increase in egg cytosolic calcium, and then the slow block to polyspermy
    E. acrosomal reaction, fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm to egg membrane, slow block to polyspermy, and then an increase in egg cytosolic calcium

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: General
 

 

  1. The increase in cytosolic calcium within the egg during fertilization initiates
    A.the slow block to polyspermy.
    B. the cortical reaction.
    C. signaling for the first cell division.
    D. the release of enzymes by the egg.
    E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of cell cleavage?
    A.It involves consecutive cycles of cell division without cell growth.
    B. It forms a blastula.
    C. It is a rather slow event of embryonic development.
    D. It involves consecutive cycles of cell division without cell growth and forms a blastula.
    E. It is a rather slow event of embryonic development involving consecutive cycles of cell division.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.03
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The outcome of cleavage during embryonic development is the production of a
    A.blastula.
    B. gastrula.
    C. neurula.
    D. substantially larger embryo.
    E. None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.05
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Birds and fish contain high amounts of yolk in their eggs. What can be said about cell cleavage during embryonic development in these animals?
    A.It is meroblastic.
    B. It is holoblastic.
    C. It is complete.
    D. The blastula that forms involved cleavage through the entire egg.
    E. It is impossible for bird and fish eggs to undergo cleavage during development.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.04
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the
    A.ovary.
    B. oviduct.
    C. uterus.
    D. vagina.
    E. None of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.05
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. In a frog embryo, gastrulation
    A.produces a blastocoel displaced into the animal hemisphere.
    B. occurs along the primitive streak in the animal hemisphere.
    C. is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the egg.
    D. proceeds by invagination and involution as cells roll over the dorsal lip of the blastopore.
    E. occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.08
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. ________ is the inner most germ cell layer that forms during gastrulation.
    A.Ectoderm
    B. Mesoderm
    C. Endoderm
    D. Mesentery
    E. Epidermis

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.08
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following germ layer-structure is mismatched?
    A.mesoderm-notochord
    B. endoderm-lungs or respiratory tube
    C. ectoderm-epidermis
    D. mesoderm-digestive tract
    E. ectoderm-brain

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.07
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which embryonic structure ultimately forms the digestive tract?
    A.archenteron
    B. blastopore
    C. blastocoel
    D. notochord
    E. convergence extension

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.07
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The ectoderm is to the central nervous system as the mesoderm is to the
    A.epidermis.
    B. respiratory tube.
    C. digestive tract.
    D. skeletal muscle.
    E. peripheral nervous system.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.07
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. During gastrulation, the cellular process by which ectoderm in the animal pole spreads toward the vegetal pole is called
    A.epiboly.
    B. invagination.
    C. involution.
    D. convergent extension.
    E. apical constriction.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.08
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. In chordates, which mesoderm structure forms during gastrulation and provides structural rigidity along the dorsal anterioposterior axis of the embryo?
    A.archenteron
    B. neural tube
    C. notochord
    D. epidermis
    E. intestinal tract

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.11
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of neurulation?
    A.establishment of cells that will form future pigment cells and certain facial bones
    B. establishment of the central nervous system
    C. establishment of the neural crest
    D. establishment of the archenteron
    E. establishment of somites

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.11
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Cadherin proteins are specifically associated with which of the following during embryonic development?
    A.the differentiation of the archenteron
    B. anterioposterior axis formation
    C. maintenance of different germ cell layers through specific cell-to-cell contacts
    D. establishment of a morphogenic field
    E. limb cell differentiation

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.11
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which factor is important for maintaining the different germ cell layers in the developing embryo? [Hint: without this molecule the embryo would be a ball of cells with no distinct germ cell layers.]
    A.activin
    B. noggin
    C. Spemann’s organizer
    D. Hox gene
    E. cadherins

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.15
Section: 52.03
 

 

  1. The anterioposterior axis of an embryo is established by
    A.activin.
    B. Hox genes.
    C. cadherins.
    D. noggin.
    E. transforming growth factor.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 52.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of a morphogen?
    A.It is a signaling molecule required for cell-to-cell contact within the embryo.
    B. It is a signaling molecule that induces the differentiation of cells within the embryo.
    C. It is a signaling molecule that induces blastulation of the developing embryo.
    D. It is a signaling molecule that induces implantation of the embryo into the uterus of mammals.
    E. It is a signaling molecule that separates out cytoplasmic factors to their respective cells within the developing embryo.

