Anatomy And Physiology From Science to Life, 2nd Edition by Jenkins, Gail – Test Bank

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Anatomy And Physiology From Science to Life, 2nd Edition by Jenkins, Gail – Test Bank

chapter 2

1. Which of the following is considered to be a “lesser element” found in the body?
  A) Carbon
  B) Aluminum
  C) Iodine
  D) Calcium
  E) Selenium

 

 

2. The rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by all of the following except:
  A) the presence of the appropriate enzyme
  B) the concentration of the reactants
  C) the presence or absence of carbon
  D) the temperature
  E) the presence of the appropriate catalyst

 

 

3. The phospholipids that make up the plasma membranes of body cells have a _____________ head region and a _____________ tail region, a quality that results in the formation of the “lipid bilayer”.
  A) non-polar, hydrophilic
  B) non-polar, polar
  C) polar, hydrophilic
  D) hydrophobic, hydrophilic
  E) hydrophilic, non-polar

 

 

4. Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
  A) H2O
  B) CH4
  C) PO43-
  D) NaCl
  E) HCl

 

 

5. A bond in which electrons are shared unequally is called a(n):
  A) Hydrogen bond
  B) Ionic bond
  C) Amphipathic bond
  D) Polar covalent bond
  E) Nonpolar covalent bond

 

 

6. True or False: The sugar forming part of the backbone of DNA strands is called deoxyribose.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

7. True or False: Most enzymes are non-specific, meaning they may bind to substrates indiscriminately and catalyze a wide range of reactions in the body.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

8. True or False: Ions are formed when atoms gain or lose one or more valence electrons and become positively or negatively charged.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

9. True or False: The lower the pH, the higher the H+ concentration.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

10. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding enzymes?
  A) They are specific; each one is able to bind only to certain substrates.
  B) They lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction.
  C) They are all capable of breaking down lipids.
  D) They are unchanged at the end of the reaction.
  E) They usually end with the suffix: -ase

 

 

11. Which of the following statements best characterizes lipid molecules?
  A) In general, they have few polar covalent bonds, and are therefore hydrophobic and insoluble in water.
  B) They are most commonly found in the body functioning as enzymes.
  C) Glucose, fructose, and galactose are classified as triglycerides.
  D) Components of these molecules are joined together by peptide bonds.
  E) They are toxic in the body and should be eradicated in all forms from the diet.

 

 

12. Which of the following is the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid?
  A) Nitrogen
  B) Hydrogen
  C) Magnesium
  D) Potassium
  E) Sodium

 

 

13. Salts are always:
  A) defined as dissociating in water into a hydrogen ion and an anion.
  B) ionic compounds.
  C) polar covalent compounds.
  D) non-polar covalent compounds.
  E) hydrogen bonded.

 

 

14. The smallest unit of matter that retains the properties and characteristics of an element is the:
  A) molecule
  B) atom
  C) electron
  D) proton
  E) nucleus

 

 

15. Which of the following is a good example of an acidic bodily fluid in a healthy individual?
  A) Semen
  B) Cerebrospinal fluid
  C) Bile
  D) Blood
  E) Gastric juice

 

 

16. Which of the following is NOT an example of a hydrogen bond?
  A) The bonds formed between H20 molecules
  B) The peptide bonds between amino acids
  C) The bonds formed between base pairs of DNA and RNA nucleotides
  D) The bonds formed along the polypeptide backbone of a protein to form its secondary structure, the alpha helixes and beta pleated sheets.

 

 

17. True or False: Anions are formed when atoms gain or lose one or more valence electrons and become positively or negatively charged.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

18. Which of the following bodily fluids is strongly alkaline (basic)?
  A) blood
  B) gastric juice
  C) bile
  D) vaginal fluid
  E) saliva

 

 

19. True or False: Hydrogen bonds occur when the non-polar covalent bonds between hydrogen and other atoms create partially charged regions on those molecules that are attracted to oppositely charged particles.
  A) True
  B) False

 

 

20. Which of the following is the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid?
  A) Na+
  B) Cl-
  C) H+
  D) K+
  E) Mg2+

 

 

21. The following equation is an example of which of the following concepts?

ATP + H2O ® ADP + Phosphate group + Energy

  A) Dehydration synthesis reaction
  B) Anabolic reaction
  C) Phosphorylation
  D) Hydrolysis
  E) Phagocytosis

