Anatomy And Physiology 7th Edition By PattonThibodeau – Test Bank

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Anatomy And Physiology 7th Edition By PattonThibodeau – Test Bank

Patton and Thibodeau: Anatomy & Physiology, 7th Edition

 

Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life

 

Test Bank

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Biochemistry deals with the chemical makeup of living organisms and the underlying process of life activities.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 34

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom determines its atomic mass.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. The positively charged electrons are found in clouds outside the nucleus of an atom.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. Two shared pairs of electrons represent a single covalent bond.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 39           TOP:    Covalent Bonds

 

  1. The digestion of food is an example of a decomposition reaction.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. The number and arrangement of electrons orbiting in an atom’s outer shell determine its chemical activity.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. An atom is chemically inert if its outermost shell has two pairs of electrons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. An isotope of an element contains the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 37

TOP:    Isotopes

 

  1. Electrovalent and ionic bonds are the same.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. Radiation results from the breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Radioactivity

 

  1. Radioactivity can cause an atom of one element to change to that of another element.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Radioactivity

 

  1. Ionizing radiation can be cancer-producing.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Radioactivity

 

  1. A substance that resists changes in pH when acids or bases are added is called a buffer.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 45           TOP:    Buffers

 

  1. The chemical reaction of an acid with a base always produces a salt and water.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 45           TOP:    Salts

 

  1. Water is the universal solvent.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 43

TOP:    Water

 

  1. Electrolytes include acids, bases, and salts.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Electrolytes

 

  1. All inorganic substances are free from carbon.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 42

TOP:    Organic and Inorganic Compounds

 

  1. Electrolytes are characterized by having either a positive or a negative charge.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Electrolytes

 

  1. Acids are electrolytes that produce OH+ ions.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids

 

  1. pH stands for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    The pH Scale

 

  1. Proteins are the most abundant of the carbon-containing compounds in the body.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. Glycogen and starch are both examples of polysaccharides.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Disaccharides and Polysaccharides

 

  1. There are a total of 20 essential amino acids.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. Steroids are often called tissue hormones.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 50           TOP:    Steroids

 

  1. DNA molecules are the largest molecules in the body.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. Adenine and thymine are referred to as purine bases, which are important constituents of a DNA molecule.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. Metabolism includes the processes of both anabolism and catabolism.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 41

TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. The ability of proteins to perform their function depends on their shape.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 56

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. Enzymes are proteins that function by the lock-and-key theory.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 56

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. ATP is broken down in an anabolic reaction.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 41           TOP:    Catabolism

 

  1. Catabolism and anabolism are major types of metabolic activity.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 41

TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. Sodium chloride is an example of an ionic bond.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. The digestion of food is an example of a synthesis reaction.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 40 | Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. The pH scale indicates the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. Litmus paper will turn red in the presence of a base.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is also called the “bad” cholesterol.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 51 (Box 2-2)

TOP:    Blood Lipoproteins

 

  1. The nonessential amino acids cannot be produced from the other amino acids or from simple organic molecules.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. The atomic weight of an atom is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. The mass of a proton is almost exactly equal to the mass of an electron.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 33

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. Hydrogen will react with other atoms to get 8 electrons in its outer energy level.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. A double covalent bond involves the sharing of 2 electrons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 39           TOP:    Covalent Bonds

 

  1. Synthesis reactions release energy for use by the cell.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Electrolytes dissociate to form ions.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Electrolytes

 

  1. As the hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH value increases.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. Sugars and starches are both considered to be carbohydrates.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 46

TOP:    Carbohydrates

 

  1. Glucose is a hexose and ribose is a pentose.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 46

TOP:    Carbohydrates

 

  1. Nonessential amino acids are rarely used in the making of proteins in the human body.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 52           TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. Fats, steroids, and prostaglandins are all considered lipids.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Lipids

 

  1. Fats are composed of three fatty acids joined to a molecule of glycerol.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Triglycerides or Fats

 

  1. Saturated fats are more likely than unsaturated fats to be liquids at room temperature.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 49

TOP:    Triglycerides or Fats

 

  1. Phospholipids have a fat-soluble end and a water-soluble end.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Phospholipids

 

  1. Prostaglandins are associated with the prostate gland and therefore are not found in women.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 51           TOP:    Prostaglandins

 

  1. Chemistry can be defined as the science that deals with the structure, arrangement, and composition of substances and the reactions they undergo.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 34

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The nucleus of the atom will always have a positive charge.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36           TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. If an atom has an atomic number of 12 and an atomic weight of 25, it must have 13 neutrons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. Consider an atom that has an atomic mass of 18. For it to be electrically neutral, it must have 18 electrons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure, Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. Atoms become positively charged by gaining protons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. Inorganic compounds do not play an important role in living systems.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 42

TOP:    Organic and Inorganic Compounds

 

  1. Acids release protons in solution.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids

 

  1. A denatured protein has lost its functional shape.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 56

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. RNA never exists in a double-stranded form.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 58

TOP:    DNA and RNA

 

  1. Glycoproteins contain both a fat molecule and a protein molecule.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 60

TOP:    Combined Forms

 

  1. The terms molecule and compound mean the same thing.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Interaction Between Atoms

 

  1. Four elements are considered to be the major elements in the body.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 35

TOP:    Elements and Compounds

 

  1. Dalton named the atom after the Greek word for invisible.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atoms

 

  1. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 electrons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36           TOP:    Atoms

 

  1. A neutral atom that has 22 protons must have 22 neutrons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36           TOP:    Atoms

 

  1. A neutral atom that has 22 protons could have 25 neutrons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36           TOP:    Atoms

 

  1. Oxygen has 8 electrons, but only 6 of them are in its outermost energy level.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. Hydrogen bonds between atoms do not form molecules or compounds.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 39

TOP:    Attraction Between Molecules

 

  1. According to the general formula, in synthesis reactions, the number of reactants is usually greater than the number of products.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. According to the general formula, in decomposition reactions, the number of reactants is usually greater than the number of products.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40 | Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. According to the general formula, in exchange reactions, the number of reactants and the number of products are usually equal.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. A solution with a pH of 6 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 4.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    The pH Scale

 

  1. A solution with a pH of 3 has 100 times more hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 5.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    The pH Scale

 

  1. A sucrose molecule is formed by the synthesis reaction between glucose and fructose.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Disaccharides and Polysaccharides

 

  1. The quaternary structure of a protein contains more than one polypeptide chain.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 55

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. Both phospholipids and steroids are found in cell membranes.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Phospholipids and Steroids

 

  1. Steroids are the only lipid that contains a ring structure.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Prostaglandins

 

  1. Nucleotides are only used to make RNA or DNA molecules.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 58

TOP:    Nucleotides and Related Molecules

 

  1. The distance between the sugar-phosphate structures in a DNA molecule is equal to the distance of one purine and one pyrimidine molecule.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 57           TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. When ATP is in short supply, muscles can use creatine phosphate for extra energy.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 59

TOP:    Nucleotides and Related Molecules

 

  1. Because oxygen has 8 electrons, it has achieved its octet and will not react with other elements.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. Both triglycerides and prostaglandins can contain a saturated fat.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 49 | Page 50

TOP:    Triglycerides and Prostaglandins

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Which of the following represents a trace element in the body?
A. Sulfur
B. Chlorine
C. Iron
D. Phosphorus

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 35

TOP:    Basic Chemistry

 

  1. The kind of element is determined by the number of:
A. proton.
B. neutrons.
C. mesotrons.
D. electrons.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. Atomic weight is determined by the number of:
A. protons and electrons.
B. neutrons and electrons.
C. neutrons, protons, and electrons.
D. protons and neutrons.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of electrons found in the first shell is:
A. 2.
B. 4.
C. 6.
D. 8.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37 (Figure 2-6)

TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37 (Figure 2-6)

TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n):
A. orbital.
B. proton.
C. neutron.
D. electron.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share:
A. electrons.
B. protons.
C. neutrons.
D. nuclei.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Attraction Between Atoms: Chemical Bonds

 

  1. An ionic bond is formed by:
A. two or more positive ions combining.
B. two or more negative ions combining.
C. a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.
D. sharing of a pair of electrons.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. An example of an element would be:
A. Ne.
B. CO2.
C. C6H12O6.
D. H2O.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 34

TOP:    Elements and Compounds

 

  1. An isotope of an element contains a different number of ____ than other atoms of the same element.
A. electrons
B. protons
C. neutrons
D. protons and neutrons

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Isotopes

 

  1. Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 37 (Figure 2-6)

TOP:    Attraction Between Atoms: Chemical Bonds

 

  1. The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of:
A. one proton.
B. one proton and one neutron.
C. two protons and one neutron.
D. one proton and two neutrons.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38 (Figure 2-7)

TOP:    Isotopes

 

  1. Which of the following bonds are the weakest?
A. Ionic bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Electrovalent bonds
D. Covalent bonds

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 39

TOP:    Hydrogen Bonds

 

  1. The type of reaction in which substances are combined to form more complex substances is called a(n):
A. reversible reaction.
B. exchange reaction.
C. synthesis reaction.
D. decomposition reaction.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction?
A. Synthesis
B. Decomposition
C. Exchange
D. Reversible

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40 | Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Substances that accept hydrogen ions are called:
A. acids.
B. bases.
C. buffers.
D. salts.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Bases

 

  1. Acids:
A. are proton donors.
B. taste sour.
C. release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution.
D. are all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids

 

  1. A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) than hydrogen ions (H+) is a(n):
A. acidic solution.
B. alkaline (basic) solution.
C. neutral solution.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Bases

 

  1. In the presence of a base, red litmus paper will:
A. stay red.
B. turn blue.
C. turn green.
D. turn yellow.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is/are:
A. air.
B. water.
C. proteins.
D. nucleic acids.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 42

TOP:    Water

 

  1. Approximately what percentage of body weight is water?
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 42

TOP:    Water

 

  1. AB + CD  AD + CB is an example of a(n):
A. synthesis reaction.
B. exchange reaction.
C. decomposition reaction.
D. reversible reaction.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Which of the following represent(s) properties of water?
A. Cohesion
B. High heat of vaporization
C. Strong polarity
D. All of the above

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 43

TOP:    Properties of Water

 

  1. The approximate pH of gastric fluid is:
A. 10.
B. 8.
C. 4.
D. 2.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 45 (Figure 2-15)                         TOP:    The pH Scale

 