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is important to the development of dorsal structures such as the neural tube and notochord?
    A.Spemann’s organizer
    B. noggin
    C. cadherins
    D. both Spemann’s organizer and noggin
    E. both Spemann’s organizer and cadherins

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following is TRUE of fate mapping?
    A.It determines the ultimate structure/function of a particular cell type during embryonic development.
    B. It maps the genes of an embryo.
    C. It assesses the quality of a developing embryo.
    D. It maps the proteins within a morphogenic field.
    E. It determines hereditable disorders in the embryo.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.06
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Through studies using the animal cap assay this morphogen was shown to be important for the determination of the different types of mesoderm tissue in the developing embryo.
    A.activin
    B. noggin
    C. Spemann’s organizer
    D. Hox gene
    E. cadherins

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.07
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold conducted pioneering experiments in which they transplanted the dorsal lip of the blastopore in an early gastrula newt to the ventral side of another early gastrula newt. What was the outcome of this experiment?
    A.Discovery of Spemann’s organizer.
    B. The development of dorsal structures (neural tube, notochord) on both the dorsal and ventral parts of the gastrula that received the transplant.
    C. Identification of a morphogenic field in the dorsal lip of the blastopore of an early gastrula.
    D. Discovery of a group of embryonic cells in the dorsal lip that ultimately produce specific body structures.
    E. All of the choices are correct.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.17
Section: 52.03
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a morphogen?
    A.activin
    B. noggin
    C. Wnt
    D. cadherin
    E. protein produced by Spemann’s organizer (dorsal lip of a gastrula)

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.15
Section: 52.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which are likely involved in promoting cell differentiation during animal development?
    A. differential distribution of cytosolic factors among early embryonic cells
    B.  extracellular signals
    C.  cellular receptors
    D.  specific morphogens
    E.  All of the choices are correct

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.01
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The two primary mechanisms of cell differentiation are conditional specification and
    A.fertilization.
    B. gastrulation.
    C. autonomous specification.
    D. polar cap fusion.
    E. organogenesis.

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. It is well established that developmental biology has impacts on public health. For instance, thalidomide, an anticonvulsive and antihistimine medication, was prescribed to reduce nausea or morning sickness in pregnant women. It was subsequently shown to cause severely deformed limbs (hands and feet, but reduced arms and legs) in children whose mothers took the medication. What might thalidomide do during development?
    A.Cause a defect in the fertilization of an egg.
    B. Severely alter blastulation in the embryo.
    C. Impair morphogenic fields within the embryo.
    D. Impair neural tube formation.
    E. Block cell division during blastulation.

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 52.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Which of the following is likely required to initiate cell differentiation during development?
    A.cell division
    B. the presence of certain mRNAs needed for expression of cell-specific proteins
    C. the buildup of cell-to-cell adhesion molecules
    D. the presence of carbohydrates
    E. hydration of the egg during fertilization

 

Bloom’s Level: Understand
Figure: 52.01
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

True / False Questions
 

  1. The fast block to polyspermy occurs through a rapid increase in cytosolic calcium within the egg.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52:02
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The sperm and its DNA enters the egg through simple diffusion through the egg plasma membrane.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52:02
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The cortical reaction prevents multiple sperm from contributing their chromosomes to the egg.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52:02
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Most of the egg yolk found in certain vertebrates is restricted to the animal pole?
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.03
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Mammalian eggs like those of humans undergo holoblastic cleavage and compaction during development.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Figure: 52.04
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. The neural tube or spinal chord is derived from mesoderm.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.11
Section: 52.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The endoderm is a germ cell layer that tends to cover the embryo.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.08
Section: 52.03
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Fate mapping is a valuable tool to establish the type of cells derived from certain undifferentiated cells within an early embryo.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.06
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. Chicken eggs form a blastula through holoblastic cleavage.
    FALSE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Section: 52.04
Topic: Animals
 

  1. One outcome of gastrulation is the establishment of primordial germ cells, which represent the cell types that form gametes.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

 

  1. Convergent extension, involution, and invagination are ways in which cells move and transform within the embryo.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level: Evaluate
Figure: 52.03
Section : 52.02
Topic: Animals
 

  1. The differentiation of cells into distinct body parts is induced by morphogens.
    TRUE

 

Bloom’s Level :Apply
Section: 52.01
Topic: Animals
 

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