 

 

22. Which of the following particles has a neutral charge?
  A) Neutron
  B) Atom
  C) Proton
  D) Neutron and atom
  E) All of the above

 

 

23. What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons?
  A) Cloud
  B) Nucleus
  C) Element
  D) Ring
  E) Shell

 

 

24. This is the number of protons or electrons.
  A) Mass number
  B) Atomic number
  C) Isotope
  D) Valence shell
  E) None of the above

 

 

25. As an atom’s nucleus decays, it will emit radiation. This is seen in
  A) Compounds
  B) Cations
  C) Anions
  D) Isotopes
  E) Molecules

 

 

26. This refers to the atomic weight of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.
  A) Mass number
  B) Atomic number
  C) Atomic mass
  D) Ionic mass
  E) Covalent mass

 

 

27. Which of the following particles plays a role in creating chemical bonds?
  A) Neutron
  B) Electron
  C) Proton
  D) Electron and proton
  E) All of the above

 

 

28. This is a negatively charged atom.
  A) Superoxide
  B) Isotope
  C) Catalyst
  D) Ion
  E) Valence

 

 

29. Which of the below provide an electrical current?
  A) Isotope
  B) Ionic molecule
  C) Compound
  D) Electrolyte
  E) Valence molecule

 

 

30. This type of bond requires a sharing of electrons.
  A) Covalent
  B) Ionic
  C) Hydrogen
  D) Atomic
  E) Electronic

 

 

31. This is the type of bond between the atoms forming a molecule of H2O.
  A) Nonpolar covalent
  B) Polar covalent
  C) Hydrogen
  D) Ionic
  E) Atomic

 

 

32. Which of the following bonds provides the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA?
  A) Nonpolar covalent
  B) Polar covalent
  C) Hydrogen
  D) Ionic
  E) Atomic

 

 

33. This occurs when new bonds form or old bonds break between atoms.
  A) Ions
  B) Electrolytes
  C) Isotopes
  D) Chemical reaction
  E) Compounds

 

 

34. This is defined as the capacity to do work.
  A) Metabolism
  B) Electrolytes
  C) Chemical reaction
  D) Concentration
  E) Energy

 

 

35. This type of reaction will absorb more energy that it releases.
  A) Exergonic
  B) Endergonic
  C) Potential
  D) Kinetic
  E) Activation

 

 

36. An enzyme acts to
  A) Raise the activation energy needed
  B) Lower the activation energy needed
  C) Convert the activation energy into potential
  D) Convert the activation energy into kinetic
  E) Break a chemical reaction

 

 

37. This type of reaction will combine reactants to produce larger products.
  A) Synthesis
  B) Decomposition
  C) Potential
  D) Exchange
  E) Activated

 

 

38. This type of reaction will break larger reactants to produce smaller products.
  A) Synthesis
  B) Decomposition
  C) Potential
  D) Exchange
  E) Activated

 

 

39. This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body.
  A) Water
  B) Oxygen gas
  C) Carbon dioxide
  D) Glucose
  E) DNA

 

 

40. A solute that dissolves in water is.
  A) Hydrophobic
  B) Hydrostatic
  C) Hydroamoure
  D) Hydrophilic
  E) Hydrozone

 

 

41. In a typical body solution, the solvent is.
  A) Glucose
  B) Lipids
  C) Carbon dioxide
  D) Water
  E) Electrolyte

 

 

42. A solution with a pH value smaller than 7 would be a(n)
  A) Base
  B) Salt
  C) Acid
  D) alkaline
  E) concentrate

 

 

43. A substance that adds or removes Hydrogen ions from a solution is a(n)
  A) Base
  B) Salt
  C) Acid
  D) Alkaline
  E) Buffer

 

 

44. Which of the following is considered a proton donor?
  A) Acid
  B) Base
  C) Salt
  D) Organic compound
  E) Colloid

 

 

45. Glucose and fructose both have the chemical formula C6H12O6 so they are considered
  A) Isotopes
  B) Isometrics
  C) Isolates
  D) Isomers
  E) Isotonics

 

 

46. Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is important in producing energy?
  A) Glucose
  B) Sucrose
  C) Lactose
  D) Ribose
  E) Deoxyribose

 

 

47. The major energy storage polysaccharide in humans is:
  A) Cellulose
  B) Ribose
  C) Lipids
  D) Fats
  E) Glycogen

 