  1. Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body?
A. Proteins
B. Salts
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic acids

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 46

TOP:    Organic Molecules

 

  1. The enzyme lactase catalyzes the chemical reaction that changes lactose to:
A. glucose only.
B. glucose and fructose.
C. fructose and galactose.
D. glucose and galactose.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 56 (Table 2-6)

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. Peptide bonds join together molecules of:
A. glycerol.
B. glucose.
C. amino acids.
D. water.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 52           TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. Vitamin D functions to:
A. form retinol.
B. increase calcium uptake.
C. promote wound healing.
D. aid in the synthesis of blood clotting proteins.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 48 (Table 2-5)

TOP:    Lipids

 

  1. All of the following substances are organic except:
A. lipids.
B. electrolytes.
C. carbohydrates.
D. proteins.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 46

TOP:    Organic Molecules

 

  1. The simple sugars that are the building blocks for other carbohydrates are:
A. disaccharides.
B. monosaccharides.
C. polysaccharides.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Carbohydrates

 

  1. The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is:
A. carbon.
B. hydrogen.
C. oxygen.
D. nitrogen.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 46 | Page 52

TOP:    Carbohydrates and Proteins

 

  1. The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called:
A. hydrolysis.
B. oxidation.
C. decomposition.
D. dehydration synthesis.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 42           TOP:    Anabolism

 

  1. Humans can synthesize 12 of 20 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called:
A. enzymes.
B. essential amino acids.
C. structural proteins.
D. peptide bonds.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 52           TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. The basic building blocks of fats are:
A. monosaccharides.
B. disaccharides.
C. amino acids.
D. fatty acids and glycerol.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48

TOP:    Triglycerides or Fats

 

  1. A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a:
A. triglyceride.
B. phospholipid.
C. steroid.
D. both B and C.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Phospholipids and Steroids

 

  1. DNA:
A. is a single strand of nucleotides.
B. contains the sugar ribose.
C. is the heredity molecule.
D. transports amino acids during protein synthesis.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 57 | Page 58

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. The study of metabolism includes examination of:
A. catabolism.
B. anabolism.
C. ATP requirements.
D. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 41

TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. The bonds that exist between phosphate groups of the ATP molecule are:
A. hydrogen bonds.
B. high-energy bonds.
C. covalent bonds.
D. both B and C.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 41 | Page 42

TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. The type of lipoprotein associated with cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is:
A. HDL.
B. LDL.
C. VLDL.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 51 (Box 2-2)

TOP:    Formation of Triglycerides

 

  1. The type of lipid found in sex hormones is:
A. triglycerides.
B. phosphoglycerides.
C. steroids.
D. prostaglandins.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 50           TOP:    Steroids

 

  1. Which of the following is not one of the three major ingredients of a DNA molecule?
A. Sugar
B. Nitrogenous bases
C. Phosphate
D. Lipid

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. Which of the following is not one of the major elements present in the human body?
A. Oxygen
B. Zinc
C. Carbon
D. Potassium

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 35 (Table 2-1)

TOP:    Basic Chemistry

 

  1. Which of the following is not a subatomic particle?
A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Radon
D. Neutron

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. The total number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the number of:
A. neutrons orbiting the atom.
B. protons plus the number of neutrons in its nucleus.
C. protons in its nucleus.
D. ions in its nucleus.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. An atom can be described as chemically inert if its outermost electron shell contains:
A. 8 electrons.
B. 9 electrons.
C. 2 electrons.
D. both A and C.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the:
A. sharing of electrons between molecules.
B. donation of protons from one atom to another.
C. transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
D. acceptance of neutrons from one atom to another.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. Chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons are called:
A. ionic.
B. covalent.
C. hydrogen.
D. isotopic.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Covalent Bonds

 

  1. The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is:
A. synthesis reaction.
B. decomposition reaction.
C. exchange reaction.
D. All of the above reactions are equally likely to require energy.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Proteins are composed of ____ commonly occurring amino acids.
A. 10
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. Amino acids frequently become joined by:
A. peptide bonds.
B. catabolic reactions.
C. atrophic reactions.
D. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 52           TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. The elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up which percentage of the human body?
A. 50%
B. 69%
C. 78%
D. 96%

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 35

TOP:    Elements and Compounds

 

  1. Which subatomic particles carry a charge?
A. Protons and neutrons
B. Neutrons and electrons
C. Protons and electrons
D. Only neutrons carry a charge.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. The element oxygen has an atomic number of 8, which means it contains:
A. 4 protons and 4 neutrons.
B. 8 protons.
C. 8 neutrons.
D. 4 protons and 4 electrons.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. For sodium to go from a neutral atom to a positive ion, it must:
A. gain an electron.
B. gain a proton.
C. lose an electron.
D. lose a proton.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. A molecule that is polar:
A. can form a hydrogen bond.
B. must be ionic.
C. has an unequal charge.
D. is both A and C above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 39           TOP:    Hydrogen Bonds

 

  1. The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a:
A. hydrogen bond.
B. synthesis reaction.
C. decomposition reaction.
D. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Electrolytes are:
A. organic compounds.
B. called cations if they have a negative charge.
C. called cations if they have a positive charge.
D. both A and B.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Electrolytes

 

  1. A weak acid:
A. dissociates very little in solution.
B. dissociates almost completely in solution.
C. will cause the pH of the solution to rise above 7.
D. Both B and C

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. Salts:
A. can form as the result of a chemical reaction between acids and bases.
B. are electrolytes.
C. will form crystals if the water is removed.
D. are all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 45           TOP:    Salts

 

  1. Hydrolysis:
A. joins compounds by removing a water molecule.
B. breaks down compounds by removing a water molecule.
C. joins compounds by adding a water molecule.
D. breaks down compounds by adding a water molecule.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 54 (Figure 2-27)                         TOP:    Amino Acids

 

  1. Unsaturated fats:
A. contain all the hydrogen atoms they can hold.
B. contain only single bonds between carbon atoms.
C. are usually solids at room temperature.
D. will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 48 | Page 49

TOP:    Triglycerides or Fats

 

  1. As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the:
A. solution becomes more basic.
B. solution becomes more acidic.
C. pH rises.
D. both A and C.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH) increases, the:
A. solution becomes more basic.
B. solution becomes more acidic.
C. pH rises.
D. both A and C.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”?
A. Triglyceride
B. Prostaglandin
C. Steroid
D. Phospholipid

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Prostaglandins

 

  1. A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This atom would contain:
A. 12 protons, 25 neutrons, and 2 electrons.
B. 12 protons, 13 neutrons, and 14 electrons.
C. 12 protons, 13 neutrons, and 10 electrons.
D. Not enough information is given to answer the question.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 36           TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. The octet rule refers to:
A. the stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of 8.
B. the stability of the atom when there are 8 electrons in the outermost energy level.
C. the stable configuration of the nucleus when there are 8 more neutrons than protons.
D. the principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of 8 other atoms.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. The type of reaction most likely to release energy is a(n):
A. synthesis reaction.
B. decomposition reaction.
C. exchange reaction.
D. all of the above reactions are equally likely to release energy.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 40

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Which of the following is not true about oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A. They are both important organic compounds.
B. Molecular oxygen is present as O2 in the body.
C. Oxygen is needed for energy release in cellular respiration.
D. Carbon dioxide is important in maintaining the proper acid-base balance in the body.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide

 

  1. A solution with a pH of 4 has:
A. 10 times more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
B. 10 times more OH ions than a solution with a pH of 6.
C. 100 times more H+ ions that a solution with a pH of 6.
D. 100 times more OH ions than a solution with a pH of 6.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    The pH Scale

 

  1. The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 54

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of RNA?
A. It contains ribose sugar.
B. It contains adenine.
C. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.
D. All of the above are true of RNA.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    DNA and RNA

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of all isotopes of oxygen?
A. They can all react with two hydrogen atoms to form water.
B. They have the same number of protons.
C. They have the same atomic mass.
D. All of the above are true of isotopes of oxygen.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 37           TOP:    Isotopes

 

  1. Hydrogen bonds are important in the attractive forces between:
A. water molecules.
B. large protein molecules.
C. nucleic acids.
D. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 39 | Page 40

TOP:    Hydrogen Bonds

 

  1. A strong acid:
A. holds on strongly to its hydrogen atoms, releasing very few in solution.
B. would cause a drop in the pH of a solution.
C. would cause a rise in the pH of a solution.
D. is both A and C above.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Acids

 

  1. Which of the following is not a function of protein?
A. Provides structure for the body
B. Acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions
C. Provides energy for the body
D. All of the above are functions of protein

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 54

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. Which level of protein structure is one that contains several polypeptide chains?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 55

TOP:    Levels of Protein Structure

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids?
A. They both contain glycerol.
B. They both contain fatty acids.
C. They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
D. All of the above are true of both triglycerides and phospholipids.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 48 | Page 50

TOP:    Triglycerides and Phospholipids

 

  1. Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics?
A. Both are found in the cell membrane.
B. Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
C. Both have a saturated fat in their structure.
D. None of the above are shared characteristics.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 50 | Page 51

TOP:    Steroids and Prostaglandins

 

  1. Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide?
A. FAD
B. Creatine phosphate
C. NAD
D. ATP

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 58 | Page 59

TOP:    Nucleotides and Related Molecules

 

  1. The twisted, double-strand arrangement of nucleotides in a DNA molecule is a(n):
A. deoxyribose.
B. double helix.
C. guanine.
D. uracil.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 57           TOP:    RNA and DNA

 

  1. If the pH of a person’s blood was 7.4, it would be described as:
A. strongly acidic.
B. neutral.
C. slightly acidic.
D. slightly alkaline.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 44           TOP:    Bases

 

  1. When sodium (Na) gives up an electron to chlorine, the result is the formation of a sodium ion (Na+) with a positive charge. This happens because there is then:
A. one more proton (+) than electron (–).
B. one more electron (–) than proton (–).
C. one more proton (+) than neutron.
D. one more electron (–) than neutron.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. If an atom with nine (9) electrons was to ionically bond with an atom with three (3) electrons, what would occur?
A. The atom with 9 electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom.
B. The atom with 9 electrons would lose one of its electrons, and the atom with three electrons would accept it.
C. The atom with 9 electrons would accept one of the electrons from the atom with 3 electrons.
D. The atom with 3 electrons would share one of its electrons with the other atom.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38           TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called:
A. buffers.
B. inorganic molecules.
C. organic molecules.
D. salts.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 42

TOP:    Organic and Inorganic Compounds

 

  1. The term that is used to describe all of the chemical reactions that occur in body cells is:
A. catabolism.
B. metabolism.
C. synthesis.
D. anabolism.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 41           TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. If your physician encourages you to take a daily aspirin, it is likely because aspirin can increase prostaglandin synthesis and play a:
A. therapeutic role in preventing abnormal blood clots.
B. therapeutic role in preventing abnormal blood clots.
C. role in preventing the accumulation of cholesterol in the arteries.
D. role in preventing the accumulation of cholesterol in the arteries.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 51           TOP:    Prostaglandin

 

  1. When your body is building larger and more complex chemical molecules from smaller subunits, what is occurring?
A. Anabolic reactions that expend energy
B. Anabolic reactions that require energy
C. Catabolic reactions that expend energy
D. Catabolic reactions that require energy

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 42           TOP:    Metabolism

 

MATCHING

 

Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase.

A. proton
B. neutron
C. electron
D. isotopes
E. ionic bonds
F. covalent bonds
G. Octet rule
H. atomic number
I. atomic weight
J. hydrogen bonds

 

 

  1. number of protons an atom has

 

  1. subatomic particle with no charge

 

  1. bond formed between atoms when they share electrons

 

  1. subatomic particle with a positive charge

 

  1. atoms with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons

 

  1. value determined by adding the number of protons and neutrons in an atom

 

  1. bond that requires a polar molecule

 

  1. subatomic particle that has a negative charge and is found in a “cloud” surrounding the nucleus of the atom

 

  1. bond that is formed by the transfer of an electron from one atom to another

 

  1. reaction of an atom that results in 8 electrons in the outer energy level

 

  1. ANS:   H                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Covalent Bonds

 

  1. ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 37

TOP:    Isotopes

 

  1. ANS:   I                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Number and Atomic Weight

 

  1. ANS:   J                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 39

TOP:    Hydrogen Bonds

 

  1. ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36

TOP:    Atomic Structure

 

  1. ANS:   E                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 38

TOP:    Ionic Bonds

 

  1. ANS:   G                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36 | Page 37

TOP:    Energy Levels

 

Match each term to its corresponding descriptive phrase.

A. acid
B. base
C. RNA
D. DNA
E. carbohydrate
F. fat
G. steroid
H. protein
I. prostaglandins
J. ATP

 

 

  1. substance composed of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules

 

  1. releases a hydrogen ion into a solution, which lowers the pH

 

  1. starch or sugar

 

  1. releases a hydroxide ion into solution, which raises the pH

 

  1. lipid found in sex hormones that is made up of four rings

 

  1. types of lipids that are called tissue hormones

 

  1. molecule that is the body’s usual source of direct energy

 

  1. nucleic acid that contains thymine and deoxyribose sugar

 

  1. substance that is made up of a long chain of amino acids

 

  1. nucleic acid that contains ribose sugar and uracil

 

  1. ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 48 | Page 49

TOP:    Triglycerides or Fats

 

  1. ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. ANS:   E                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 46

TOP:    Carbohydrates

 

  1. ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 44

TOP:    Acids and Bases

 

  1. ANS:   G                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Steroids

 

  1. ANS:   I                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 50

TOP:    Prostaglandins

 

  1. ANS:   J                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 41 | Page 42

TOP:    Metabolism

 

  1. ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. ANS:   H                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 52

TOP:    Proteins

 

  1. ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57

TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. Describe the Bohr model of the atom.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 36 | Page 37

TOP:    Energy Levels

 

  1. Name and briefly describe the type of chemical bonds discussed in this chapter.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 38 | Page 40

TOP:    Covalent Bonds, Ionic of Electrovalent Bonds, Hydrogen Bonds

 

  1. List the four types of lipids and give a function for each type.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 48 | Page 51                               TOP:    Lipids

 

  1. Explain the different functions performed by RNA in the cell.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 57 | Page 58

TOP:    DNA and RNA

 

  1. Explain the three types of chemical reactions discussed in this chapter and give the formula for each.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 40 | Page 41

TOP:    Chemical Reactions

 

  1. Explain the body’s reaction to a shortage of ATP as an energy source for the cell.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 58 | Page 59

TOP:    Nucleotides and Related Molecules

 

  1. Explain why the properties of water are important in the functioning of the body.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 43           TOP:    Properties of Water

 

  1. Explain the role of buffers in maintaining the proper environment in which the body can function.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 45           TOP:    Buffers

 

OTHER

 

  1. Challenge: If one side of a DNA molecule is A-T-C-G-G-T-C-A-G, what would the bases be on the other side of the molecule?

 

ANS:

T-A-G-C-C-A-G-T-C

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 57 | Page 58                               TOP:    Nucleic Acids

 

  1. Challenge: Enzymes that are exposed to high heat or low pH solutions lose their ability to function. What causes this to happen? Be specific.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 56           TOP:    Proteins

 

Patton and Thibodeau: Anatomy & Physiology, 7th Edition

 

Chapter 14: Peripheral Nervous System

 

Test Bank

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Each optic nerve contains fibers from both retinas.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 466         TOP:    Optic Nerve (II)

 

  1. Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 469

TOP:    Abducens Nerve (VI)

 

  1. The vagus nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 471

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Injury to the sixth cranial nerve causes the eye to turn in because of paralysis of the abducting muscle of the eye.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 470 (Box 14-5)                          TOP:    Cranial Nerve Damage

 

  1. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, all of which consist of both motor and sensory fibers.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. A herpes zoster (shingles) outbreak usually affects more than one dermatome pattern on the skin.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-4)                          TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. Trigeminal neuralgia, or tic douloureux, is characterized by stabbing pain radiating from the eyes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 468 (Box 14-4)                          TOP:    Trigeminal Neuralgia

 

  1. The ventral rami of all spinal nerves subdivide to form complex networks called plexuses.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Each spinal nerve attaches to the spinal cord by means of two short roots—a ventral root and a dorsal root.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The phrenic nerve is contained in the brachial plexus.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 460         TOP:    Cervical Plexus

 

  1. Any disease or injury that damages the spinal cord between the third and fifth cervical segments also paralyzes the phrenic nerve and, therefore, the diaphragm.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 460 (Box 14-2)                          TOP:    Phrenic Nerves

 

  1. A dermatome is the skin surface area supplied by a single spinal nerve.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 462

TOP:    Dermatomes and Myotomes

 

  1. Approximately 3% of the population will suffer from shingles at some time in their lives.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-3)                          TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. Somatic reflexes are contractions of smooth muscles.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. At all stages of development, a positive Babinski reflex always means destruction of pyramidal tract fibers.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Somatic motor pathways are similar to autonomic pathways in that the neurotransmitter may be either acetylcholine or norepinephrine.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 473 | Page 480

TOP:    Somatic Motor Pathways, Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Effectors that have single innervation by the autonomic nervous system are innervated only by the parasympathetic division.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Most effectors of the autonomic system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Sensory neurons can operate in autonomic reflex arcs.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475 | Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Preganglionic neurons conduct impulses from the brain or spinal cord to an autonomic ganglion.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Conduction to autonomic effectors requires only one efferent neuron.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 475 | Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Sympathetic responses are usually widespread, involving many organ systems at once.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 477

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. The parasympathetic division is also called the thoracolumbar division.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways

 

  1. The effect of a neurotransmitter on any postsynaptic cell is determined by the characteristics of the receptor, not the neurotransmitter.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 480 | Page 481                           TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on sweat glands.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6) TOP:               Autonomic Functions

 

  1. The sympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 484

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Nicotinic receptors are located on the dendrites of all preganglionic neurons of both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 482

TOP:    Acetylcholine and Its Receptors

 

  1. Each spinal nerve branches into three rami: a ventral branch, a dorsal branch, and an autonomic or visceral branch.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System

 

  1. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber will always synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Some parasympathetic postganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in nuclei in the brainstem.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 478

TOP:    Parasympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. The neurotransmitter released by both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons is acetylcholine.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Axon terminals that secrete acetylcholine are called cholinergic terminals.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that enhances the action of norepinephrine.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 482

TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Acetylcholine affects visceral effectors by first binding to alpha receptors.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 482

TOP:    Acetylcholine and Its Receptors

 

  1. Both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic divisions continually conduct impulses to visceral effectors.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. An effect of sympathetic stimulation on the eye is constriction of the pupil.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6) TOP:               Autonomic Functions

 

  1. Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic stimulation.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6) TOP:               Autonomic Functions

 

  1. The “fight-or-flight” reaction is a normal response in times of stress.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 484

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Under normal, nonstressful conditions, the parasympathetic division is dominant.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. Hormones released from the adrenal medulla produce effects similar to those of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 484

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 484 (Box 14-9)                          TOP:    Biofeedback

 

  1. The autonomic nervous system is a part of the CNS but operates autonomously.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System

 

  1. The spinal root that possesses a swelling is the dorsal root.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The dorsal root ganglion contains motor neuron cell bodies.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. There are 28 pairs of spinal nerves.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Herpes zoster is a unique viral infection that almost always affects the skin of a single dermatome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-3)                          TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. Myotome is a term referring to a skeletal muscle group innervated by motor neuron axons from a given spinal nerve.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 462

TOP:    Dermatomes and Myotomes

 

  1. The sacral plexus is found deep within the shoulder.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. Skeletal muscles are somatic effectors.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. The Babinski reflex is evoked via stimulation of the outer sole of the foot and will cause a normal infant to extend the great toe.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475         TOP:    Plantar Reflex

 

  1. Amines are the neurotransmitter in a somatic motor pathway.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. Autonomic effectors require two efferent neurons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The sympathetic chain and sympathetic rami refer to the same structure.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of the body at rest.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons begin within the brain.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. The peripheral nervous system includes cranial nerves.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The peripheral nervous system consists of 43 pairs of nerves and their branches.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 456         TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The peripheral nervous system contains only efferent nerves.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. Even though there are only seven cervical vertebra, that region generates eight cranial nerves.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The nerves emerging from the lower lumbar and sacral regions branch from a structure called the cauda equina, not the spinal cord itself.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The spinal ganglion is located on the ventral nerve root.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Branches of the dorsal ramus innervate the skin and muscles of the posterior surface of the head, neck, and trunk.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Nerve plexuses of the thoracic region innervate the abdominal organs.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Nerve Plexuses

 