 

48. This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms.
  A) Saturated
  B) Monounsaturated
  C) Polyunsaturated
  D) Acylglycerols
  E) Lipoprotein

 

 

49. This type of lipid is the body’s long term energy storage molecule.
  A) Steroid
  B) Phospholipid
  C) Cholesterol
  D) Triglyceride
  E) Lipoprotein

 

 

50. This type of lipid is used by the body to create hormones.
  A) Cellulose
  B) Phospholipid
  C) Cholesterol
  D) Triglyceride
  E) Lipoprotein

 

 

51. Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids?
  A) They contain an glycerol backbone
  B) The head group is polar
  C) The molecule is an important part of cell membranes
  D) The tail groups are nonpolar
  E) They are a major energy storage lipid

 

 

52. Which of the following is true about inorganic acids, bases and salts?
  A) An acid dissociates into one or more hydrogen ions and one or more anions.
  B) A base dissociates in water into one or more hydroxide ions and one or more cations.
  C) Salts dissociate into one or more anions and one or more cations, none of which are H+ or OH-
  D) A and B only
  E) All of the above

 

 

53. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are considered:
  A) Amphipathic
  B) Lipids
  C) Eicosanoids
  D) Lipids and eicosanoids
  E) All of the above

 

 

54. The primary structure of a protein contains
  A) Alpha helix
  B) Beta-pleated sheets
  C) Substrates
  D) Amino acids
  E) All of the above

 

 

55. Which is the function of RNA?
  A) Produce electrical impulses
  B) storage of energy
  C) transfer information for protein synthesis
  D) store information for protein synthesis
  E) transport of fluids

 

 

56. An atom with 4 electrons in its valence shell is:
  A) very stable
  B) likely to ionize
  C) a noble gas
  D) able to form bonds to fill up its valence shell.
  E) carbon

 

 

57. Which is the function of DNA?
  A) Produce chemical signals
  B) storage of energy
  C) transfer information for protein synthesis
  D) store information for protein synthesis
  E) transport of electrolytes

 

 

58. Which is the function of ATP?
  A) Produce electrical impulses
  B) Transfers energy for cell functions
  C) transfer information for protein synthesis
  D) store information for protein synthesis
  E) transport of fluids

 

 

59. What type of bond is illustrated by this image?
  A) Polar covalent
  B) Non polar covalent
  C) Hydrogen
  D) Peptide
  E) Ionic

 

 

60. What monomer is used to build RNA and DNA?
  A) fatty acid
  B) amino acid
  C) Glucose
  D) glycerol
  E) nucleotide

 

 

61. In the diagram which particles are negatively charged?
  A) A
  B) B
  C) C
  D) All of the above
  E) None of the above

 

 

62. Give a brief description of what this diagram represents?

 

 

63. What is this molecule, where can it be found in a eukaryotic cell and what are the special properties of this molecule?

 

 

64. Describe what is happening at places 1, 2, and 3 in the following figure.

 

 

65. In the diagram, what pH value represents an acidic solution?
  A) 12
  B) 10
  C) 8
  D) 6
  E) None of the above

 

 

66. In the diagram, what would happen to the concentration of C if the concentration of A increases?
  A) Increases
  B) Decreases
  C) No change

 

 

67. What is the difference between atomic mass, mass number and atomic number?

 

 

68. Why are most lipids insoluble in water?

 

 

69. Describe the functions of water in the body.

 

 

70. Describe three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions.

 

 

71. Describe the law of conservation of energy.

 

 

72. List the three major properties of enzymes.

 

 

73. Describe what happens to a protein’s structure and function when it is denatured.

 

 

74. Describe what structures comprise an amino acid.

 

 

75. List the six major functions of proteins.

 

 

76. Describe a hydrogen bond.

 

 

 

Answer Key

 

1. D
2. C
3. E
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. B
15. E
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. E
35. B
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. A
40. D
41. D
42. C
43. E
44. A
45. D
46. A
47. E
48. C
49. D
50. C
51. E
52. E
53. D
54. D
55. C
56. E
57. D
58. B
59. E
60. E
61. C
62. This diagram represents the octet rule in chemical bonding. The octet rule states that two atoms will tend to bond if doing so means that they will both be left with eight electrons in their valence shells.
63. This is a phospholipid found in the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells. It has a polar hydrophilic head group and a nonpolar hydrophobic tail group making it amphipathic.
64. This figure represents how an enzyme works. At number one, the enzyme and substrate come together at the active site of the enzyme forming the enzyme-substrate complex. At number two, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction and transforms the substrate into products. At number three, the reaction is complete and the enzyme remains unchanged and free to catalyze the same reaction again on a new substrate.
65. D
66. A
67. Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom. Atomic mass is the total mass of all an atoms naturally occurring isotopes. Mass number is the total of a naturally occurring atoms protons and neutrons.
68. There are fewer polar covalent bonds due to a lower proportion of electronegative oxygen atoms in lipids. As a result, most lipids are hydrophobic.
69. Water is a solvent that allows transportation of solutes. Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants. Water can transport heat and, through sweating, releases heat from the body. Water is used as a lubricant, particularly in serous fluids.
70. Three factors that promote reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts), increased concentration of reactants and increased temperature.
71. Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form.
72. Enzymes are highly specific, efficient and subject to a variety of cellular controls.
73. The protein will become unraveled and lose its unique shape. Loss of that shape will destroy the protein’s function.
74. Amino acids contain a central carbon atom, an amino group, an acidic carboxyl group and a side chain.
75. Proteins can be used for structure, regulation, contraction, immunology, transport and as a catalyst.
76. Hydrogen bonds form between the slightly positively charged hydrogen atom and a slightly negatively charged atom, mostly oxygen or nitrogen.

 

chapter 12

1. Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
  A) Sensory function
  B) Integrative function
  C) Motor function
  D) Both a and b
  E) All are functions of the nervous system
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

2. The peripheral nervous system can be divided into:
  A) Somatic nervous system D) Both a and b
  B) Autonomic nervous system E) All of the above
  C) Enteric nervous system    
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

3. The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into:
  A) Sympathetic division
  B) Parasympathetic division
  C) Enteric division
  D) Sympathetic division and parasympathetic division
  E) All of the above
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

4. This has the property of electrical excitability.
  A)  Muscle cells    B)  Neurons    C)  All of the above    D)  None of the above
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

5. This is the site of protein synthesis in a neuron.
  A)  Mitochondria    B)  Nucleus    C)  Nissl body    D)  Dendrite    E)  Axon
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

6. This type of neuron has one main dendrite and one main axon.
  A) Multipolar neuron D) Purkinje cell
  B) Bipolar neuron E) Renshaw cell
  C) Unipolar neuron    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

7. This contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons, axon terminals and neruoglia.
  A) Gray matter D) Satellite cells
  B) White matter E) Ependymal cells
  C) Astrocytes    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

8. Which is not a type of channel used in production of an electrical signal in neurons?
  A) Leakage channel D) Mechanically gated channel
  B) Voltage-gated channel E) Ion dependent channel
  C) Ligand-gated channel    
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

9. A polarized cell
  A) Can vary from +5 to –100 mV
  B) Includes most cells of the body
  C) Exhibits a membrane potential
  D) Includes most cells of the body  and exhibits a membrane potential.
  E) All of the above
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  hard

 

10. A depolarizing graded potential
  A) Makes the membrane more polarized
  B) Makes the membrane less polarized
  C) Is not considered a graded potential
  D) Is the last part of an action potential
  E) Is seen when the cell approaches threshold
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

11. When a depolarizing graded potential makes the membrane depolarize to threshold
  A) Ligand gated Ca+ channels close rapidly
  B) Voltage gated CA+ channels open rapidly
  C) Ligand gated Na+ channels close rapidly
  D) Voltage gated Na+ channels open rapidly
  E) None of the above
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

12. During which period can a second action potential be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus?
  A) Refractory period D) All of the above
  B) Absolute refractory period E) None of the above
  C) Relative refractory period    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

13. Saltatory conduction
  A) Occurs through unmyelinated axons
  B) Happens due to even distribution of voltage gated channels
  C) Encode only action potentials in response to pain
  D) Occurs through unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage gated channels
  E) None of the above
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

14. Which axons have the largest diameter?
  A)  A fibers    B)  B fibers    C)  C fibers    D)  None of the above
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

15. What phenomenon explains why a light touch feels different than a touch applied with more pressure?
  A) Saltatory conduction D) Propagation
  B) Continuous conduction E) Refractory period
  C) Frequency of impulses    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