  1. The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Nerve Plexuses | Brachial Plexus

 

  1. There is almost no overlap in the dermatomes of the body.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 462

TOP:    Dermatomes and Myotomes

 

  1. Based on the numbering system of the cranial nerves, cranial nerve XI would be more anterior than cranial nerve III.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 464

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Most “motor” cranial nerves carry proprioceptive sensory fibers.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 464

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. The cochlear nerve is composed of axons that originate in the organ of Corti.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 470 (Box 14-5)                          TOP:    Vestibulocochlear Nerve

 

  1. The vestibulocochlear nerve is sometimes called the acoustic nerve.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 470 (Box 14-5)                          TOP:    Vestibulocochlear Nerve

 

  1. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies fibers to the carotid sinus, which has a role in the control of blood pressure.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 471

TOP:    Glossopharyngeal Nerve

 

  1. Because the vagus nerve sends many fibers to the abdominal organs, it was given the name vagus, which means visceral.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 471

TOP:    Vagus Nerve (X)

 

  1. The accessory nerve can be considered a helper and accessory to the vagus nerve.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 472

TOP:    Accessory Nerve (XI)

 

  1. Reflexes are always unconscious or involuntary.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. A reflex always includes a muscle contraction or a gland secretion.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. The final efferent organ of the knee jerk reflex is the quadriceps femoris muscle.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 474

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. If a reflex causes cardiac muscle to contract, it can be either a somatic or an autonomic reflex.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. The plantar reflex consists of a curling under of all the toes, plus a slight turning in and flexion of the anterior part of the foot.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. The plantar reflex and Babinski reflex are brought about by the same stimulus.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. In most cases, the effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system are antagonistic to each other.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar in that they both have two efferent neurons between the central nervous system and the effector organ.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The gray ramus consists of postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. The autonomic nervous system functions independently of the cerebral cortex.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 | Page 484

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy in the United States is diabetes mellitus.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 456 (Box 14-1)                          TOP:    Peripheral Neuropathy

 

  1. If you have never had chickenpox, it is unlikely that you will get shingles.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-3)

TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. A new theory of autonomic neurotransmission says that most postganglionic fibers release two substances to transmit an impulse.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 482 (Box 14-8)                          TOP:    NANC Transmission

 

  1. There is one more thoracic spinal nerve than there are thoracic vertebrae.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. When referring to a spinal nerve, the terms dorsal root and dorsal ramus refer to the same structure.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The term plexus comes from the Latin word meaning braid.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Nerve Plexuses

 

  1. Thoracic spinal nerves are the only segment of spinal nerves that do not participate in a plexus.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Brachial Plexus

 

  1. The last spinal nerve is Cx 1 (from the coccyx), which joins with sacral spinal nerves to form the coccygeal plexus.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. Only spinal nerves from the sacrum form the sacral plexus.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. Because the distribution of nerves to skeletal muscle is arranged into specific myotomes, a skeletal muscle can be innervated by axons from only one spinal nerve.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 462

TOP:    Dermatomes and Myotomes

 

  1. It would be normal to find a functioning Babinski reflex in an infant as young as 4 months old.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Plantar Reflex

 

  1. The corneal reflex refers to the eye reducing the size of the pupil in response to bright light.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Corneal Reflex

 

  1. Efferent neurons carry information away from the central nervous system; afferent neurons carry information towards the central nervous system.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The nerves from the cervical plexus innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Brachial Plexus

 

  1. The largest nerve of the body, the sciatic nerve, has its source in the sacral plexus.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. The olfactory nerve, the optic nerve, and the oculomotor nerve are the only cranial nerves that do not come from the brainstem.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 464

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. All reflexes have their interneurons in the spinal cord.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. The postganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems produce acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 477

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. A short postganglionic neuron is a characteristic of the parasympathetic neuron.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 478

TOP:    Parasympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. The somatic motor pathway has two neurons between the central nervous system and the effecter organs, just as the autonomic system does.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. A sympathetic preganglionic neuron usually synapses with only one postganglionic neuron.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 477

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Nicotinic receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 482

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Alpha receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine, whereas beta receptors are stimulated by norepinephrine.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. All of the following cranial nerves have a functional classification of motor except:
A. oculomotor.
B. trochlear.
C. vestibulocochlear.
D. accessory.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 464 (Table 14-2) TOP:               Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the ____ nerve.
A. trigeminal
B. vagus
C. abducens
D. olfactory

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 468 (Box 14-4)                          TOP:    Trigeminal Neuralgia

 

  1. The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the:
A. ninth cranial.
B. tenth cranial.
C. eleventh cranial.
D. twelfth cranial.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 471

TOP:    Vagus Nerve (X)

 

  1. Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue?
A. Olfactory
B. Trigeminal
C. Trochlear
D. Hypoglossal

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 472

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the:
A. vagus.
B. hypoglossal.
C. accessory.
D. abducens.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 467 | Page 472 (Table 14-3)       TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Which of the following is not a plexus of the spinal nerves?
A. Cervical
B. Brachial
C. Lumbar
D. Thoracic

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 459 (Table 14-1) TOP:               Nerve Plexuses

 

  1. The cervical plexus:
A. is found deep in the neck.
B. is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical nerves and part of C5.
C. includes the phrenic nerve.
D. All of the above are correct.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Cervical Plexus

 

  1. Which plexus contains nerves that innervate the lower part of the shoulder and the entire arm?
A. Brachial
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Brachial Plexus

 

  1. The sensory cranial nerves include only the:
A. optic, vestibulocochlear, and vagus.
B. olfactory, optic, and facial.
C. olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear.
D. optic, facial, and vestibulocochlear.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 464 (Table 14-2) TOP:               Cranial Nerves

 

  1. The cranial nerve that arises from both the brain and spinal cord is the:
A. abducens.
B. accessory.
C. glossopharyngeal.
D. vagus.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 472

TOP:    Accessory Nerve (XI)

 

  1. Nerve impulses over the ____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.
A. olfactory
B. trigeminal
C. vagus
D. hypoglossal

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 470 (Box 14-3)                          TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. The spinal nerves are connected to the spinal cord and consist of:
A. 12 pairs.
B. 21 pairs.
C. 31 pairs.
D. 41 pairs.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Which of the following is true about spinal nerves? They are:
A. only sensory fibers.
B. only motor fibers.
C. completely autonomic fibers.
D. motor and sensory fibers.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. A mixed nerve is one that:
A. goes both to the skin surface and to the viscera.
B. has its pathway mixed with other nerves.
C. carries both sensory and motor fibers.
D. carries large and small motor fibers.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Damage to the ____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function.
A. phrenic
B. axillary
C. radial
D. medial cutaneous

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 460 (Box 14-2)                          TOP:    Phrenic Nerves

 

  1. The phrenic nerve is found in the:
A. cervical plexus.
B. brachial plexus.
C. lumbar plexus.
D. sacral plexus.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Cervical Plexus

 

  1. Which is/are the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Amines
C. Amino acids
D. Neuropeptides

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the:
A. sacral plexus.
B. cervical plexus.
C. coccygeal plexus.
D. lumbar plexus.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Sacral Plexus and Coccygeal Plexus

 

  1. The knee jerk may be classified as a segmental reflex because:
A. the center of the reflex arc lies in the spinal cord gray matter.
B. impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord.
C. the impulses that mediate it come from and go to the same side of the body.
D. of the kind of stimulation used to evoke it.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 474

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. Somatic reflexes consist of:
A. contractions of smooth muscle.
B. contractions of cardiac muscle.
C. glandular contractions.
D. contractions of skeletal muscles.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex?
A. It is a flexor reflex.
B. It is an ipsilateral reflex.
C. It is a spinal cord reflex.
D. It does not have to involve the brain.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 474

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of:
A. 1 1/2 years.
B. 2 years.
C. 2 1/2 years.
D. 3 years.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Somatic Reflexes of Clinical Importance

 

  1. Which generalization concerning the autonomic nervous system is not true?
A. All of its axons are afferent fibers.
B. It operates without conscious control.
C. It regulates visceral activities.
D. All of its neurons are motor.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Which of the following would not be an effecter of the autonomic nervous system?
A. Skeletal muscles
B. Blood vessels
C. Sweat glands
D. Iris of the eye

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 475 (Box 14-6)                          TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except:
A. direction of information flow.
B. location of peripheral fibers.
C. number of neurons between CNS and effector.
D. acetylcholine.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 476 (Table 14-4)

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. The autonomic nervous system functions chiefly in the:
A. coordination of muscular activity.
B. innervation of smooth muscle in the viscera.
C. reception of sensory impulses.
D. arousal of alerting mechanism.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:
A. synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron.
B. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia.
C. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing.
D. All of the above are correct.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:
A. they reach visceral effectors faster than parasympathetic impulses.
B. myoneural junctions contain a substance that inactivates acetylcholine.
C. preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long.
D. preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 477

TOP:    Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways

 

  1. Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in:
A. the white columns of the sacral segments of the spinal cord.
B. the lateral gray columns of thoracic segments of the spinal cord.
C. nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord.
D. collateral ganglia.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 478

TOP:    Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation?
A. Constriction of the bronchioles
B. Decreased secretion of the pancreas
C. Constriction of the urinary sphincters
D. Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6)

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except:
A. contraction of the urinary bladder.
B. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract.
C. increased salivation.
D. increased heart rate.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6)

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. “Fight-or-flight” physiological changes include all of the following except:
A. increased conversion of glycogen into glucose.
B. constriction of respiratory airways.
C. increased sweating.
D. dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 485 (Table 14-7)

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except:
A. they secrete acetylcholine.
B. they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.
C. dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of thoracic and the first four lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
D. All of the above are correct.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways

 

  1. Norepinephrine is liberated at:
A. the dendrite ending.
B. parasympathetic preganglionic nerve endings.
C. most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
D. sympathetic preganglionic nerve endings.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Beta receptors:
A. are cholinergic.
B. bind acetylcholine.
C. bind norepinephrine.
D. bind the toxin muscarine.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. Propranolol is an example of a:
A. beta blocker.
B. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats.
C. drug used to treat hypertension.
D. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 481 (Box 14-7)                          TOP:    Beta Blockers

 

  1. A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of:
A. the parasympathetic nervous system.
B. the sympathetic nervous system.
C. both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems.
D. None of the above would account for the symptoms.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 485 (Table 14-7)