16. Which of the following terms describes synapses?
  A) Axodendritic D) None of the above
  B) Axosomatic E) All of the above
  C) Axoaxonic    
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

17. Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of
  A) Chemical synapsis D) Voltage gated channels
  B) Electrical synapses E) Mechanically gated channels
  C) Ligand gated channels    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

18. If a neurotransmitter depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane it is referred to as:
  A)  Excitatory    B)  Inhibitory    C)  Spatial    D)  Temporal    E)  Summation
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

19. IPSP stands for:
  A) Inhibitory presynaptic summation potential
  B) Inhibitory postsynaptic summation potential
  C) Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
  D) Inhibitory presynaptic potential
  E) None of the above
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  easy

 

20. Diffusion, enzymatic degradation, and uptake by cells are all ways to
  A) Remove a neurotransmitter D) Inhibit a presynaptic potential
  B) Stop a spatial summation E) Excite a presynaptic potential
  C) Continue a temporal summation    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

21. Where does summation occur?
  A) In the synaptic cleft D) In the neuron nucleus
  B) In the dendrites E) In the neuroplasm
  C) At the trigger zone    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

22. A postsynaptic neuron may respond to inhibitory and excitatory effects in which of the following ways:
  A)  EPSP    B)  Nerve impulse    C)  IPSP    D)  Both a and c    E)  All of the above
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

23. Plasticity means
  A) The ability to regenerate
  B) Sending a signal through a converging circuit
  C) Signal transmission at a synapse
  D) Capability to change based on experience
  E) The ability to stretch without damage
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

24. What factors limit neurogensis.
  Ans: Inhibitory influences from neuroglia, mainly from oligodendrites and the absence of growth stimulating cues present during fetal development.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

25. Describe the two conditions that allow maintenance of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
  Ans: Unequal distribution of ions across the plasma membrane and the relative permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ and K+ help maintain the resting membrane potential.
  Difficulty:  easy

 

26. Briefly describe what causes the depolarizing phase.
  Ans: Voltage gated Na+ channels open rapidly then both the electrical and chemical gradients favor the inward movement of Na+. The inward rush of Na+ causes depolarization phase of the action potential.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 27-30:

 

Refer to below figure for the following the question(s) below.

 

27. Which part of the diagram contains organelles and Nissl bodies?
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  E    E)  Both a and b
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

28. Which portion of the diagram contains cytoplasm and a myelin sheath wrapped around neurolemma?
  A)  C    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  G
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

29. In the diagram, where is the axon collateral?
  A)  C    B)  D    C)  F    D)  H    E)  I
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

30. In the diagram where are axon terminals?
  A)  F    B)  G    C)  H    D)  I    E)  None of the above
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 31-32:

 

Refer to below figure for the following the question(s) below.

 

31. Which of the following neurons is attached to a receptor that mainly detects painful stimuli?
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  Both B and C
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

32. Which of the following neurons is attached to a receptor that mainly detects touch stimuli?
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  Both A and D
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 33-36:

 

Refer to the below figure to answer the following questions.

 

33. This is comprised of flattened cells that encircle the axon.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

34. This electrically insulates the axon of a neuron to increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  easy

 

35. In the diagram where are the Nodes of Ranvier?
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

36. In the CNS, this is produced by oligodendrocytes.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  D    E)  E
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

chapter 24

1. Which is not a major function of the kidney?
  A) regulation of blood ionic composition D) regulation of blood pressure
  B) regulation of blood cell size E) regulation of blood pH
  C) regulation of blood volume    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

2. Which of the following is a waste product normally excreted by the kidneys?
  A)  urea    B)  glucose    C)  insulin    D)  cholesterol    E)  carbon dioxide
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

3. This is smooth dense irregular connective tissue that is continuous with the outer coat of the ureter.
  A) adipose capsule D) renal cortex
  B) renal capsule E) renal medulla
  C) renal hilus    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

4. The portion of the kidney that extends between the renal pyramids is called the
  A) renal columns D) calyces
  B) renal medulla E) renal papilla
  C) renal pelvis    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

5. Which is the correct order of blood flow?
  A) renal artery-segmental artery-interlobular artery-peritubular capillaries- afferent arterioles
  B) interlobar arteries-arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins
  C) arcuate veins-arcuate arteries- glomerular capillaries- renal vein
  D) renal vein-segmental arteries-interlobar arteries- efferent arterioles
  E) interlobar veins- afferent arterioles- efferent arterioles- glomerular capillaries
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  hard

 

6. Which is the correct order of filtrate flow?
  A) glomerular capsule, Proximal Convoluted tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted tubule (DCT), Collecting duct
  B) Loop of Henle, glomerular capsule, PCT, DCT, Collecting duct
  C) Ascending limb of Loop, PCT, DCT, Collecting duct
  D) Collecting duct, DCT, PCT, Collecting duct, glomerular capsule
  E) PCT, glomerular capsule, DCT, Collecting duct, Loop of Henle
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

7. Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances?
  A) glomerular capsule D) Collecting duct
  B) Loop of Henle E) Proximal convoluted tubule
  C) Ascending limb    
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

8. This is the structure of the nephron that filters blood.
  A) glomerular capsule D) Collecting duct
  B) Loop of Henle E) Renal corpuscle
  C) Ascending limb    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

9. This term means entry of substances into the body from the filtrate.
  A) reabsorption D) excretion
  B) filtration E) none of the above
  C) secretion    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

10. This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate.
  A) reabsorption D) excretion
  B) filtration E) none of the above
  C) secretion    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

11. This layer of filtration membrane is composed of collagen fibers and proteoglycans in a glycoprotein matrix.
  A) glomerular endothelial cells D) filtration slites
  B) basal lamina E) slit membrane
  C) pedicels    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

12. This occurs when stretching triggers contraction of smooth muscle walls in afferent arterioles.
  A) glomerular filtration rate D) renal autoregulation
  B) tubulomerular feedback E) capsular hydrostatic pressure
  C) myogenic mechanism    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

13. In ___________ , a substance passes from the fluid in the tubular lumen through the apical membrane then across the cytosol into the interstitial fluid.
  A) paracellular reabsorption D) basolateral reabsorption
  B) transcellular reabsorption E) active transport
  C) apical reasborption    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

14. Once fluid enters the proximal convoluted tubule:
  A) it is less dense. D) all the Na+ is removed.
  B) it has a higher K+ concentration. E) it is headed to the ascending loop.
  C) it is called tubular fluid.    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

15. The proximal convoluted tubules reabsorb what percentage of filtered water?
  A)  25%    B)  50%    C)  65%    D)  80%    E)  99%
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

16. Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
  A) It increases GFR
  B) It can decrease GFR
  C) It enhances reabsorption of certain ions
  D) It stimulates the release of aldosterone
  E) None of the above
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

17. Increased secretion of aldosterone would result in a ___________ of blood ____________ .
  A) increase, potassium D) decrease, pH
  B) decrease, volume E) increase, sodium
  C) increase, calcium levels    
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

18. This structure transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
  A) Urethra D) Renal hilus
  B) Ureter E) None of the above
  C) Descending loop of Henle    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  easy

 

19. This layer of the ureter is composed of transitional epithelium.
  A) Mucosa D) Adventitia
  B) Transitional epithelium E) Lamina elastica
  C) Lamina propria    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

20. This structure lies in the anterior corner of the trigone of the bladder.
  A) Urethral sphincter D) Internal urethral orifice
  B) Adventitia bundle E) Muscularis bundle
  C) Ureter    
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 21-23:

 

 

21. This structure is composed of dense irregular tissue that runs continuous with the ureter.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  A and B    E)  All of the above
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

22. This layer’s main function is to protect the kidney from trauma and hold it in place within the abdominal cavity.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  A and C    E)  All of the above
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

23. This layer runs deep to the peritoneum and anchors the kidney to the surrounding structures and to the abdominal wall.
  A)  A    B)  B    C)  C    D)  B and C    E)  All of the above
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 24-28:

 

 

24. Identify the cortex.
  A)  A    B)  D    C)  E    D)  F    E)  G
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

25. Where is the renal pelvis?
  A)  B    B)  M    C)  C    D)  D    E)  F
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

26. Each kidney can have anywhere from 8 to 18 of these.
  A)  I    B)  J    C)  K    D)  L    E)  H
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

27. This is where the hilum extends into the kidney.
  A)  E    B)  D    C)  G    D)  K    E)  L
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

28. Which is the location of the nephron?
  A)  H    B)  G    C)  M    D)  K    E)  L
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 29-36:

 

 