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Which of the following might occur from the stimulation of parasympathetic fibers?
A. Goose pimples
B. Dilation of blood vessels to skeletal muscles
C. Increased blood sugar
D. Increased peristalsis in the digestive tract

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6)

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except:
A. sweat glands.
B. skin blood vessels.
C. liver.
D. urinary bladder.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6)

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. All of the following are examples of sympathetic stimulation except:
A. decreased secretion in the pancreas.
B. constriction of the urinary sphincters.
C. constriction of the bronchioles.
D. dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6) TOP:               Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except:
A. contraction of the urinary bladder.
B. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract.
C. increased secretion of saliva.
D. increased rate and strength of contraction of cardiac muscle.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483 (Table 14-6)

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time.
B. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers.
C. The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
D. Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Synthesis        REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. There are 7 cervical nerve pairs.
B. There are 11 thoracic nerve pairs.
C. There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs.
D. All of the above are correct statements.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The lumbar plexus gives rise to the:
A. median nerve.
B. phrenic nerve.
C. femoral nerve.
D. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Lumbar Plexus

 

  1. Beta receptors bind with:
A. acetylcholine.
B. norepinephrine.
C. the toxin muscarine.
D. none of the above.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. The peripheral nervous system includes:
A. only spinal nerves.
B. only spinal nerves and their branches.
C. only cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches.
D. cranial nerves, the spinal cord, spinal nerves, and their branches.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The peripheral nervous system includes:
A. autonomic nerves.
B. sensory nerves.
C. somatic nerves.
D. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. Which part of the vertebral column has one more pair of nerves coming from it than it has vertebra?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Both B and C

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Which is not true of the ventral nerve root?
A. It is also called the anterior root.
B. It contains the spinal ganglion.
C. It includes motor neurons.
D. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root?
A. It is also called the posterior root.
B. It includes the spinal ganglion.
C. It includes sensory fibers.
D. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Which region of the spinal cord does not contribute nerves to a plexus?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. All of the above regions contribute to a plexus.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 458 | Page 460

TOP:    Nerve Plexuses | Brachial Plexus

 

  1. Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve?
A. Movement of external eye muscles
B. Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
C. Movement of intrinsic eye muscles
D. Proprioception of eye muscles

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 467 (Table 14-2) TOP:               Oculomotor Nerve

 

  1. Which of the following is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve?
A. Zygomatic nerve
B. Ophthalmic nerve
C. Maxillary nerve
D. Mandibular nerve

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 468

TOP:    Trigeminal Nerve

 

  1. Which of the following cranial nerves does not have the function of eye movement?
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Trochlear nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Abducens nerve

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 468

TOP:    Trigeminal Nerve

 

  1. Which is not true about sympathetic postganglionic neurons?
A. They are usually longer than preganglionic neurons.
B. They produce acetylcholine.
C. They produce norepinephrine.
D. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Which is not true about parasympathetic postganglionic neurons?
A. They are usually shorter than the preganglionic neurons.
B. They produce acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter.
C. They produce norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter.
D. They have acetylcholine receptors on their dendrites.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Afferent nerves or fibers are found:
A. only in the sensory nervous system.
B. only in the autonomic nervous system.
C. only in the central nervous system.
D. in both A and B.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. Efferent nerves or fibers are found:
A. only in the central nervous system.
B. only in the autonomic nervous system.
C. only in the somatic nervous system.
D. in both B and C.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. The cauda equine:
A. is part of the cervical plexus.
B. refers to the nerves below the ending of the spinal cord.
C. is part of the brachial plexus.
D. is the term used to describe the groups of cranial nerves leaving the skull.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Which segment of the vertebral column generates more spinal nerve pairs than any other segment?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 456

TOP:    Spinal Nerves

 

  1. The spinal ganglion can be found on the:
A. dorsal nerve root of the spinal nerve.
B. dorsal ramus of the spinal nerve.
C. ventral nerve root of the spinal nerve.
D. ventral ramus of the spinal nerve.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 458

TOP:    Structure of Spinal Nerves

 

  1. Small branches from the cervical plexus join which two cranial nerves?
A. Vagus and hypoglossal
B. Vagus and accessory
C. Hypoglossal and accessory
D. Glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460

TOP:    Cervical Plexus

 

  1. By age 2 years in a normal infant, the stimulus that caused the Babinski reflex now causes:
A. the knee jerk reflex.
B. the ankle jerk reflex.
C. the plantar reflex.
D. no reaction at all.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Plantar Reflex

 

  1. Acetylcholine can stimulate:
A. alpha receptors.
B. beta receptors.
C. nicotinic receptors.
D. A and B above.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. Norepinephrine can stimulate:
A. alpha receptors.
B. beta receptors.
C. nicotinic receptors.
D. A and B above.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 480

TOP:    Autonomic Neurotransmitters and Receptors

 

  1. A gymnast is experiencing problems with balance and equilibrium. Which of the following cranial nerves may be causing this condition?
A. Accessory
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Hypoglossal
D. Vestibulocochlear

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 470         TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. If a person is having problems with tongue movement, what would you predict as a possible cause and other potential problems?
A. Hypoglossal nerve damage and a decrease in proprioception of the tongue
B. Oculomotor nerve damage and a drooping eye
C. Olfactory nerve damage and a decrease in the ability to smell
D. Vagus nerve damage and a decrease in respiration

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 472         TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the:
A. involuntary motor pathways outside the CNS.
B. involuntary motor pathways within the CNS.
C. voluntary motor pathways outside the CNS.
D. voluntary motor pathways within the CNS.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a:
A. contraction of the tendon and its muscles, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
B. stretch of the blood vessels and decreased blood flow to the lower extremities.
C. stretch of the tendon and its muscles, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
D. stretch of the tendon and its muscles, the rectus femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 474         TOP:    Knee Jerk Reflex

 

  1. What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex?
A. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of skeletal muscle contraction.
B. A somatic reflex is caused by secretion of glands, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth and skeletal muscles.
C. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands.
D. A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of smooth or cardiac muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of the secretions of glands.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 473         TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector?
A. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division.
B. A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division.
C. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine.
D. A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. How would you describe the principle of antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system?
A. If sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it.
B. If sympathetic impulses inhibit autonomic centers, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate them.
C. If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
D. If sympathetic impulses initiate nerve conduction, parasympathetic impulses stop nerve conduction.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus?
A. The diaphragm would stop contracting.
B. Sensation to the anterior abdominal wall would cease.
C. Motor nerves to the thigh would not be able to get impulses.
D. Motor nerves to the back of the neck would not be able to get impulses.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 460 (Box 14-2)

TOP:    Phrenic Nerves

 

  1. How is herpes zoster (shingles) a result of the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus?
A. Adrenergic receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site.
B. A cutaneous nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years.
C. Alpha receptors of the cranial nerve send impulses to the brain, indicating pain at the nerve site.
D. A cranial nerve is affected by the virus causing shingles, which remains dormant in the dorsal root ganglion for years.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-3)

TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:
A. are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholine.
B. continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
C. continually conduct impulses to the brain.
D. have opposing effects.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483

TOP:    Overview of Autonomic Function

 

  1. After radiation treatment, Jake experienced a painful eruption of red, swollen plaques that ruptured and later crusted over. Soon after the eruption of the vesicles, Jake complained of burning and itching in the affected dermatome. These symptoms are most likely a result of what condition?
A. Cranial nerve damage
B. Herpes zoster
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Trigeminal neuralgia

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 463 (Box 14-3)

TOP:    Herpes Zoster

 

  1. When responding to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot, a 1-year-old infant extends her great toe without fanning of the other toes. This happens because:
A. the corticospinal fibers have become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex becomes suppressed.
B. the corticospinal fibers have not yet become fully myelinated and the Babinski reflex is activated.
C. the sensory fibers in the ophthalmic branch of the fifth cranial nerve are mediated by reflex arcs.
D. a deep reflex is mediated by a two-neuron spinal arc.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475         TOP:    Plantar Reflex

 

  1. If you were to damage some of the preganglionic fibers that enter the celiac ganglion, what effect would this have on sympathetic stimulation?
A. Hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla may reach the various sympathetic effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic stimulation.
B. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may reach various sympathetic effectors, where they would enhance and prolong the effects of the sympathetic stimulation.
C. Hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation.
D. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland may not reach the various sympathetic effectors, thus delaying the effects of sympathetic stimulation.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 476 | Page 477

TOP:    Structure of the Sympathetic Pathways

 

  1. Judy has sustained an injury that has damaged the vestibulocochlear nerve. This injury will have an affect on her ability to:
A. hear.
B. move her jaw.
C. open and close her eyes.
D. maneuver her tongue.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 470

TOP:    Vestibulocochlear Nerve

 

  1. A patient complains of numbness in the skin of the buttocks and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg. The spinal nerve or peripheral branch most likely involved with this condition is the:
A. brachial plexus.
B. cervical plexus.
C. coccygeal plexus.
D. thoracic plexus.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 460 | Page 461

TOP:    Spinal Nerves and Peripheral Branches

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 464 (Table 14-2)

TOP:    Cranial Nerves

 

  1. Briefly describe the structure of the spinal nerves.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 458         TOP:    Structure of the Spinal Nerve

 

  1. Why do the right and left phrenic nerves have considerable clinical interest?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 460 (Box 14-2)

TOP:    Phrenic Nerves

 

  1. Outline the neural pathway involved in the patellar (knee jerk) reflex.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 474         TOP:    Knee Jerk Reflex

 

  1. Explain physiologically how summation influences effectors doubly innervated by the autonomic nervous system.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 483 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Explain the function of monoamine oxidase as related to the autonomic nervous system.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 482         TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. What is the name of the enzyme that terminates the action of acetylcholine?

 

ANS:

Acetylcholinesterase

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 482

TOP:    Acetylcholine and Its Receptors

 

  1. Explain physiologically how a beta blocker affects heart muscle activity.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 481 (Box 14-7)

TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. What brain structure acts as a “connection” between the cerebrum and the autonomic nervous system?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress conditions.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Contrast somatic motor pathways with autonomic pathways.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 476 (Table 14-4)

TOP:    Structure of the Autonomic Nervous System

 

  1. Identify which spinal nerves join to form each of the four major plexuses.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 460 | Page 461                           TOP:    Nerve Plexuses

 

  1. What two enzymes terminate the activity of norepinephrine? How do they compare with the enzymes that terminate the activity of acetylcholine? What effect does this difference have on the body?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 481 | Page 482

TOP:    Norepinephrine and Its Receptors

 

  1. What is a dermatome? What is a myotome?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 462

TOP:    Dermatomes and Myotomes

 

  1. Explain the difference between the Babinski reflex and the plantar reflex. What does a positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicate?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 475         TOP:    Plantar Reflex

 

  1. Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 460         TOP:    Nerve Plexuses

 

  1. Describe the basic principles of somatic motor pathways.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473

TOP:    Basic Principles of Somatic Motor Pathways

 

  1. Explain the difference between a spinal reflex and a cranial reflex. Explain the difference in effector organs between somatic reflexes and visceral reflexes.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 473         TOP:    Nature of a Reflex

 

  1. Explain the source and possible synapse points for the sympathetic preganglionic neurons.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 476

TOP:    Sympathetic Preganglionic Neurons

 

  1. Explain the ways in which sympathetic postganglionic neurons travel to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between sympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 476 | Page 477

TOP:    Sympathetic Postganglionic Neurons

 

  1. Explain the way parasympathetic neurons travel from the central nervous system to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between the parasympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 478

TOP:    Structure of the Parasympathetic Pathways

 

  1. Explain the principal of autonomic antagonism and why it is important in maintaining homeostasis.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 483 | Page 484

TOP:    Overview of Autonomic Function

 

  1. Explain in general, what the function of the sympathetic nervous system is.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Parasympathetic Division

 

  1. Describe the cause and symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia. How is it treated and what precautions must be taken after the treatment? By what other name is it known?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 468 (Box 14-4)

TOP:    Trigeminal Neuralgia

 

OTHER

 

  1. Challenge: A patient has a severe case of the hiccups. The physician injects an anesthetic solution into the neck about an inch above the clavicle. What nerve was injected, and what is the result?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 460 (Box 14-2)                          TOP:    Phrenic Nerves

 

  1. Challenge: A small child runs in front of your car. You slam on the brakes, skid, and miss hitting the child by inches. What effects did your autonomic nervous system have on your body? Explain why it will take you a while to calm yourself after this incident.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Synthesis         REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Challenge: Mrs. Fearful has surgery in the morning. At her preoperative checkup, her blood pressure and glucose level are elevated. What might be the cause of this temporary increase?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

  1. Challenge: Explain why the cells of the adrenal medulla can be considered sympathetic postganglionic neurons with no specific effector organ.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 484 | Page 485

TOP:    Functions of the Sympathetic Division

 

Patton and Thibodeau: Anatomy & Physiology, 7th Edition

 

Chapter 34: Genetics and Heredity

 

Test Bank

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Gregor Mendel proved that “independent units” are responsible for the inheritance of biological traits.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Science of Genetics

 

  1. A chromatin strand, or a chromosome, is a group of DNA molecules.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Every cell in the human body, both male and female, contains 46 chromosomes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. In the human, the 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. The principle of independent assortment states that each gamete formed is likely to have the same set of 23 chromosomes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1111 | Page 1112                       TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. Crossing over is a unique phenomenon that prevents genetic variation among offspring of a single set of parents.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. DNA molecules are segments of a gene.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Each offspring from a single set of parents is likely to be genetically unique.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1111 | Page 1112                       TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. Gene linkage decreases the likelihood of genetic variation among the offspring of a single set of parents.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. A person who is heterozygous for albinism will have the abnormal phenotype for the condition.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Dominance

 

  1. Both males and females have an X chromosome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. The X chromosome and the Y chromosome are the same size.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Genetic mutations are always harmful.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. The manner in which the genotype is expressed is called the phenotype.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Hereditary Traits

 

  1. Sickle cell inheritance is a good example of how codominance works.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. Disease genes never provide biological advantages for human populations, regardless of the circumstances.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. Theoretically, the best chance for producing a girl infant would be for insemination to occur on the day of ovulation.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1114 (Box 34-2)

TOP:    Timing and Sex Determination

 

  1. A sperm containing a Y chromosome swims faster than a sperm containing an X chromosome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1114 (Box 34-2)

TOP:    Timing and Sex Determination

 

  1. The Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. The X chromosome contains few genes other than those that determine female sexual characteristics.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Red-green color blindness, which involves a deficiency of photopigments in the retina, is an example of a recessive X-linked condition.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. The gene responsible for androgen insensitivity is located on the Y chromosome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Some disease conditions, such as trisomy, always require the combined effects of inheritance and environmental factors.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Mitochondrial inheritance is known to transmit genes for several degenerative nerve and muscle disorders.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. Phenylketonuria is caused by dominant genes that fail to produce the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Thalassemia is an example of a chromosomal abnormality involving trisomy of the 23rd chromosome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a dominant genetic disorder of connective tissue.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce either trisomy or monosomy in the cells of offspring.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. All congenital disorders are inherited disorders.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1117 (Box 34-3)                        TOP:    Congenital Disorders

 

  1. Genetic diseases may be caused by abnormality in a single gene or by a chromosomal defect.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Cystic fibrosis commonly occurs among all ethnic groups.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Tay-Sachs disease is a dominant condition involving failure to make a lipid-producing enzyme.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a recessive disorder of connective tissues.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Nondisjunction results in gametes that produce trisomy but not monosomy in the cells of offspring.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. After age 35, a mother’s chances of producing a trisomic child increase dramatically.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1120 | Page 1121                       TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. The genotype XXY results in Turner syndrome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. Fortunately, individuals with Klinefelter syndrome generally are not sterile.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. One hypothesis regarding cancer involves the presence of oncogenes that, under normal conditions, regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. A pedigree is a chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. A karyotype is a grid used to determine the mathematical probability of inheriting genetic traits.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1122 | Page 1123                       TOP:    Punnett Square

 

  1. Fetal tissue can be collected by amniocentesis, a procedure in which fetal cells floating in the amniotic fluid are collected with a syringe.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. Electrophoresis is one method to chemically analyze chromosomes and to “read” their sequence of nucleotide bases (the genetic code).

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    DNA Analysis

 

  1. The resulting patterns obtained from electrophoresis prove that each person’s DNA sequence is unique.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    DNA Analysis

 

  1. If PKU victims avoid large amounts of phenylalanine in their diets, especially during critical stages of development, severe complications can be avoided.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. Gene replacement therapy attempts to add genetically altered cells to the body.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1124 | Page 1125                       TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. The ultimate goal behind gene augmentation is to change existing body cells.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1124 | Page 1125                       TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. The use of genetic therapy began in 1990 with a group of young children having adenosine deaminase deficiency.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1124 | Page 1125                       TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. The inheritance of a genetic risk factor is not sufficient to cause a disease.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Science of Genetics

 

  1. The Genome Project discovered that the human genome contains about 30,000 genes, about three times the number that was expected.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Because of our greater complexity, the human genome carries about eight times as many genes as the fruit fly does.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Genomics is the science of the analysis of the genome’s code.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. The proteome is to proteins in the cell what the genome is to the DNA in the cell.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1110

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. An ideogram and a pedigree show almost the same information.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. The process of mitosis in humans produces gametes that contain only 23 chromosomes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. A color-blind woman must have had a color-blind father.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114 | Page 115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Crossing over increases genetic variation by forming new linkage patterns.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. People with sickle-cell trait must be heterozygous.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Codominant Traits | Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. The sickle-cell gene produces an abnormal protein chain in the hemoglobin molecule.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. All female gametes carry the X chromosome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. A female who is red-green color blind must be heterozygous for the condition.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. A person with heterozygous sex chromosomes is a female.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114       TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. The term mutation simply means “change.”

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. A disease carried on mDNA must be received from the mother.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. For an individual to have Down syndrome, one of the gametes had to have contained 24 chromosomes.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. A Punnett square or a pedigree can only predict the probability or possibility of passing on a trait to an offspring.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1122 | Page 1123                       TOP:    Pedigree | Punnett Square

 

  1. A Punnett square can be used to detect Down syndrome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1122 | Page 1123                       TOP:    Punnett Square | Karyotype

 

  1. Scientists think they have discovered a “longevity gene” that may be able to lengthen our lives.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1125

TOP:    Genes and Longevity

 

  1. A person who received a human-engineered chromosome as a form of gene therapy would have 47 chromosomes in that cell.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. One form of gene therapy uses bacteria-like DNA plasmids to carry therapeutic genes to a cell.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1124 | Page 1125                       TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. A strand of DNA wound around a histone is called a nucleosome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The function of DNA is to transcribe the genetic code to tRNA.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Genes are segments of DNA molecules.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Chromatin and chromosomes are both forms of DNA.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The term pedigree refers to the entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. There are 44 autosomes in most human cells.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Autosomes not only carry the same genes but also are carried in the same location on the chromosome.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1108 | Page 1111                       TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. In a dominant/recessive trait, the heterozygous person would look like the homozygous person.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. Homozygous refers to a trait that is determined by a single gene pair.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. Polygenic traits have more than one gene pair that contributes to their expression.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. The beta chain in hemoglobin remains normal in a person with sickle cell anemia.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. There are no normal alpha hemoglobin chains in a person with sickle cell anemia.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. A person with sickle cell trait has some normal beta hemoglobin chains in his or her blood.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. The father determines the sex of the offspring.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114       TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. There is no such thing as a heterozygous color-blind female.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. There is no such thing as a homozygous color-blind female.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Statistical evidence supports a link between time of insemination and the sex of the offspring.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1114 (Box 34-2)

TOP:    Timing and Sex Determination

 

  1. Because the Y chromosome is smaller than the X chromosome, geneticists have found that only about 25% of the clinically significant sex-linked traits are found on the Y chromosome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. A mutagen causes a change in the genetic code.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. The terms genetic disorder and congenital disorder are interchangeable.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1117 (Box 34-3)                        TOP:    Congenital Disorders

 

  1. Fetal alcohol syndrome can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1117 (Box 34-3)                        TOP:    Congenital Disorders

 

  1. Cleft palate can be classified as both a congenital and genetic disorder.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1117 (Box 34-3)                        TOP:    Congenital Disorders

 