29. What two structures comprise the renal corpuscle?
  A)  A and B    B)  C and D    C)  E and F    D)  K and L    E)  N and O
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

30. Where is the distal convoluted tubule?
  A)  D    B)  E    C)  J    D)  K    E)  L
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

31. Where is the arcuate vein?
  A)  E    B)  F    C)  G    D)  H    E)  I
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

32. Where is the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle?
  A)  C    B)  D    C)  J    D)  K    E)  L
  Ans:  E     Difficulty:  medium

 

33. Where is the corticomedullary junction?
  A)  G    B)  J    C)  M    D)  N    E)  O
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

34. Where is the papillary duct?
  A)  C    B)  F    C)  H    D)  N    E)  O
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

35. What does line “M” point to?
  A) Arcuate artery D) Descending loop
  B) Arcuate vein E) Efferent arteriole
  C) Collecting duct    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

36. What is line “C” pointing to?
  A) Distal convoluted tubule D) Arcuate artery
  B) Interlobular artery E) Corticomedullary junction
  C) Efferent arteriole    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

Use the following to answer questions 37-40:

 

 

37. What is line “A” pointing to?
  A) Fenestrations D) Basal lamina
  B) Pedicels E) Lumen of the glomerulus
  C) Filtration slit    
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  medium

 

38. What is line “B” pointing to?
  A) Fenestrations D) Basal lamina
  B) Pedicels E) Lumen of the glomerulus
  C) Filtration slit    
  Ans:  B     Difficulty:  medium

 

39. What is line “C” pointing to?
  A) Fenestrations D) Basal lamina
  B) Pedicels E) Lumen of the glomerulus
  C) Filtration slit    
  Ans:  C     Difficulty:  medium

 

40. What is line “D” pointing to?
  A) Fenestrations D) Basal lamina
  B) Pedicels E) Lumen of the glomerulus
  C) Filtration slit    
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  medium

 

41. The type of body fluid found within the cells is called
  A) plasma. D) intracellular fluid.
  B) extracellular fluid. E) water.
  C) interstitial fluid.    
  Ans:  D     Difficulty:  easy

 

42. Most solutes in body fluids are
  A)  electrolytes.    B)  proteins.    C)  sugars.    D)  amino acids.    E)  lipids.
  Ans:  A     Difficulty:  easy

 

43. Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
  Ans: Kidneys receive 20 to 25% of the resting cardiac output via the renal arteries. The renal arteries branch to form segmental arteries, which branch to form interlobar arteries (through renal columns) to arcuate arteries (over bases of pyramids) to interlobular arteries. The interlobular arteries branch to form afferent arterioles to each nephron. Afferent arterioles branch to form glomerular capillaries where filtration occurs. Glomerular capillaries merge to form efferent arterioles, which then branch to form peritubular capillaries. Juxtamedullary nephrons also have vasa recta capillaries around them. Peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta merge to form interlobular veins to arcuate veins to interlobar veins to segmental veins. Blood exits the kidney via renal veins.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

44. Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor calyx.
  Ans: The water would flow from the afferent arteriole into the glomerulus, where it would be filtered into the glomerular capsule. From the glomerular capsule, it would enter the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). Most of its companion water molecules would be reabsorbed into the blood in the PCT. The next part of the trip would take the water molecule through the descending of the loop of Henle, where more of its companion water molecules would be absorbed. From there, the water molecule would climb the ascending loop of Henle and move into the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). Toward the end of the DCT and most of the collecting duct, there are principal cells that respond to ADH and can absorb more water molecules. If not absorbed in the DCT or the collecting duct, the water molecule would move into the papillary duct that drains into the minor calyx.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

45. Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
  Ans: Endothelial cells of the glomerular capillaries are fenestrated. Their basement membranes are part of the filtering mechanism. Podocytes with filtration slits between pedicels wrap the glomerular capillaries. The large surface area also contributes to filtering ability, as does the high glomerular hydrostatic pressure created by the arrangement of the afferent and efferent arterioles, in which the diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than that of the afferent arteriole.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

46. Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
  Ans: Countercurrent flow refers to the flow of fluid in opposite directions in parallel tubing (tubules and blood vessels). The arrangement allows gradients to develop between tubular fluid, blood, and interstitial fluid. Gradients allow for reabsorption of large amounts of water and ions from the tubular fluid.
  Difficulty:  medium

 

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