  1. Fatal mutations are the least harmful to the population as a whole.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. A genetic disease or condition that requires a specific environmental condition for expression is called a predisposition.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Trisomy conditions that involve about 75% of the autosomes are fatal to the offspring.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. The sperm cytoplasm rather than the sperm nucleus is responsible for transmission of mitochondrial DNA.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. The egg cytoplasm rather than the egg nucleus is responsible for transmission of mitochondrial DNA.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. The effect on the body of uncontrolled PKU is damage to the liver and kidneys.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. By restricting fat intake, persons with Tay-Sachs disease can successfully manage the disease.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. The symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta frequently disappear after puberty.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Whether you received a genetic disease from your mother or your father can affect the severity of the disease.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Maternal and Paternal Genes

 

  1. Klinefelter syndrome can be treated with reproductive and growth hormones.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. It may be that women of any age have an equal likelihood of nondisjunction, but in younger women, the fetuses would spontaneously abort.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. It is the function of oncogenes to regulate the normal process of cell division.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disease that affects the ability to form pigments in the eye, leading to color blindness.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. People with xeroderma pigmentosum have a high risk of developing skin cancer.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. In a pedigree, a partially shaded circle would indicate a female carrier for the trait.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. In a pedigree, a completely empty square would indicate a male that had the trait.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. A karyotype is effective only in identifying chromosomal abnormalities.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1123       TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. For a karyotype to be an effective predictor of genetic problems, it must be able to go back several generations.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. One specific transcribed mRNA strand will always produce the same polypeptide.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1110 | Page 1111                       TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The chromosome with the fewest number of genes is carried by about only half the population.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Several human genes seem to have originated in bacteria.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. You would expect the p-arm of a chromosome to carry more genes than the q-arm of the chromosome.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Only about half of the human population has 23 pairs of chromosomes in their cells.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1111       TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. If a child is albino, at least one of the parents must be albino.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. In determining blood type, type A and type B are codominant to the recessive O type. If one parent had type A blood and one parent had type B blood, they could not have a child with type O blood.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominant Traits

 

  1. A mutation caused by the loss of nucleotide bases in DNA sequence is called a deletion mutation.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. All mutations are caused by some external force such as radiation or certain viruses.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. The scientific study of inheritance is called genetics.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Introduction   REF:    Page 1108       TOP:    Introduction

 

  1. When DNA is in its chromosomal form, it is non-functional.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The human genome contains about 200,000 genes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    Human Genome

 

  1. Most of the coding sections of DNA contain T-A–rich sections.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    Human Genome

 

  1. In order for reproduction to be successful, all gametes must be haploid cells.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring

 

  1. Gene linkage and crossing over have opposite effects on genetic variation.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. If a mother is homozygous for normal skin color and the father is albino, none of their offspring will be albino.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. About 1% of the sperm and 10% of the oocytes have extra, missing, or broken chromosomes.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. RNA interference, or iRNA, is being studied as a way to treat genetic disorders.

 

ANS:   T                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Treating Genetic Disorders

 

  1. An adult who is homozygous for Tay-Sachs disease is more resistant to TB.

 

ANS:   F                      DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. Gregor Mendel began the scientific study of genetics in the:
A. 1760s.
B. 1800s.
C. 1860s.
D. 1920s.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Science of Genetics

 

  1. Each DNA molecule may be called a:
A. chromatin strand.
B. chromosome.
C. gene.
D. both A and B.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Which of the following is not a true statement?
A. The gametes contain only 23 chromosomes.
B. A zygote has a haploid number of chromosomes.
C. The pair of sex chromosomes may not match.
D. The 22 pairs of autosomes always appear to be nearly identical to each other.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. The principle of independent assortment states that:
A. each offspring from a single set of parents is very likely to be genetically unique.
B. genetic variation is likely to occur during reproduction.
C. after meiosis, each gamete produced is likely to have a different set of 23 chromosomes.
D. all of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring

 

  1. Crossing over is the process during which:
A. similar gametes fuse together.
B. dissimilar gametes fuse together.
C. meiosis stops after meiosis I.
D. pairs of matching chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell and exchange genes with one another.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Distribution of Chromosomes to Offspring

 

  1. If “A” stands for the dominant gene that prevents albinism and “a” stands for the recessive albinism trait, then an individual with the genotype of “aa” will express:
A. albinism and will be a carrier.
B. albinism and will not be a carrier.
C. normal pigmentation and will be a carrier.
D. normal pigmentation and will not be a carrier.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113                       TOP:    Hereditary Traits

 

  1. A DNA molecule is a:
A. gene.
B. chromosome.
C. genome.
D. gamete.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. An individual possessing the sex chromosome combination “XY” is genetically:
A. a male.
B. a female.
C. both.
D. neither.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Assume that “A1” is the gene for light hair and that “A2” is the gene for dark hair. Also assume that these genes demonstrate codominance. Then, the heterozygous genotype “A1A2” will exhibit the phenotype of:
A. light hair.
B. dark hair.
C. hair color somewhere between light and dark.
D. red hair, because of the phenomenon of crossing over.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. The sickle cell/malaria relationship demonstrates the concept in medical genetics that “disease” genes:
A. are always codominant.
B. are never dominant.
C. often provide some biological advantage for a human population in certain circumstances.
D. never provide a biological advantage for human populations.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. If an individual has only an X chromosome (“XO”), then that person is genetically:
A. male.
B. female.
C. neither male nor female.
D. The condition of “XO” can never occur.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. Red-green color blindness shows X-linked recessive inheritance. Assume “X” is normal, “X1” is recessive for the trait, and “Y” is normal. Then, an individual with the genotype “XX1” will be a:
A. normal female and a carrier.
B. color-blind male.
C. normal female and not a carrier.
D. normal male.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115                       TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. A female can inherit an X-linked recessive trait if her father:
A. is dominant and her mother is heterozygous for the trait.
B. is dominant and her mother is homozygous for the trait.
C. exhibits the trait and her mother is homozygous for the trait.
D. both A and B are correct.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Which of the following has/have been classified as X-linked diseases?
A. One form of diabetes insipidus
B. Androgen insensitivity
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D. All of the above

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115 (Figure 34-9)                                     TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. The condition called trisomy results from a(n):
A. mistake in mitosis called nondisjunction.
B. mistake in meiosis called nondisjunction.
C. abnormality in a single gene.
D. genetic predisposition.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Mitochondrial DNA (mDNA):
A. is inherited as a result of both the sperm and the ovum.
B. has the potential for carrying mutations that produce disease.
C. is present only in lower forms of life.
D. both A and B

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. Cystic fibrosis, caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 7, results in the impairment of the:
A. chloride ion transport across cell membranes.
B. sodium-potassium pump.
C. calcium-storing capacity of the body.
D. oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. All of the following diseases demonstrate single-gene inheritance and are autosomal recessive except:
A. Tay-Sachs disease.
B. total albinism.
C. Huntington disease.
D. severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Tay-Sachs disease results in the failure to make an essential lipid-processing enzyme.
B. This disease is most prevalent in Jewish populations.
C. This disease results in severe retardation and death by age 4.
D. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. A group of symptoms called Down syndrome results from:
A. trisomy 15.
B. trisomy 19.
C. trisomy 21.
D. trisomy 23.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. The syndrome that results from the genotype “XXY” is:
A. Turner.
B. Klinefelter.
C. Down.
D. Parkinson.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. Phenylketonuria (PKU), caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 12, is a condition characterized by:
A. impairment of chloride ion transport across all membranes.
B. failure to produce an enzyme needed to generate the amino acid tyrosine.
C. impairment of the blood’s capacity to store oxygen.
D. impairment of the body’s capacity to store calcium.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. A chart that illustrates genetic relationships in a family over several generations is called a:
A. Punnett square.
B. pedigree.
C. genetic grid.
D. karyotype.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. The hypothesis regarding tumor suppressor genes states that these genes:
A. can transform a cell into a cancer cell only when certain environmental conditions occur.
B. regulate cell division so that it proceeds normally.
C. govern the cell’s ability to repair damaged DNA.
D. both A and C

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. An ordered arrangement of photographs of chromosomes from a single cell is called a:
A. genome.
B. karyotype.
C. Punnett square.
D. pedigree.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. In the therapy called gene augmentation:
A. genes that specify production of abnormal, disease-causing proteins are replaced by normal, or “therapeutic,” genes.
B. hormones are used to treat the genetic disease.
C. diet is used to alleviate the symptoms of the genetic disease.
D. genetically altered cells are added to the body.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. About which percentage of the cell’s DNA carry functional genes?
A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. The shorter segment of a chromosome is called the:
A. centromere.
B. s-arm.
C. p-arm.
D. q-arm.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. “A” is the dominant allele for normal skin color; “a” is recessive for albinism. If a couple were “AA” and “Aa,” which of the following statements is not true?
A. Both parents have the same phenotype.
B. Both parents have the same genotype.
C. They could not have a child with albinism.
D. All of the above are true.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. Which of the following is (are) not (a) mutagen(s)?
A. Radiation
B. Viruses
C. Chemicals
D. All of the above are mutagens.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. When one or more DNA nucleotides are missing in a gene, it can be called a(n):
A. deletion.
B. insertion.
C. mutation.
D. both A and C.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116

TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. Carriers of cystic fibrosis are thought to be protected from:
A. malaria.
B. tuberculosis.
C. cholera.
D. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Carriers of Tay-Sachs disease have a higher resistance to:
A. malaria.
B. tuberculosis.
C. cholera.
D. the toxic effects of mold growing on grain.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Which of the following conditions does not occur as a result of nondisjunction?
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Down syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1120 | Page 1121                       TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. A karyotype would not be helpful in determining:
A. whether an individual has Down syndrome.
B. whether an individual has Turner syndrome.
C. whether an individual has PKU.
D. the sex of the offspring.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1123       TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. Genes determine the structure and function of the body by regulating the body’s production of:
A. carbohydrates.
B. lipids.
C. enzymes.
D. all of the above.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Which of the following processes does not aid in increasing the genetic variability of offspring?
A. Independent assortment
B. Gene linkage
C. Crossing over
D. All of the above add to genetic variation.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1111 | Page 1112

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Assume that “A” is dominant for normal skin color and “a” is recessive for albinism. The parents with which of the following genotypes could have a child with albinism?
A. AA x AA
B. Aa x AA
C. AA x aa
D. Aa x Aa

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Gene Expression

 

  1. The parents with which of the following genotypes could not have a child with albinism?
A. AA x aa
B. Aa x Aa
C. Aa x aa
D. Both B and C

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Gene Expression

 

  1. In human blood type, types A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both dominant to the recessive O type. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce a child with type O blood?
A. AB x AO
B. AO x BO
C. AO x BB
D. None of the above genotypes can produce a type O offspring.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1113 | Page 1114

TOP:    Gene Expression

 

  1. In human blood type, A and B are codominant, producing type AB. They are both dominant to the recessive O type. If parents had genotypes AO and BO, a child with which blood type could be theirs?
A. A child with type A blood
B. A child with type B blood
C. A child with type O blood
D. All of the above children could be theirs.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1113 | Page 1114

TOP:    Gene Expression

 

  1. Color blindness is a sex-linked trait. Which of the following parental genotypes could produce a color-blind female? (X’ indicates the color-blind trait.)
A. X’X x XY
B. XX x X’Y
C. X’X x X’Y
D. X’X’ x XY

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1114 | Page 1115

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. If a man had Leber heredity optic neuropathy, a mitochondrial DNA-carried disease, what is the probability of him passing the trait on to his offspring?
A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 0%
D. Not enough information is given to determine the probability.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Mitochondrial Inheritance

 

  1. Diet soda containing NutraSweet should not be given to people with:
A. Tay-Sachs disease.
B. phenylketonuria.
C. osteogenesis imperfecta.
D. Diet soda would have no effect on any of the above conditions.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene dominant trait?
A. Huntington disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. All of the above are single-gene dominant traits.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. Which of the following diseases is not a single-gene recessive trait?
A. Huntington disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. PKU
D. All of the above are single-gene dominant traits.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. Which of the following diseases is carried by mitochondrial DNA?
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Severe combined immune deficiency
C. Ocular albinism
D. None of the above are carried by mitochondrial DNA.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete, independent units that are called:
A. chromosomes.
B. genes.
C. gametes.
D. nucleosomes.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The subunits of chromatin wound around a histone protein is called a:
A. gene.
B. chromosome.
C. nucleosome.
D. nucleotide.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. Which of the following is not a type of RNA?
A. Mitochondrial RNA
B. Ribosomal RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. All of the above are types of RNA.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. The entire collection of genetic material in each typical cell of the human body is called:
A. diploid.
B. haploid.
C. nucleosomes.
D. genome.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. The human genome contains about:
A. 200,000 to 300,000 genes.
B. 150,000 to 250,000 genes.
C. 75,000 to 100,000 genes.
D. 20,000 to 25,000 genes.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Chromosome 1 contains the most number of genes, nearly:
A. 3000.
B. 2000.
C. 1000.
D. 5000.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Coding portions of DNA tend to lie in clusters rich in which two nucleotides?
A. Thymine and cytosine
B. Cytosine and guanine
C. Cytosine and adenine
D. Thymine and adenine

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Which is a simple cartoon of a chromosome used to show the overall physical structure of a chromosome?
A. Genome
B. Transcriptome
C. Ideogram
D. Karyotype

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. The chromosome that has the fewest genes contains only 200 genes and is called:
A. chromosome 1.
B. chromosome 7.
C. Y chromosome.
D. X chromosome.

 

 

ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    Human Genome

 

  1. The products of meiosis are:
A. gametes.
B. haploid cells.
C. made only of autosomes.
D. both A and B.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1111       TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. In a pedigree, a half-shaded circle indicates a:
A. female that is a carrier for a trait.
B. male that is a carrier for a trait.
C. female with the trait.
D. male with the trait.

 

 

ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. If a pedigree tracing the albinism trait showed a square that was filled in, it would indicate a:
A. female had albinism.
B. male had albinism.
C. female had normal skin color.
D. male was a carrier for albinism.

 

 

ANS:   B                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1122       TOP:    Pedigree

 

  1. If a karyotype found an X chromosome, a Y chromosome, and three 21st chromosomes, it would indicate a:
A. female with Down syndrome.
B. female with Turner syndrome.
C. male with Klinefelter syndrome.
D. male with Down syndrome.

 

 

ANS:   D                     DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1120 | Page 1123

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases and Karyotype

 

MATCHING

 

Match each of the terms with its corresponding definition.

A. recessive
B. codominance
C. monosomy
D. autosome
E. karyotype
F. sex-linked trait
G. dominant
H. trisomy
I. Punnett square
J. genome
K. sex chromosome
L. heterozygous
M. homozygous
N. genetics

 

 

  1. ordered arrangement of photographs of chromosomes from a single cell; used in genetic counseling to identify chromosomal disorders

 

  1. genes that have effects that do not appear in the offspring when they are masked by a dominant gene

 

  1. type of dominance in which two dominant versions of a trait are both expressed in the same person

 

  1. triplet of autosomes resulting from a mistake in meiosis

 

  1. one of 44 chromosomes in the human genome besides the two sex chromosomes

 

  1. grid used in genetic counseling to determine probability of inheriting genetic traits

 

  1. nonsexual trait carried on sex chromosomes

 

  1. genotype with two different genes for one trait

 

  1. genes that have effects that appear in the offspring

 

  1. pair of chromosomes in the human genome that determine sex

 

  1. genotype with two identical genes for a single trait

 

  1. presence of only one autosome of a pair

 

  1. entire set of chromosomes in a cell

 

  1. the scientific study of inheritance

 

  1. ANS:   E                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Karyotype

 

  1. ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. ANS:   H                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Meiosis

 

  1. ANS:   I                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1123

TOP:    Punnett Square

 

  1. ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. ANS:   L                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. ANS:   G                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits

 

  1. ANS:   K                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114

TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. ANS:   M                    DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1112

TOP:    Dominance

 

  1. ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. ANS:   J                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Mapping the Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   N                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Introduction

 

Match each condition with its corresponding statement or definition.

A. Down syndrome
B. Huntington disease
C. Klinefelter syndrome deficiency
D. multiple neurofibromatosis
E. Parkinson disease
F. retinitis pigmentosa
G. severe combined immune deficiency
H. Tay-Sachs disease

 

 

  1. caused by the presence of two or more X chromosomes in a male

 

  1. lymphocytes fail to develop properly

 

  1. nervous disorder characterized by involuntary trembling and muscle rigidity

 

  1. condition characterized by mental retardation and multiple defects

 

  1. condition in which abnormal lipids accumulate in the brain and cause tissue damage leading to death by age 4

 

  1. degenerative brain disorder characterized by chorea, progressing to severe dementia and death generally by age 55

 

  1. condition that causes blindness; characterized by lumps of melanin in the retina of eyes

 

  1. disorder characterized by multiple tumors of the Schwann cells that surround nerve fibers

 

  1. ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1121

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. ANS:   G                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. ANS:   E                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1120

TOP:    Chromosomal Diseases

 

  1. ANS:   H                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1118

TOP:    Single-Gene Diseases

 

  1. ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

  1. ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization

REF:    Page 1119 (Table 34-1)                      TOP:    Examples of Genetic Conditions

 

Match each term with its corresponding definition or description.

A. proteome
B. ideogram
C. genome
D. genomics
E. p-arm
F. proteomics
G. q-arm

 

 

  1. long arm of the chromosome

 

  1. entire group of proteins encoded by the DNA of a cell

 

  1. simple cartoon of a chromosome

 

  1. analysis of proteins encoded by the genome

 

  1. short arm of the chromosome

 

  1. the entire collection of genetic material in a typical cell

 

  1. analysis of the genome code

 

  1. ANS:   G                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   A                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1110

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   B                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   F                      DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1110

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   E                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   C                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. ANS:   D                     DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. When did the scientific study of genetics begin? Give a brief summary of what happened.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    The Science of Genetics

 

  1. Discuss the current effort being made to map all the gene locations in the human genome.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1109 | Page 1111

TOP:    The Human Genome

 

  1. Explain the principle of independent assortment.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1111

TOP:    Principle of Independent Assortment

 

  1. What is codominance? Give an example of this phenomenon in your explanation.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1113       TOP:    Codominance

 

  1. Which swim faster: X-bearing sperm or Y-bearing sperm? Explain.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114 (Box 34-2)

TOP:    Timing and Sex Determination

 

  1. What is meant when a trait is classified as sex-linked? Give an example of such a trait.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1114       TOP:    Sex-Linked Traits

 

  1. Define the term congenital disorder. Are these disorders always inherited? Explain.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117 (Box 34-3)

TOP:    Congenital Disorders

 

  1. Give a brief description of one genetic disorder that is the result of nondisjunction during formation of the gametes.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1117

TOP:    Nuclear Inheritance

 

  1. Describe three possible hypotheses for the genetic basis of cancer.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122

TOP:    Genetic Basis of Cancer

 

  1. Discuss genetic counseling. Include in your discussion an explanation of a pedigree, the Punnett square, and a karyotype.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1122 | Page 1123

TOP:    Genetic Counseling

 

  1. Why must DNA transcription stop during mitosis?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1108       TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Explain the structure of the chromosome. What is the difference between a chromosome and chromatin?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1108

TOP:    Chromosomes and Genes

 

  1. What is a genetic mutation? What types of genetic mutations are there and what are some causes of mutation?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1116       TOP:    Genetic Mutations

 

  1. What is mitochondrial inheritance? Why does it only involve the mother and what type of diseases or deficiencies are caused by mitochondrial genes?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1118       TOP:    Mitochondrial DNA

 

  1. The use of a karyotype would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition? The use of a pedigree would be helpful in determining the possibility of what type of genetic condition?

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1122 | Page 1123

TOP:    Pedigree and Karyotype

 

  1. Describe three types of gene therapy that may be used to treat a genetic disorder.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Introduction to Gene Therapy

 

  1. Describe a specific situation in which gene therapy has been used to treat a genetic disorder.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124

TOP:    Using Gene Therapy

 

OTHER

 

  1. Challenge: Baby Daniel has been diagnosed as having cystic fibrosis, a genetic disease caused by recessive genes in chromosome pair 7. Describe a gene therapy procedure that is being developed to treat this disorder and that may help extend the average life expectancy of Daniel and other CF patients.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Memorization                                     REF:    Page 1124 | Page 1125

TOP:    Treating Genetic Diseases

 

  1. Challenge: Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1108       TOP:    Mechanism of Gene Function

 

  1. Challenge: A man with type B blood and normal skin pigment married a woman with type A blood and normal skin pigment. They had a child with type O blood who was albino. Give the genotypes for blood type and skin pigment for each parent.

 

ANS:

Answers will vary.

 

DIF:    Application     REF:    Page 1112 | Page 1113

TOP:    Dominant and Recessive Traits | Codominant Traits

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